BNF - Chapter 6 - Endocrine system - (Part 1) Flashcards

1
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

It is a rare condition where you produce a large amount of urine and often feel thirsty

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2
Q

Which two drugs can be used in the management of diabetes insipidus?

A

Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) + Desmopressin

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3
Q

What is used in the treatment of ‘cranial’ diabetes insipidus?

A

Vasopressin also can use desmopressin (analogue of vasopressin)

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4
Q

Is treatment required life long after diabetes insipidus following trauma or pituitary surgery?

A

No may be required for a limited period of time

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5
Q

Which is more potent - desmopressin or vasopressin?

A

Desmopressin is more potent and has a longer duration of action than vasopressin

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6
Q

Does desmopressin have vasoconstrictor effect?

A

No, unlike vasopressin it has no vasoconstrictor effect

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7
Q

Which one of the two is used in the differential diagnosis of diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin

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8
Q

How is desmopressin used in the differential diagnosis of diabetes insipidus?

A

Following a dose intramuscularly or intranasally, restoration of the ability to concentrate urine after water deprivation confirms a diagnosis of cranial diabetes insipidus.

Failure to respond occurs in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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9
Q

In nephrogenic and partial pituitary diabetes insipidus what use of drug may be of benefit?

A

benefit may be gained from the paradoxical antidiuretic effect of thiazides.

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10
Q

What are some other uses of desmopressin?

A

Desmopressin is also used to boost factor VIII concentration in mild to moderate haemophilia and in von Willebrand’s disease; it is also used to test fibrinolytic response. Desmopressin may also have a role in nocturnal enuresis.

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11
Q

Which drug can be used in the treatment of hyponatraemia resulting from inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone?

A
  • Democlocycline, if fluid restriction alone does not restore sodium concentration or is not tolerable
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12
Q

How is democlocycline thought to work?

A

By directly blocking the renal tubular effect of antidiuretic hormone

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13
Q

Which vassopressin V2 receptor antagonist is licensed for the treatment of hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion?

A
  • Tolvaptan
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14
Q

What can rapid correction of hyponatraemia during tolvaptan therapy cause?

A

osmotic demyelination, leading to serious neurological events; close monitoring of serum sodium concentration and fluid balance is essential.

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15
Q

What is dosage of vasopressin/ desmopressin tailored to?

A

The dosage is tailored to produce a diuresis every 24 hours to avoid water intoxication

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16
Q

What is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus treated with?

A

Thiazides

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17
Q

What should patients taking desmopressin be warned about regarding hyponatraemic convulsions?

A

patients being treated for primary nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting) should be warned to avoid fluid overload (including during swimming) and to stop taking desmopressin during an episode of vomiting or diarrhoea (until fluid balance normal)

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18
Q

In healthy individuals what does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A
  • Secretes Cortisol (glucocorticoid) and aldosterone (mineralocorticoid)
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19
Q

Is cortisol a glucocorticoid or a mineralocorticoid?

A

Glucocorticoid

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20
Q

Is aldosterone a glucocorticoid or a mineralocorticoid?

A

Mineralocorticoid

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21
Q

Is corticosteroids used in psoriasis?

A

Corticosteroids should be avoided or used only under specialist supervision in psoriasis.

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22
Q

Is fludrocortisone gluco or mineralocorticoid?

A

Mineralocorticoid

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23
Q

What is a use of fludrocortisone acetate?

A

Can be used to treat postural hypotension in autonomic neuropathy

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24
Q

Can high dose corticosteroids be used for septic shock?

A

No high doses should be avoided in septic shock

However, there is evidence that administration of lower doses of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone acetate is of benefit in adrenal insufficiency resulting from septic shock.

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25
Q

Does dexamethasone and betamethasone have a great or little mineralocorticoid action?

A

Dexamethasone and betamethasone have little if any mineralocorticoid action and their long duration of action makes them particularly suitable for suppressing corticotropin secretion in congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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26
Q

In common with all glucocorticoids when are their suppressive action on the hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis the greatest and most prolonged - when they are given in the morning or night?

A

When given at night

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27
Q

In most individuals a single dose of dexamethasone at night, is sufficient to inhibit corticotropin secretion for how many hours?

A

For 24 hours

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28
Q

Betamethasone and dexamethasone are also appropriate for conditions that produce which symptom?

A

for conditions where water retention would be a disadvantage.

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29
Q

Can a corticosteroid be used for the management of head injury or stroke?

A

No because it is unlikely to be of benefit and may even be harmful.

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30
Q

Are corticosteroids recommended for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis?

A

No

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31
Q

What is central serious chorioretinopathy?

A

It is a retinal disorder that has been linked to the systemic use of corticosteroids

Patients should be advised to report any blurred vision or other visual disturbances with corticosteroid treatment given by any route

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32
Q

What are the mineralocorticoid side effects?

A
hypertension
sodium retention
water retention
potassium loss
calcium loss
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33
Q

Which corticosteroids show more mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Mineralocorticoid side effects are most marked with fludrocortisone, but are significant with hydrocortisone, corticotropin, and tetracosactide. Mineralocorticoid actions are negligible with the high potency glucocorticoids, betamethasone and dexamethasone, and occur only slightly with methylprednisolone, prednisolone, and triamcinolone.

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34
Q

What are the glucocorticoid side effects?

A

diabetes
osteoporosis, which is a danger, particularly in the elderly, as it can result in osteoporotic fractures for example of the hip or vertebrae
in addition high doses are associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head
muscle wasting (proximal myopathy) can also occur
corticosteroid therapy is also weakly linked with peptic ulceration and perforation
psychiatric reactions may also occur

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35
Q

When is the suppressive action of a corticosteroid on cortisol secretion the least?

A

When given as a single dose in the morning

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36
Q

In an attempt to reduce pituitary-adrenal suppression further what can be done about doses?

A

the total dose for two days can sometimes be taken as a single dose on alternate days;

alternate-day administration has not been very successful in the management of asthma.

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37
Q

For which patients may a steroid emergency card help?

A

A patient-held Steroid Emergency Card has been developed for patients with adrenal insufficiency and steroid dependence who are at risk of adrenal crisis.

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38
Q

What is the aim of the steroid emergency card?

A

It aims to support healthcare staff with the early recognition of patients at risk of adrenal crisis and the emergency treatment of adrenal crisis

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39
Q

Which corticosteroid is cortisol also known as?

A

Hydrocortisone

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40
Q

Does hydrocortisone have glucocorticoid or mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Glucocorticoid activity with weak mineralocorticoid activity.

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41
Q

In deficiency states of the adrenal cortex, physiological replacement is best achieved with a combination of which two corticosteroids?

A

Hydrocortisone and the mineralocorticoid fludrocortisone

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42
Q

In Addison’s disease or following adrenalectomy, hydrocortisone is usually required via which route?

A

Via - oral route. by mouth

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43
Q

How many doses per day is given of oral hydrocortisone in Addison’s disease?

A

2 doses - the larger in the morning and the smaller dose in the evening - mimicking the normal diurnal rhythm or cortisol secretion

Also given fludrocortisone

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44
Q

In adrenal crisis what is given and which route?

A

Hydrocortisone intravenously

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45
Q

What’s the difference in hypopituitarism and adrenal insufficiency?

A

In hypopituitarism, hydrocortisone should be given as in adrenal insufficiency.
But since production of aldosterone is also regulated by the renin-angiotensin system a mineralocorticoid is not usually required.

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46
Q

When comparing the relative potencies of corticosteroids in terms of their anti-inflammatory (glucocorticoid) effect what should be borne in mind about mineralocorticoid activity?

A

it should be borne in mind that high glucocorticoid activity in itself is of no advantage unless it is accompanied by relatively low mineralocorticoid activity

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47
Q

Does fludrocortisone acetate have much anti-inflammatory activity?

A

The mineralocorticoid activity of fludrocortisone acetate is so high that its anti-inflammatory activity is of no clinical relevance.

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48
Q

Why is hydrocortisone unsuitable for disease suppression on a long term basis?

A

Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, and results in fluid retention making it unsuitable.

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49
Q

Can hydrocortisone be used for adrenal replacement therapy?

A

Yes

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50
Q

Do prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity or mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Predominantly glucocorticoid activity

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51
Q

Which corticosteroid is used most commonly by mouth for long term disease suppresion?

A
  • Prednisolone
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52
Q

Do betamethasone and dexamethasone have long or short duration of action?

A

Long duration of action

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53
Q

What properties make betamethasone and dexamethasone suitable for conditions which require suppression of corticotropin (corticotrophin)?

A

Betamethasone and dexamethasone also have a long duration of action and this, coupled with their lack of mineralocorticoid action makes them particularly suitable for conditions which require suppression of corticotropin (corticotrophin) secretion (e.g. congenital adrenal hyperplasia).

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54
Q

Does deflazacort have a high or low glucocorticoid activity?

A

A high glucocorticoid activity; it is derived from prednisolone

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55
Q

Can live virus vaccines be given in those receiving immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids?

A

No - it is listed on the Contraindications

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56
Q

What are the common side effects of systemic corticosteroids?

A

Anxiety; behaviour abnormal; cataract subcapsular; cognitive impairment; Cushing’s syndrome; electrolyte imbalance; fatigue; fluid retention; gastrointestinal discomfort; headache; healing impaired; hirsutism; hypertension; increased risk of infection; menstrual cycle irregularities; mood altered; nausea; osteoporosis; peptic ulcer; psychotic disorder; skin reactions; sleep disorders; weight increased

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57
Q

During prolonged therapy with corticosteroids, particularly with systemic use, what may develop and can persist for years after stopping?

A

Adrenal atrophy

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58
Q

During adrenal suppression therapy, what can abrupt withdrawal after a prolonged period lead to?

A
  • acute adrenal insufficiency
  • hypotension
  • death
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59
Q

To compensate for a diminished adrenocortical response caused by prolonged corticosteroid treatment what do any significant intercurrent illness, trauma or surgical procedure require?

A

A temporary increase in corticosteroid dose, or if already stopped, a temporary reintroduction of corticosteroid treatment.

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60
Q

Prolonged courses of corticosteroids increase susceptibility to what?

A

To infections and severity of infections

clinical presentation of infections may also be atypical. Serious infections e.g. septicaemia and tuberculosis may reach an advanced stage before being recognised, and amoebiasis or strongyloidiasis may be activated or exacerbated (exclude before initiating a corticosteroid in those at risk or with suggestive symptoms).

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61
Q

What effect can prolonged courses of corticosteroids have on fungal or viral ocular infections?

A

They may also be exacerbated

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62
Q

What is the effect of chickenpox and corticosteroid use?

A

Unless they have had chickenpox, patients receiving oral or parenteral corticosteroids for purposes other than replacement should be regarded as being at risk of severe chickenpox

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63
Q

Should corticosteroids if chickenpox is contracted - should they be stopped?

A

Corticosteroids should not be stopped and dosage may need to be increased

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64
Q

What advice should be given to patients taking corticosteroids about measles?

A

Patients taking corticosteroids should be advised to take particular care to avoid exposure to measles and to seek immediate medical advice if exposure occurs. Prophylaxis with intramuscular normal immunoglobulin may be needed.

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65
Q

System corticosteroids, particularly in high does have been linked to what neurological reactions?

A

Psychiatric reactions including euphoria, insomnia, irritability, mood liability, suicidal thoughts, psychotic reactions and behavioural disturbances,

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66
Q

Does the benefit of treatment with corticosteroid during pregnancy outweigh the risk?

A

Yes it does

When administration is prolonged or repeated during pregnancy, systemic corticosteroids increase the risk of intra-uterine growth restriction; there is no evidence of intra-uterine growth restriction following short-term treatment (e.g. prophylactic treatment for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome).

Any adrenal suppression in the neonate following prenatal exposure usually resolves spontaneously after birth and is rarely clinically important.

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67
Q

What monitoring is important if corticosteroids are used in children?

A

The height and weight of children receiving prolonged treatment with corticosteroids should be monitored annually; if growth is slowed, referral to a paediatrician should be considered.

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68
Q

gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids should be considered in which patients?

A

received more than 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than 1 week;
been given repeat doses in the evening;
received more than 3 weeks’ treatment;
recently received repeated courses (particularly if taken for longer than 3 weeks);
taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy;
other possible causes of adrenal suppression.

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69
Q

In which patients may systemic corticosteroids be stopped abruptly?

A

Systemic corticosteroids may be stopped abruptly in those whose disease is unlikely to relapse and who have received treatment for 3 weeks or less and who are not included in the patient groups described above

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70
Q

During corticosteroid withdrawal the dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological doses (what dose is this equivalent to)? then it can be reduced slowly?

A

Equivalent to prednisolone 7.5mg daily

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71
Q

In children when should gradual withdrawal of corticosteroid be considered?

A

Gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids should be considered in those whose disease is unlikely to relapse and have:

received more than 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than 1 week or 2 mg/kg daily for 1 week or 1 mg/kg daily for 1 month;
been given repeat doses in the evening;
received more than 3 weeks’ treatment;
recently received repeated courses (particularly if taken for longer than 3 weeks);
taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy;
other possible causes of adrenal suppression.

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72
Q

In children what dose of prednisolone is equivalent to physiological doses?

A

Prednisolone 2-2.5mg/m2 daily

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73
Q

What is the purpose of a steroid treatment card?

A

to support communication of the risks associated with treatment and to record details of the prescriber, drug, dosage, and duration of treatment.

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74
Q

In which adults can steroid emergency cards be issued to?

A

Steroid Emergency Cards should be issued to patients with adrenal insufficiency and steroid dependence for whom missed doses, illness, or surgery puts them at risk of adrenal crisis.

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75
Q

List patients in which it may be appropriate to issue a steroid emergency card?

A

those with primary adrenal insufficiency;
those with adrenal insufficiency due to hypopituitarism requiring corticosteroid replacement;
those taking corticosteroids at doses equivalent to, or exceeding, prednisolone 5 mg daily for 4 weeks or longer across all routes of administration (oral, topical, inhaled, intranasal, or intra-articular);
those taking corticosteroids at doses equivalent to, or exceeding, prednisolone 40 mg daily for longer than 1 week, or repeated short oral courses;
those taking a course of oral corticosteroids within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy.

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76
Q

What does the steroid emergency card also include?

A

The card includes a management summary for the emergency treatment of adrenal crisis and can be issued by any healthcare professional managing patients with adrenal insufficiency or prescribing steroids.

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77
Q

Does hydrocortisone have more gluco or mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Equal activity of both

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78
Q

What does crushing syndrome result from?

A

It results from chronic exposure to excess cortisol

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79
Q

What is the most common cause of cushing syndrome?

A

Exogenous corticosteroid use is the most common cause.

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80
Q

What are some of the endogenous causes of Cushing syndrome?

A

adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)-secreting pituitary tumours (Cushing’s disease), cortisol-secreting adrenal tumours, and rarely, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumours

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81
Q

How are most types of endogenous Cushing’s syndrome treated?

A

Surgically

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82
Q

Which drug is licensed for the management of Cushing syndrome?

A

Metyrapone

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83
Q

Which drug is licensed for the treatment of endogenous Cushing’s syndrome?

A
  • Ketoconazole
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84
Q

What type of antifungal does ketoconazole belong to?

A

Imidazole derivative which acts a potent inhibitor of cortisol and aldosterone synthesis

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85
Q

Is oral ketoconazole marketing as being available and used for fungal infection?

A

The CHMP recommended that the marketing authorisation for oral ketoconazole to treat fungal infections should be suspended.

The CHMP concluded that the risk of hepatoxicity associated with oral ketoconazole is greater than the benefit in treating fungal infections.

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86
Q

Can oral ketoconazole be used for endogenous Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Yes

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87
Q

What is the uses of metyrapone?

A

Used to treat Cushing’s syndrome

Also can be used to test anterior pituitary function

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88
Q

To summarise, what is used in adrenal replacement therapy?

A

In replacement therapy, hydrocortisone (cortisol) (a glucocorticoid) and
fludrocortisone (aldosterone) (a mineralocorticoid) is used

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89
Q

Why is prednisolone still remained as the drug of choice for most oral corticosteroid treatments?

A

Since it has a larger margin of safety

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90
Q

Abrupt withdrawal of long term treatment of corticoids can leaf to adrenal insufficiency, hypotension or death. what other symptoms are associated with withdrawal?

A

cold and flu like symptoms, itching and weight loss

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91
Q

Why should steroids be used with caution in children?

A

Due to possible growth restrictions

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92
Q

What effect may steroids have on warfarin?

A

corticosteroids may enhance the anticoagulant effects of warfarin at high-doses

At low doses they may reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin

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93
Q

What are the side effects of mineralocorticoid?

A
  • hypertension
  • sodium retention
  • potassium loss
  • water retention
  • calcium loss

Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid involved in the rennin- angiotensin system – hence increased sodium and decreased potassium and hydrogen ions.

HINT - in ACEi / ARBs - angiotensin-renin system is blocked - meaning less aldosterone meaning opposite - potassium retention

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94
Q

What are the glucocorticoids side effects?

A

include diabetes and osteoporosis; also potentially peptic ulceration. Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid, it has anti- inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects (hence ulceration); they increase blood glucose levels (hence diabetes) and mobilise calcium (hence osteoporosis).

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95
Q

How does type 1 diabetes occur?

A

Occurs due to a lack of insulin following autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells.

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96
Q

What about type 2 diabetes?

A
  • reduced insulin release or resistance to insulin or both
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97
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed?

A

By measuring fasting or random blood-glucose levels

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98
Q

What’s the difference in what treatment is required for type 1 and 2 diabetes?

A

• Type 1 diabetics require insulin, Type 2 diabetics can be managed with diet, but may require antidiabetic drugs, insulin or both. Type

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99
Q

How can type 2 diabetes in overweight patients be prevented?

A

By losing weight and increasing physical activity

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100
Q

What is the purpose of diabetes treatment?

A

It is to optimise blood glucose and minimise the risk of long term complications

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101
Q

What is diabetes a risk factor for?

A
  • Cardiovascular disease - to reduce this risk diabetic patients are also on ramipril, low dose aspirin and simvastatin (R.A.S)
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102
Q

Which CVD prevention drugs should be discontinued before pregnancy in diabetic patients

A

Ramipril + Simvastatin

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103
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

Diabetes mellitus is a group of metabolic disorders in which persistent hyperglycaemia is caused by deficient insulin secretion or by resistance to the action of insulin

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104
Q

What does persistent hyperglycaemia in diabetes mellitus lead to?

A

Leads to the abnormalities of carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism that are characteristic of diabetes mellitus

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105
Q

What are the classifications of diabetes?

A

Type 1 diabetes and Type 2 diabetes are the two most common classifications of diabetes. Other common types of diabetes are gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy and resolves after delivery, see Diabetes, pregnancy and breast-feeding) and secondary diabetes (may be caused by pancreatic damage, hepatic cirrhosis, or endocrine disease). Treatment with endocrine, antiviral, or antipsychotic drugs may also cause secondary diabetes.

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106
Q

All drivers being treated with which diabetic medication must inform DVLA?

A
  • Insulin

With some exceptions for temporary treatment

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107
Q

What must drivers being treated with insulin always carry?

A

Carry a glucose meter and blood-glucose strip when driving

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108
Q

How often should drivers on insulin check their blood glucose concentration?

A
  • no more than 2 hours before (within 2 hours before driving)
  • then every 2 hours while driving.
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109
Q

While driving what must blood glucose always be above?

A

Above 5mmol/L while driving.

If blood glucose falls to 5mmol/L or below then a snack should be taken.

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110
Q

Drivers treated with insulin should also ensure that there is a supply of what else?

A

A fast-acting carbohydrate is always available in the vehicle

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111
Q

If a driver is treated usually with insulin for diabetes and their blood-glucose concentration is less than 4mmol/L, or warning signs of hypoglycaemia develop, can the patient drive?

A

The patient should not drive

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112
Q

What if the patient is already driving?

A

the driver should:

stop the vehicle in a safe place;
switch off the engine, remove keys from the ignition, and move from the driver’s seat;
eat or drink a suitable source of sugar;
wait until 45 minutes after blood-glucose has returned to normal, before continuing journey.

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113
Q

Can patients drive if hypoglycaemia awareness has been lost?

A

No and the DVLA must be notified; drivers may resume if a medical report confirms that awareness has been regained.

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114
Q

What is the effect of alcohol on signs of hypoglycaemia?

A

Alcohol can make the signs of hypoglycaemia less clear, and can cause delayed hypoglycaemia

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115
Q

What do specialist sources recommend about patients with diabetes who want alcohol?

A
  • should drink alcohol in moderation, and when accompanied by food.
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116
Q

When is the oral glucose tolerance test mainly used?

A

It is used mainly for diagnosis of impaired glucose tolerance - it is not recommended for necessary for routine diagnostic use when severe symptoms of hyperglycaemia are present.

In patients who have less severe symptoms and a blood-glucose concentration that does not establish or exclude diabetes (e.g. impaired fasting glycaemia), an oral glucose tolerance test may be required.

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117
Q

When else is an oral glucose tolerance test used?

A

To establish the presence of gestational diabetes

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118
Q

What does an oral glucose tolerance test involve?

A

An oral glucose tolerance test involves measuring the blood-glucose concentration after fasting, and then 2 hours after drinking a standard anhydrous glucose drink. Anhydrous glucose may alternatively be given as the appropriate amount of Polycal® or as Rapilose® OGTT oral solution.

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119
Q

What is HbA1c?

A

Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) forms when red blood cells are exposed to glucose in the plasma.

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120
Q

What indicator is HbA1c used for?

A

The HbA1c test reflects average plasma glucose over the previous 2 to 3 months and provides a good indicator of glycaemic control

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121
Q

Like oral glucose tolerance test does HbA1c test require fasting?

A

Unlike the oral glucose tolerance test, an HbA1c test can be performed at any time of the day and does not require any special preparation such as fasting.

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122
Q

What is the value expressed for HbA1c values?

A

HbA1c values are expressed in mmol of glycated haemoglobin per mol of haemoglobin (mmol/mol), a standardised unit specific for HbA1c created by the International Federation of Clinical Chemistry and Laboratory Medicine (IFCC)

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123
Q

What are the equivalence values of HbA1c mmol/mol to HbA1c expressed as percentages?

A
IFCC-HbA1c (mmol/mol)	DCCT-HbA1c (%)
42	6.0
48	6.5
53	7.0
59	7.5
64	8.0
69	8.5
75	9.0
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124
Q

When is the HbA1c test used?

A

For monitoring glycaemic control in both Type 1 and 2 diabetes and is also now used for the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes

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125
Q

In which patients should HbA1C not be used for?

A

HbA1c should not be used for diagnosis in those with suspected type 1 diabetes, in children, during pregnancy, or in women who are up to two months postpartum. It should also not be used for patients who have:

  • had symptoms of diabetes for less than 2 months;
  • a high diabetes risk and are acutely ill;
  • treatment with medication that may cause hyperglycaemia;
  • acute pancreatic damage;
  • end-stage chronic kidney disease;
  • HIV infection.
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126
Q

HbA1c used for diagnosis of diabetes should be interpreted with caution in which patients?

A

with abnormal haemoglobin, anaemia, altered red cell lifespan, or who have had a recent blood transfusion.

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127
Q

What is HbA1c also a reliable predictor of?

A

microvascular and macrovascular complications and mortality.

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128
Q

Is a higher or lower HbA1c better?

A

Lower HbA1c is associated with a lower risk of long term vascular complications and patients should be supported to aim for an individualised HbA1c target

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129
Q

What is the recommendations of how often HbA1C should be measured for type 1 and type 2 daibetes?

A

HbA1c should usually be measured in patients with type 1 diabetes every 3 to 6 months, and more frequently if blood-glucose control is thought to be changing rapidly.

Patients with type 2 diabetes should be monitored every 3 to 6 months until HbA1c and medication are stable when monitoring can be reduced to every 6 months.

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130
Q

When is HbA1c monitoring invalid?

A

invalid for patients with disturbed erythrocyte turnover or for patients with a lack of, or abnormal haemoglobin. In these cases, quality-controlled plasma glucose profiles, total glycated haemoglobin estimation (if there is abnormal haemoglobin), or fructosamine estimation can be used.

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131
Q

What does fructosamine concentration measure?

A

Laboratory measurement of fructosamine concentration measures the glycated fraction of all plasma proteins over the previous 14 to 21 days but is a less accurate measure of glycaemic control than HbA1c.

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132
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A

Type 1 diabetes describes an absolute insulin deficiency in which there is little or no endogenous insulin secretory capacity due to destruction of insulin-producing beta-cells in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. This form of the disease has an auto-immune basis in most cases, and it can occur at any age, but most commonly before adulthood.

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133
Q

What does the loss of insulin secretion result in?

A
  • In hyperglycaemia and other metabolic abnormalities
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134
Q

What are the typical features in adult patients presenting with type 1 diabetes?

A
  • Hyperglycaemia (random plasma-glucose concentration above 11mmol/L)
  • ketosis
  • rapid weight loss
  • a body max index below 25kg/m2
  • age younger than 50 years
  • and a personal/family history of autoimmune disease (though not all features may be present
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135
Q

What is the treatment aims of type 1 diabetes?

A
  • using insulin regimens to achieve as optimum a level of blood glucose control as is feasible
    while avoiding or reducing the frequency of hypoglycaemic episodes, in order to minimise the risk of long-term microvascular and macrovascular complications
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136
Q

What is the aim of HbA1c concentration or lower in patients with type 1 diabetes?

A

48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower in patients with type 1 diabetes

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137
Q

How often should blood glucose concentration be monitored for someone with type 1 diabetes?

A

At least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed

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138
Q

For type one diabetes what blood glucose concentration is recommended on waking?

A

a fasting blood-glucose concentration of 5–7 mmol/litre on waking

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139
Q

For type one diabetes what blood glucose concentration is recommended before meals at other times of the day?

A

4–7 mmol/litre before meals at other times of the day

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140
Q

For type one diabetes what blood glucose concentration is recommended at least 90 minutes after eating?

A

5-9mmol/L at least 90 minutes after

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141
Q

For type one diabetes what blood glucose concentration is recommended when driving?

A

above 5 mmol/litre when driving, as recommended by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)

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142
Q

What replacement does type 1 diabetes require?

A
  • insulin replacement
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143
Q

In addition to insulin therapy which tablet may be used unlicensed?

A

In patients who have a BMI of 25 kg/m2 or above (23 kg/m2 or above for patients of South Asian or related ethnicity) who wish to improve their blood-glucose control while minimising their effective insulin dose, consider metformin hydrochloride [unlicensed indication] as an addition to insulin therapy.

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144
Q

Is dietary control only important for type 2 diabetes?

A

No it is important for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes

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145
Q

What should patients with type-1 diabetes be offered - for diet?

A

Patients with type 1 diabetes should be offered carbohydrate-counting training as part of a structured education programme.

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146
Q

Do all patients with type 1 diabetes require insulin therapy?

A

Yes

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147
Q

List the different types of insulin therapy regimens for type 1 diabetes?

A
  • Multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens
  • Mixed (biphasic) regimen
  • Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion (insulin pump)
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148
Q

What is multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens used for type 1 diabetes?

A

One or more separate daily injections of intermediate-acting insulin or long-acting insulin analogue as the basal insulin; alongside multiple bolus injections of short-acting insulin before meals. This regimen offers flexibility to tailor insulin therapy with the carbohydrate load of each meal.

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149
Q

What is mixed (biphasic) regimen used for type 1 diabetes?

A

One, two, or three insulin injections per day of short-acting insulin mixed with intermediate-acting insulin.

The insulin preparations may be mixed by the patient at the time of injection, or a premixed product can be used.

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150
Q

What is continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion (insulin pump)?

A

A regular or continuous amount of insulin (usually in the form of a rapid-acting insulin analogue or soluble insulin), delivered by a programmable pump and insulin storage reservoir via a subcutaneous needle or cannula

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151
Q

Which regimen is first-line choice for patients with type 1 diabetes?

A

multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens

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152
Q

For the basal-bolus regimen which insulin should be given as the long-acting insulin?

A
  • Insulin detemir (Levemir)

Twice daily administration

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153
Q

What should be given as an alternative if insulin detemir is not tolerated, or if a twice-daily regimen is not acceptable?

A

Insulin Glargine (100units/ml)

(Lantus)

(Once Daily Administration)

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154
Q

If there is a concern about nocturnal hypoglycaemia then which other insulin is an alternative to the previous two mentioned as the basal part of the basal-bolus regimen?

A

Insulin degludec

(Tresiba)

(Ultra-long acting_

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155
Q

For patients who need help with injection administration from a carer or healthcare professional a once daily ultra-long acting insulin may be given - which ones are ultra long acting?

A

Insulin degludec (Tresiba)

Insulin Glargine (300units/ml) (Touejo)

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156
Q

Are non-basal-bolus regimens (e.g. twice-daily mixed [biphasic], basal-only, or bolus-only regimens) recommended for adults with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes?

A

No they are not

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157
Q

What acting insulin is recommended as the mealtime insulin replacement for the basal-bolus regimen?

A

A rapid acting insulin analogue

Rather than soluble human insulin or animal insulin (rarely used).

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158
Q

When should the rapid-acting insulin analogue be injected?

A

Should be injected before meals - routine use after meals should be discouraged

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159
Q

If the first-line choice of going for a basal-bolus regimen is not possible or not preferred then what regimen may be offered next?

A

(Biphasic)

a twice-daily mixed insulin regimen should be considered if it is preferred.

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160
Q

In patients who are using a twice-daily human mixed insulin regimen and have hypoglycaemia that affects their quality of life what should be trialled?

A

a trial of a twice-daily analogue mixed insulin regimen should be considered.

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161
Q

Who should continuous subcutaneous insulin infusions be offered to?

A

should only be offered to patients who suffer disabling hypoglycaemia while attempting to achieve their target HbA1c concentration, or, who have high HbA1c concentrations (69 mmol/mol [8.5%] or above) with multiple daily injection therapy (including, if appropriate, the use of long-acting insulin analogues) despite a high level of care. Insulin pump therapy should be initiated by a specialist team.

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162
Q

When may insulin requirements decrease and therefore susceptibility to hypoglycaemia increase?

A

by physical activity, intercurrent illness, reduced food intake, impaired renal function, and in certain endocrine disorders.

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163
Q

What should patients’ awareness of hypoglycaemia be assessed using and how often?

A

Should be assessed annually using the Gold score or the Clarke score.

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164
Q

Impaired awareness of symptoms below what mmol of glucose concentration is associated with a significantly increased risk of severe hypoglycaemia?

A

Below 3mmol/L

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165
Q

Which class of drugs may blunt/ mask hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

Beta blockers

reducing warning signs such as tremor

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166
Q

Can relaxation of individualised blood glucose targets be used as a strategy to improve hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

This should be avoided

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167
Q

Do clinical studies confirm if human insulin decreases hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

No they do not confirm this

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168
Q

What is insulin and its role?

A

Insulin is a polypeptide hormone secreted by pancreatic beta-cells. Insulin increases glucose uptake by adipose tissue and muscles, and suppresses hepatic glucose release. The role of insulin is to lower blood-glucose concentrations in order to prevent hyperglycaemia and its associated microvascular, macrovascular and metabolic complications.

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169
Q

What is the natural profile of insulin secretion in the body?

A

(a low and steady secretion of background insulin that controls the glucose continuously released from the liver) and meal-time bolus insulin (secreted in response to glucose absorbed from food and drink).

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170
Q

How many types (sources) of insulin are available in the UK?

A

Three types

  • human insulin
  • human insulin analogues
  • animal insulin
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171
Q

What are animal insulins extracted from?

A

Animal insulins are extracted and purified from animal sources (bovine or porcine insulin)

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172
Q

Are animal insulins still used?

A

No longer initiated but still used in patients who do not wish to change to human insulins

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173
Q

What are human insulins produced by?

A

Human insulins are produced by recombinant DNA technology and have the same amino acid sequence as endogenous human insulin.

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174
Q

What about human insulin analogues?

A

Human insulin analogues are produced in the same way as human insulins, but the insulin is modified to produce a desired kinetic characteristic, such as an extended duration of action or faster absorption and onset of action.

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175
Q

Why must insulin be given by injection?

A

As it is inactivated by gastro-intestinal enzymes and must therefor be given by injection

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176
Q

Where should insulin be injected?

A

Into a body area with plenty of subcutaneous fat - usually the abdomen (fastest absorption rate) or outer thighs/buttocks (Slower absorption compared with the abdomen or inner thighs)

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177
Q

What else can affect the absorption rate of insulin?

A

Absorption from a limb site can vary considerably (by as much as 20–40%) day-to-day, particularly in children. Local tissue reactions, changes in insulin sensitivity, injection site, blood flow, depth of injection, and the amount of insulin injected can all affect the rate of absorption.

Increased blood flow around the injection site due to exercise can also increase insulin absorption.

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178
Q

When can lipohypertrophy occur?

A

Lipohypertrophy can occur due to repeatedly injecting into the same small area, and can cause erratic absorption of insulin, and contribute to poor glycaemic control.

Patients should be advised not to use affected areas for further injection until the skin has recovered.

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179
Q

How can lipohypertrophy be minimised?

A

By using different injection sites in rotation

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180
Q

What should injection sites be checked for?

A
  • signs of infection
  • Swelling
  • Bruising
  • Lipohypertrophy

all before adminstration

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181
Q

What are the two types of short-acting insulin?

A
  • Soluble insulin (human and, bovine or porcine - both rarely used)
  • Rapid-acting insulin analgoues
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182
Q

List the rapid-acting insulin analogues?

A
  • Insulin Aspart
  • Insulin Glulisine
  • Insulin Lispro
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183
Q

What routes can soluble insulin be given?

A
  • usually given subcutaneously but some preparations can be given intravenously and intramuscularly
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184
Q

When injected subcutaneously what is the onset of action for soluble insulin?

A

Rapid onset of action
30-60 minutes

A peak action between 1 and 4 hours and a duration of action up to 9 hours

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185
Q

What about when soluble insulin is given intravenously?

A

soluble insulin has a short half-life of only a few minutes and its onset of action is instantaneous.

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186
Q

What is the most appropriate insulin and route for use in diabetic emergencies such as diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Soluble insulin administered intravenously

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187
Q

What is the list of rapid-acting insulins?

A

Insulin Aspart
Insulin Glulisine
- Insulin Lispro

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188
Q

Do rapid-acting insulin have a longer or shorter duration of action and onset of action?

A

Faster onset of action (within 15 minutes) and shorter duration of action (approximately 2-5 hours) than soluble insulin and are usually given subcutaneously

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189
Q

When rapid-acting insulin is used as maintenance regimens, ideally when should it be injected?

A

Immediately before meals

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190
Q

Can there be a routine use of post-meal injections of rapid-acting insulin?

A

No this should be avoided

when given during or after meals, they are associated with poorer glucose control, an increased risk of high postprandial-glucose concentration, and subsequent hypoglycaemia.

191
Q

Given an example of an intermediate-acting insulin?

A

Isophane insulin

192
Q

When intermediate insulin is given by subcutaneous injection what is the onset of action and duration of action?

A

they have an onset of action of approximately 1–2 hours, a maximal effect at 3–12 hours, and a duration of action of 11–24 hours.

193
Q

Isophane is a suspension of insulin with what?

A

With protamine

194
Q

List examples of biphasic insulins? (Pre-mixed insulin preparations containing various combinations of short-acting insulin)

A

(biphasic isophane insulin, biphasic insulin aspart, biphasic insulin lispro

195
Q

In biphasic insulin preparation what percentage dose the short-acting insulin vary from?

A

15-50%

196
Q

When should biphasic insulin be administered?

A

subcutaneous injection immediately before a meal.

197
Q

List the long acting insulins?

A
  • Protamine zinc insulin
  • Insulin Zinc suspension
  • Insulin detemir (Levemir)
  • Insulin Glargine (Lantus - 100units/ml)
  • Insulin degludec (tresiba)
  • Insulin Glargine (Touejo 300units/ml)
198
Q

What may the duration of action of long acting insulin last till?

A

Up to 36 hours

199
Q

How long does it take to achieve steady-state concentration with long-acting insulin?

A

They achieve a steady-state level after 2–4 days to produce a constant level of insulin.

200
Q

What frequency of daily administration is required with each long-acting insulin?

A

Insulin glargine and insulin degludec are given once daily and insulin detemir is given once or twice daily according to individual requirements.

201
Q

Are the older long-acting insulins - insulin zinc suspension and protamine zinc insulin still used?

A

They are now rarely prescribed

202
Q

What is the brand name for insulin aspart?

A

Novarapid

Rapid-acting

203
Q

What is the brand name for insulin lispro?

A

Humalog

Rapid-acting

204
Q

What is the brand name for insulin glulisine?

A

Apidra

Rapid-acting

205
Q

What is the brand name for Isophane insulin (intermediate-acting)?

A

Humulin I

206
Q

Give examples of brand names of biphasic insulins?

A

Novomix30
Humalog Mix25
Humulin M3

207
Q

Should insulins be prescribed by brand name?

A

Yes - as patient familiarity and ease of use are important

208
Q

What is type 2 diabetes commonly associated with?

A
  • obesity
  • Physical inactivity
  • Raised blood pressure
  • Dyslipidaemia
  • a tendency to develop thrombosis
209
Q

Is type 2 diabetes more common in adulthood or as a child?

A

Type 2 diabetes typically develops later in life but is increasingly diagnosed in children, despite previously being considered a disease of adulthood.

210
Q

What non-drug treatment can help with type 2 diabetes?

A

Weight loss
Smoking cessation
Regular exercise

211
Q

What effect does metformin have?

A

Metformin hydrochloride has an anti-hyperglycaemic effect, lowering both basal and postprandial blood-glucose concentrations.

212
Q

Does metformin stimulate the release of insulin?

A

It does not stimulate insulin secretion and therefore, when given alone, does not cause hypoglycaemia.

213
Q

Should metformin be started slowly and titrated and why?

A

The dose of standard-release metformin hydrochloride should be increased gradually to minimise the risk of gastro-intestinal side effects.

214
Q

Give a list of sulfonylureas - anti-diabetic medications?

A

glibenclamide, gliclazide, glimepiride, glipizide, tolbutamide

215
Q

Can sulfonylureas cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Yes - t is more likely with long-acting sulfonylureas such as glibenclamide, which have been associated with severe, prolonged and sometimes fatal cases of hypoglycaemia.

216
Q

Is sulfonylureas associated with weight gain?

A

Yes they are and it is probably due to increased plasma-insulin concentrations

217
Q

Examples of the meglitinides?

A

Nateglinide

Repaglinide

218
Q

Do meglitinides have a rapid or late onset of action?

A

have a rapid onset of action and short duration of activity.

219
Q

When can meglitinides be used?

A

These drugs can be used flexibly around mealtimes and adjusted to fit around individual eating habits which may be beneficial for some patients, but generally are a less preferred option than the sulfonylureas.

220
Q

What class of antidiabetic drug does pioglitazone belong to?

A

Thiazolidinedione

221
Q

List the DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

(Gliptins)

  • Alogliptin
  • Linagliptin
  • Sitagliptin
  • Saxagliptin
  • Vildagliptin
222
Q

Are DPP-4 inhibitors associated with weight gain?

A

No - and have less incidence of hypoglycaemia than the sulfonylureas

223
Q

List the sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT-2 inhibitors)?

A
  • Canagliflozin
  • Dapagliflozin
  • Empagliflozin
224
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors are associated with a high risk of what?

A

High risk of diabetic ketoacidosis

225
Q

List the Glucagon-like-receptor 1 agonists (GLP-1 agonists)?

A
  • Dulaglutide
  • Exenatide
  • Liraglutide
  • Lixisenatide
226
Q

When should GLP-1 agonists be used in type 2 diabetes?

A

Should be reserved for combination therapy when other treatment options have failed

227
Q

Does liraglutide have a proven benefit in cardiovascular disease?

A

Yes

228
Q

What should type 2 diabetes be initially treated with?

A
  • Single oral antidiabetic drug
229
Q

What is the target HbA1c when type 2 diabetes is managed by diet and lifestyle alone or when combined with a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia (such as metformin hydrochloride).

A

48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

230
Q

Adults prescribed a single drug associated with hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination, should usually aim for an HbA1c concentration of what?

A

53mmol/mol (7.0%)

231
Q

What HbA1c or higher is considered as poorly controlled and indicates drug treatment should be intensified?

A

58mmol/mol or (6.5%) higher

232
Q

What is the recommended first-line drug treatment for Type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Metformin
233
Q

Does metformin cause weight gain or weight loss?

A

Positive effect on weight loss

234
Q

Does metformin have a low or high risk of causing hypoglycaemia?

A

Reduced risk

235
Q
If metformin (alongside modification to diet) does not control HbA1c then treatment should be intensified. 
What is the first intesification treatment?
A

Metformin combined with one of the following:

  • a sulfonylurea (glibenclamide, gliclazide, glimepiride, glipizide, tolbutamide);
  • Pioglitazone;
  • a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor (linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin, or vildagliptin);
  • a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin or empagliflozin) only when sulfonylureas are contra-indicated or not tolerated, or if the patient is at significant risk of hypoglycaemia or its consequences.
236
Q

Is gliclazide a short acting or long acting sulfonylurea?

A

Short acting

237
Q

In elderly patients or those with renal impairment if a sulphonylurea is used, should they be short-acting or long-acting sulfonylurea?

A

Elderly patients or those with renal impairment are at particular risk of hypoglycaemia; if a sulfonylurea is indicated, a shorter-acting sulfonylurea, such as gliclazide or tolbutamide should be prescribed.

238
Q

Is alogliptin used in the first intensification?

A

he place in therapy of alogliptin (a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor) is not yet known.

239
Q

What is the second intensification of treatment for type 2 diabetes if dual therapy is unsuccessful?

A

treatment should be intensified again, and one of the following triple therapy regimens prescribed:

Metformin hydrochloride and a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor and a sulfonylurea;

  • Metformin hydrochloride and pioglitazone and a sulfonylurea;
  • Metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea and one of the sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors;
  • Metformin hydrochloride and pioglitazone and a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor (canagliflozin or empagliflozin; note that dapagliflozin is not recommended in a triple therapy regimen with pioglitazone).

Alternatively, it may be appropriate to start insulin-based treatment at this stage—see Drug treatment, insulin

240
Q

If triple therapy with metformin hydrochloride and two other oral drugs is tried and is not effective, not tolerated or contra-indicated then what can be used as part of a triple combination regimen?

A

a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist may be prescribed as part of a triple combination regimen with metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea.

241
Q

What is the specific criteria in which can allow prescribing of GLP1-agonists?

A

These should only be prescribed for patients who have a BMI of 35 kg/m2 or above (adjusted for ethnicity) and who also have specific psychological or medical problems associated with obesity; or for those who have a BMI lower than 35 kg/m2 but for whom insulin therapy would have significant occupational implications or if the weight loss associated with glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists would benefit other significant obesity-related comorbidities

242
Q

After how many months should treatment with GLP-1 agonist be reviewed then assessed to be continued or not?

A

After 6 months, the drug should be reviewed and only continued if there has been a beneficial metabolic response (a reduction of at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] in HbA1c and a weight loss of at least 3% of initial body-weight).

243
Q

What is the alternative non-metformin regimen - first line treatment if metformin is contra-indicated or not tolerated?

A

initial treatment should be single therapy with:

  • a sulfonylurea (glibenclamide, gliclazide, glimepiride, glipizide, or tolbutamide) (first choice), or
  • a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor (linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin, or vildagliptin), or
  • Pioglitazone.
244
Q

Can SGL2 inhibitor (Canagliflozin, empagliflozin or dapagliflozin) be used as monotherapy when metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated?

A

only if a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor would otherwise be prescribed and neither a sulfonylurea nor pioglitazone is appropriate.

245
Q

Why repaglinide rarely used now?

A

because, should an intensification of treatment be required, it is not licensed to be used in any combination other than with metformin hydrochloride

As a single therapy is okay but if intensification is required and metformin is contraindicated it would require a complete change of treatment in those patients who have started it due to intolerance or CI to metformin

246
Q

What is the intensification option to someone being treated monotherapy to a drug on non-metformin regimen?

A

treatment should be intensified and one of the following dual combinations prescribed:

a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor and pioglitazone;
a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitor and a sulfonylurea; or
Pioglitazone and a sulfonylurea

If dual therapy does not provide adequate glucose control, insulin-based treatment should be considered

247
Q

When insulin is used for treatment of type 2 diabetes should metformin still be used?

A

Metformin hydrochloride should be continued unless it is contra-indicated or not tolerated.

Other antidiabetic drugs should be reviewed and stopped if necessary.

248
Q

Which insulin regimens are recommended when used in type 2 diabetes?

A
human isophane insulin injected once or twice daily, according to requirements;
a human isophane insulin in combination with a short-acting insulin, administered either separately or as a pre-mixed (biphasic) human insulin preparation (this may be particularly appropriate if HbA1c is 75 mmol/mol (9.0%) or higher);
Insulin detemir or insulin glargine as an alternative to human isophane insulin. This can be preferable if a once daily injection would be beneficial (for example if assistance is required to inject insulin), or if recurrent symptomatic hypoglycaemic episodes are problematic, or if the patient would otherwise need twice-daily human isophane insulin injections in combination with oral glucose-lowering drugs. Also consider switching to insulin detemir or insulin glargine from human isophane insulin if significant hypoglycaemia is problematic, or in patients who cannot use the device needed to inject human isophane insulin;
biphasic preparations (pre-mixed) that include a short-acting human analogue insulin (rather than short-acting human soluble insulin) can be preferable for patients who prefer injecting insulin immediately before a meal, or if hypoglycaemia is a problem, or if blood-glucose concentrations rise markedly after meals.
249
Q

When starting insulin therapy for type 2 diabetes what should be initiated?

A
  • Basal insulin regimen should be initiated and the dose titrated against morning (Fasting) glucose
250
Q

Patients who are prescribed a basal insulin regimen (human isophane insulin, insulin detemir or insulin glargine) for type 2 diabetes should be monitored for the need for what?

A

the need for short-acting insulin before meals (or a biphasic insulin preparation).

251
Q

How does metformin work?

A

It works by decreasing glucogenesis and increasing the body’s use of glucose (glucose utilisation)

252
Q

Does metformin when given alone cause hypoglycaemia?

A

No - as it does not stimulate insulin release

253
Q

What side effect is common when initiating metformin?

A

GI side effects are common - so the dose of standard release regimens should be increased gradually.

MR can be offered when standard release is not tolerated

254
Q

How often is metformin taken and when?

A

Three times daily with food

255
Q

How do sulfonylureas e.g. gliclazide work?

A

they work by modulating insulin release and therefore may cause hypoglycaemia

256
Q

What is the direction for administration of gliclazide?

A

Taken once daily in the morning with breakfast

257
Q

Does sulfonylureas cause weight gain?

A

Yes

258
Q

Can gliclazide be used in pregnancy?

A

Should generally be avoided

259
Q

How does pioglitazone work?

A

• Pioglitazone increases glycogen synthesis and reduces gluconeogenesis. It also increases insulin receptor sensitivity

260
Q

Is pioglitazone associated with weight loss or weight gain?

A

as it increases appetite it can cause weight gain and is associated with several long-term risks.

261
Q

Is diabetes a risk factor for CVD?

A

Yes a strong risk factor

262
Q

What can be used to reduce cardiovascular risk in patients with diabetes?

A
  • ACEi/ ARB

- Lipid-regulating drugs

263
Q

In diabetic patients with nephropathy, why should blood pressure be reduced?

A

lood pressure should be reduced to the lowest achievable level to slow the rate of decline of glomerular filtration rate and reduce proteinuria.

264
Q

What albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) indicated diabetic patient requires anti-hypertensive treatment?

A

Provided there are no contra-indications, all diabetic patients who have confirmed nephropathy with an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 3 mg/mmol or more should be treated with an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist, even if the blood pressure is normal

265
Q

In patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and proteinuria, should ACEi or ARB be given alone?

A

given as monotherapy to reduce the rate of progression of CKD

266
Q

What about patients with type 2 diabets and CKD who are already on an ACE inhibitor or ARB?

A

add on therapy with a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor should be offered if the ACR is over 30mg/mmol; for patients with an ACR of 3–30mg/mmol, add on therapy should be considered.

267
Q

What effect can ACEi have on the hypoglycaemia effect of antidiabetic drugs?

A

ACE inhibitors can potentiate the hypoglycaemic effect of insulin and oral antidiabetic drug

this effect is more likely during the first weeks of combined treatment and in patients with renal impairment.

268
Q

In which diabetic patients may experience diabetic neuropathy?

A

However, acute painful diabetic neuropathy can occur in patients with type 1 diabetes who have a rapid improvement in blood glucose control.

269
Q

What is the treatment for this?

A

his is usually self-limiting and simple analgesics (such as paracetamol) along with other measures (such as bed cradles) are recommended as first line treatments.

If the response is inadequate, other treatment options for painful diabetic neuropathy should be considered. Simple analgesia may be continued until the effects of additional treatments have been established.

270
Q

What is the treatment for diabetic peripheral neuropathy if simple analgesics are ineffective?

A

Monotherapy with antidepressant drugs, including tricyclics (such as amitriptyline hydrochloride and imipramine hydrochloride [unlicensed use]), duloxetine, and venlafaxine [unlicensed use]

Antiepileptic drugs, such as pregabalin and gabapentin, can also be considered.

Opioid analgesics in combination with gabapentin can be considered if pain is not controlled with monotherapy.

271
Q

In autonomic neuropathy what can diabetic diarrhoea be treated with?

A
  • tetracycline (unlicensed)
  • Codeine Phosphate as the best alternative

other antidiarrhoeal preparations can also be tried.

272
Q

What can gustatory sweating be treated with?

A

with an antimuscarinic such as propantheline bromide; side-effects are common.

273
Q

Is visual impairment a complication of diabetes?

A

Yes - Optimal diabetic and blood pressure control should be maintained to prevent onset and progression of diabetic eye disease

274
Q

Does hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state have a higher or lower mortality than Diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Higher mortality than DKA

275
Q

What is the major precipitating factor for both DKA and HHS?

A

Infection

276
Q

What are other precipitating factors for DKA?

A

discontinuation of or inadequate insulin therapy, acute illness such as myocardial infarction and pancreatitis, new onset of diabetes, or stress (e.g. trauma, surgery);

277
Q

What are other precipitating factors for HHS?

A

these include inadequate insulin or oral antidiabetic therapy, acute illness in a patient with known diabetes, or stress.

278
Q

Does DKA develop rapidly or gradually?

A

Rapidly (within hours) and mainly occurs in individuals with type 1 diabetes with around a third of cases occurring in those with type 2 diabetes

279
Q

What about HHS, does it develop rapidly or gradually?

A

Unlike DKA, HHS can take days to develop and consequently the dehydration and metabolic disturbances are more severe at presentation.

280
Q

Does HHS appear more in the young or elderly?

A

HHS typically occurs in the elderly, but can also occur in younger adults and adolescents, often as the initial presentation of type 2 diabetes.

281
Q

What are the Characteristics of DKA?

A
  • Hyperglycaemia (blood glucose above 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus)
  • ketonaemia (capillary or blood ketone above 3 mmol/L or significant ketonuria of 2+ or more)
  • acidosis (bicarbonate less than 15 mmol/L and/or venous pH less than 7.3).
282
Q

What are the common symptoms and signs of DKA?

A
  • Dehydration due to polydipsia (thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination)
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive tiredness
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Abdominal pain
  • Kussmaul respiration (rapid and deep respiration)
  • Acetone breath (fruity smelling)
  • Reduced consciousness
283
Q

Which type of diabetes does HHS occur in?

A

occurs in people with type 2 diabetes who experience very high blood glucose levels (often over 40mmol/l). It can develop over a course of weeks through a combination of illness (e.g.infection) and dehydration.

284
Q

What is the characteristics of HHS?

A
  • hypovolaemia (abnormally low extracellular fluid in the body)
  • marked hyperglycaemia (blood glucose above 30 mmol/L without significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis)
  • hyperosmolality (osmolality above 320 mosmol/kg)
285
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of HHS?

A
  • Dehydration due to polyuria and polydipsia
  • Weakness
  • Weight loss
  • Tachycardia
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • Poor skin turgor
  • Hypotension
  • Acute cognitive impairment
  • in severe cases can lead to shock
286
Q

What is the aims of treatment of DKA?

A
  • restore circulatory volume (fluid replacement)
  • Correct electrolyte imbalance (electrolyte replacement)
  • correct hyperglycaemia
  • Clear ketones
  • supress ketogenesis
287
Q

What is the aims of treatment of HHS?

A
  • correct fluid and electrolyte loss, hyperosmolarity and hyperglycaemia
288
Q

What does the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis involve?

A

the replacement of fluid and electrolytes and the administration of insulin

289
Q

the diabetes specialist team should be involved as soon as possible after admission to hospital (ideally within how many hours)?

A

Within 24 hours

290
Q

What is the initial management of DKA?

A
  • IV fluid replacement
  • Followed by IV insulin (Soluble)
    (Patients who normally take long acting insulin should continue their usual dose(s) throughout treatment)
  • Potassium replacement and glucose administration may also be required to prevent subsequent hypokalaemia and hypoglycaemia depending on potassium levels and blood glucose concentrations, respectively.
291
Q

What is the initial management of HHS?

A

The initial drug management of HHS involves intravenous fluid replacement, followed by intravenous insulin. For patients with significant ketonaemia or ketonuria, insulin can be started earlier. Potassium should be replaced or omitted as required.

292
Q

Does ketoacidosis normally occur in Type 1 or 2 diabetes?

A

Type 1 diabetes

293
Q

What is the mechanism of ketoacidosis and rationale for treatment?

A

Normally occurs in Type 1 diabetics. As no insulin is produced, fat is broken down (as no insulin is present to stop this occurring) causing ketone production. This type of hyperglycaemia occurs very quickly (>20mM), ketones irritate the vomiting centre and vomiting will potassium levels. If insulin is given, any potassium remaining in the blood will be taken up into cells worsening hypokalaemia

294
Q

Summarise the management steps of ketoacidosis?

A
  • We have to rehydrate the patient without giving glucose, so initial management involves giving 0.9% saline (sodium chloride) by I.V. infusion.
  • Potassium levels need to be replenished which is achieved by giving Potassium Chloride fluid
  • Next, we give an I.V. insulin infusion to reduce blood glucose levels and the production of ketone bodies. Soluble insulin should be diluted and mixed thoroughly with the 0.9% saline. Blood glucose should fall by atleast 3mmol/litre/hour
  • Once blood glucose concentration falls below 14mmol/litre… glucose 10% should be given by I.V. infusion in addition to 0.9% saline infusion to prevent hypoglycaemia.
  • The insulin infusion should be continued until the blood ketone concentration is <0.3mmol/litre, blood pH above 7.3 and the patient is able to eat and drink. Ideally give SC fast-acting insulin and a meal and stop the insulin infusion 1 hour later.
295
Q

For peri-operative management of blood glucose - what must be written/prescribed on their drug chart?

A

All patients should have emergency treatment for hypoglycaemia written on their drug chart on admission.

296
Q

How should patients having elective surgery - minor procedures with good glycaemic control (less than 69mmol/mol) be managed?

A

can be managed during the operative period by adjustment of their usual insulin regimen, which should be adjusted depending on the type of insulin usually prescribed, following detailed local protocols (which should also include intravenous fluid management, monitoring and control of electrolytes and avoidance of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis).

297
Q

On the day before the surgery, can the patient’s usual dose of insulin be given?

A

the patient’s usual insulin should be given as normal, other than once daily long-acting insulin analogues, which should be given at a dose reduced by 20 %.

298
Q

What do patients undergoing elective surgery for major procedure ((surgery requiring a long fasting period of more than one missed meal) or poor glycaemic control require?

A

will usually require a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (continued until the patient is eating/drinking and stabilised on their previous glucose-lowering medication).

299
Q

Similar to non major surgery for major surgery or poor glycaemic control what should be noted of usual insulin dose on the day of surgery?

A

on the day before surgery, once daily long-acting insulin analogues should be given at 80 % of the usual dose; otherwise the patient’s usual insulin should be given as normal;
On the day of surgery and throughout the intra-operative period, once daily long-acting insulin analogues should be continued at 80 % of the usual dose; all other insulin should be stopped until the patient is eating and drinking again after surgery;

300
Q

Which insulin is used for major surgery or surgery in those with poor glycaemic control?

A

Soluble human insulin

301
Q

When should you convert back to a SC insulin?

A

hould not begin until the patient can eat and drink without nausea or vomiting.

302
Q

What should be noted about insulin dose post-op?

A

Once the patient’s previous insulin regimen is re-started, the usual insulin dose may require adjustment, as insulin requirements can change due to post-operative stress, infection or altered food intake.

303
Q

When should SC basal-bolus regimens be restarted?

A

when the first postoperative meal-time insulin dose is due (e.g. with breakfast or lunch); doses may need adjustment due to postoperative stress, infection or altered food intake.

304
Q

Should the variable rate intravenous infusion and IV fluids still be continued after the first meal short-acting insulin dose?

A

Yes - The variable rate intravenous insulin infusion and intravenous fluids should be continued until 30–60 minutes after the first meal-time short-acting insulin dose.

305
Q

Is it same procedure if the SC insulin regimen the patient was on previously is twice-daily mixed insulin regimen (Biphasic)?

A

Yes - hould be restarted before breakfast or an evening meal (not at any other time). The variable rate intravenous insulin infusion should be maintained for 30–60 minutes after the first subcutaneous insulin dose has been given.

306
Q

What should patients with type 1 and 2 diabetes have checked before emergency surgery?

A

blood-glucose, blood or urinary ketone concentration, serum electrolytes and serum bicarbonate checked before surgery.

If ketones are high or bicarbonate is low, blood gases should also be checked.

If ketoacidosis is present, recommendations for diabetes ketoacidosis should be followed immediately, and surgery delayed if possible.

If there is no acidosis, intravenous fluids and an insulin infusion should be started and managed as for major elective surgery (above)

307
Q

When insulin is required and given during surgery, which antidiabetics should be stopped?

A

acarbose, meglitinides, sulfonylureas, pioglitazone, dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) and sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors should be stopped once the insulin infusion is commenced and not restarted until the patient is eating and drinking normally

308
Q

Can GLP-1 agonists be continued?

A

Yes - can be continued as normal during the insulin infusion.

309
Q

For minor elective suregry or in those with good glycaemic control, which drugs can be continued during the whole peri-operative period?

A

Pioglitazone, dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) and glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists can be taken as normal during the whole peri-operative period.

310
Q

What about SGLT-2 inhibitor?

A

should be omitted on the day of surgery and not restarted until the patient is stable; their use during periods of dehydration and acute illness is associated with an increased risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis.

311
Q

What about sulfonylureas?

A

Sulfonylureas are associated with hypoglycaemia in the fasted state and therefore should always be omitted on the day of surgery until the patient is eating and drinking again.

Capillary blood-glucose should be checked hourly. If hyperglycaemia occurs, an appropriate dose of subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin may be given. A second dose may be given 2 hours later, and a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion considered if hyperglycaemia persists.

312
Q

Is metformin renally excreted?

A

Yes

313
Q

What can renal impairment and use of metformin in surgery lead to?

A

renal impairment may lead to accumulation and lactic acidosis during surgery.

314
Q

Does dose of metformin need to be omitted on day of surgery?

A

If only one meal will be missed during surgery, and the patient has an eGFR greater than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2 and a low risk of acute kidney injury (and the procedure does not involve administration of contrast media), it may be possible to continue metformin hydrochloride throughout the peri-operative period—just the lunchtime dose should be omitted if the usual dose is prescribed three times a day.

If the patient will miss more than one meal or there is significant risk of the patient developing acute kidney injury, metformin hydrochloride should be stopped when the pre-operative fast begins. A variable rate intravenous insulin infusion should be started if the metformin hydrochloride dose is more than once daily. Otherwise insulin should only be started if blood-glucose concentration is greater than 12 mmol/litre on two consecutive occasions. Metformin should not be recommenced until the patient is eating and drinking again, and normal renal function has been assured.

315
Q

Is there a need to stop metformin after contrast medium (imaging of body)?

A

There is no need to stop metformin hydrochloride after contrast medium in patients missing only one meal or who have an eGFR greater than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2. If contrast medium is to be used, and eGFR is less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2, metformin should be omitted on the day of the procedure and for the following 48 hours.

316
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors have a higher risk of diabetic ketoacidosis in which situations?

A

-During periods of dehydration, stress, surgery, trauma, acute medical illness or any other catabolic state, and should be used with caution during these times

317
Q

Can pioglitazone and DPP4i be used in the peri-operatice period if insulin is not required?

A

Yes

318
Q

What is diabetes in pregnancy associated with?

A

increased risks to the woman (such as pre-eclampsia and rapidly worsening retinopathy), and to the developing fetus, compared with pregnancy in non-diabetic women

319
Q

Women with pre-existing diabetes who are planning on becoming pregnant should aim to keep their HbA1c concentration below?

A

48mmol/mol (6.5%) if possible without causing problematic hypoglycaemia.

320
Q

What dose folic acid is recommended for women with pre-existing diabetes who are planning to become pregnant?

A
  • Folic acid at the dose for women who are at high-risk of neural tube defect
321
Q

Which antidiabetic drugs should be discontinued before pregnancy?

A

All oral antidiabetic drugs should be discontinued before pregnancy (except metformin) and substituted with insulin therapy

322
Q

Can metformin be continued immediately after birth?

A

Metformin hydrochloride can be continued immediately after birth and during breast-feeding for those with pre-existing Type 2 diabetes. All other antidiabetic drugs should be avoided while breast-feeding.

323
Q

What is the first choice of long acting insulin in pregnancy?

A

Isophane insulin however in women who have good blood-glucose control before pregnancy with the long-acting insulin analogues (insulin detemir or insulin glargine), it may be appropriate to continue using them throughout pregnancy.

324
Q

Who may continuous SC insulin infusion be appropriate for in pregnant women?

A

Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion (insulin pump therapy) may be appropriate for pregnant women who have difficulty achieving glycaemic control with multiple daily injections of insulin without significant disabling hypoglycaemia.

325
Q

What should all pregnant women being treated with insulin be informed of and also what should they carry with them?

A

All women treated with insulin during pregnancy should be aware of the risks of hypoglycaemia, particularly in the first trimester, and should be advised to always carry a fast-acting form of glucose, such as dextrose tablets or a glucose-containing drink. Pregnant women with Type 1 diabetes should also be prescribed glucagon for use if needed.

326
Q

What is the first line treatment of gestational diabetes for women who have a fasting plasma glucose below 7mmol/L at diagnosis?

A

first attempt a change in diet and exercise alone in order to reduce blood-glucose.

327
Q

If blood glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks then what may be prescribed?

A

If blood-glucose targets are not met within 1 to 2 weeks, metformin hydrochloride may be prescribed [unlicensed use].

328
Q

What may be prescribed if metformin is CI or not acceptable?

A
  • Insulin and may also be added to treatment if metformin is not effective alone
329
Q

Women with gestational diabetes who have a fasting glucose above 7mmol/l at diagnosis should be treated with what?

A

should be treated with insulin immediately, with or without metformin hydrochloride, in addition to a change in diet and exercise.

330
Q

What about women who have a fasting plasma glucose between 6 and 6.9 mmol/litre alongside complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios?

A

hould be considered for immediate insulin treatment, with or without metformin hydrochloride.

331
Q

is antidiabetic treatment for gestational diabetes continued after giving birth?

A

No - Women with gestational diabetes should discontinue hypoglycaemic treatment immediately after giving birth.

332
Q

How does acarbose work?

A

Delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose; it has small but significant effect in lowering blood glucose

333
Q

Acarbose should be avoided if eGFR is less than?

A

Less than 25ml/min/1.73m2

334
Q

What antidiabetic drug class does metformin belong to?

A

Biguanides

335
Q

With metformin, manufacturer advises avoid is eGFR les than?

A

Less than 30ml/min/1.73m2

336
Q

Patients on metformin should be informed on signs of lactic acidosis, what are those?

A
  • dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia or asthenia (weakness; lack of energy and strength)
337
Q

With alogliptin which eGFR require dose reduction?

A

Usual dose is 25mg once daily

if eGFR 30-50ml/min/1.73m2 then reduce to 12.5mg daily

If eGFR less than 30ml/min.1.73m2 then reduce dose to 6.25mg daily

338
Q

Is there a formulation available of alogliptin and metformin?

A

Yes - vipdomet

339
Q

Can linagliptin be used in renal impairment?

A

Yes - no dose adjustments required

340
Q

What is the brand name of linagliptin and metformin?

A

Jentadueto

341
Q

What is brand name janumet for?

A

Sitagliptin with metformin

342
Q

What is the MAO of dulaglutide (GLP-1 agonist)?

A

Dulaglutide is a long acting glucagon-like-receptor 1 agonist that augments glucose dependent insulin secretion and delays gastric emptying

343
Q

When GLP-1 is initated how should insulin dose be reduced?

A

Slowly and gradually as rapid withdrawal of insulin has been linked to serious and life-threatening cases of diabetic ketoacidosis

344
Q

Where is GLP-1 agonists stored?

A

In the fridge 2-8degrees celsius

Once in use, may be stored unrefrigerated for up to 14 days at a temperature not above 30degree.

345
Q

What information about missed dose should be given to patients on GLP-1 agonist?

A

If a dose is missed, it should be administered as soon as possible only if there are at least 3 days until the next schedule dose; if less than 3 days remain before the next schedule dose, the missed dose should not be taken and the next dose should be taken at the normal time

346
Q

What is the brand name for liraglutide?

A

Victoza

Saxenda

347
Q

What drug class is semaglutide?

A

GLP-1 agonist

348
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Reversibly inhibit sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 in the renal proximal convoluted tubule to reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion

349
Q

What signs of ketoacidosis should patients on SGLT-2 inhibitors be informed on?

A
  • rapid weight loss, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fast and deep breathing, sleepiness, a sweet smell to the breath, a sweet or metallic taste in the mouth, or a different odour to urine or sweat)
350
Q

Can canagliflozin increase the risk of lower limb amputations (mainly toes) in patients with type 2 diabetes?

A

Yes

351
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors have a higher risk of ketoacidosis what else do they have a risk of causing?

A

Volume depletion - especially in the elderly

correct hypovolaemia before starting treatment

352
Q

What eGFR is Canagliflozin avoided?

A

Caution if under 60ml/min/1.73m2

Avoid if under 30ml/min/1.73m2

353
Q

What are some symptoms of hypovolaemia?

A

Postural hypotension

Dizziness

354
Q

Which condition has been linked to use of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Fournier’s gangrane - if suspected - stop treatment - seek medical attention

355
Q

There has been a recent change in the indications of dapagliflozin, what is this?

A

It is no longer recommended in the treatment of type 1 diabetes

(Previous BNF notes say - high risk of diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes)

356
Q

List the sulfonylureas?

A

Gliclazide
Glimepiride
Glipizide
Tolbutamide

357
Q

What is the MAO of pioglitazone?

A

Reduces peripheral insulin resistance, leading to reduction of blood-glucose concentration

358
Q

Can pioglitazone be used in heart failure?

A

No it should not be used in patients with heart failure or a history of heart failure

359
Q

MHRA has released a warning that the use of pioglitazone is associated with risk of what type of cancer?

A
  • Bladder cancer

Should not be used in patients with active bladder cancer or with a past history of bladder cancer or in those who have univestigated macroscopic haematuria.

Risk of bladder cancer with pioglitazone increases with age

360
Q

With pioglitazone use - after how long should treatment stop if no improvement?

A

3-6 months

361
Q

What symptoms linked to bladder cancer should patients on pioglitazone report?

A
  • Haematuria
  • dysuria
  • Urinary urgency
362
Q

What is the recommended glucose-concentrations for adults and children?

A

Adults - 4-7mmol/L before meals and less than 9mmol/L after meals

Children - 4-8mmolL before meals and less than 10mmol/L after meals

363
Q

When is self-monitoring of blood glucose concentration appropriate for patients with type 2 diabetes?

A

who are treated with insulin;
who are treated with oral hypoglycaemic drugs e.g. sulfonylureas, to provide information on hypoglycaemia;
to monitor changes in blood-glucose concentration resulting from changes in lifestyle or medication, and during intercurrent illness;
to ensure safe blood-glucose concentration during activities, including driving.

364
Q

What do freestyle libre sensor measure?

A

Glucose interstitial fluid detection sensors

365
Q

Any under what glucose concentration should be treated for hypoglycaemia?

A

Less than 4mmol/L

366
Q

Hypoglycaemia should be excluded in which patient with diabetes showing what signs?

A

who is acutely unwell, drowsy, unconscious, unable to co-operate, or presenting with aggressive behaviour or seizures.

367
Q

What should adults with symptoms of hypoglycaemia who have a glucose concentration greater than 4mmol/L be treated with?

A

a small carbohydrate snack such as a slice of bread or a normal meal, if due.

368
Q

What about patients with glucose concentration below 4mmol/L with or without symptoms and who is conscious and able to swallow?

A

should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate by mouth.

369
Q

What are some fast acting carbohydrates?

A

Lift® glucose liquid (previously Glucojuice®), glucose tablets, glucose 40% gels (e.g. Glucogel®, Dextrogel®, or Rapilose®), pure fruit juice, and sugar (sucrose) dissolved in an appropriate volume of water.

Oral glucose formulations are preferred as absorption occurs more quickly.

370
Q

Can orange juice be given in hypoglycaemia treatment following a low potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease?

A

No

371
Q

Is sugar dissolved in water suitable to treat for hypoglycaemia in patients being treated with acarbose?

A

Not effective for patients taking acarbose which prevents the breakdown of sucrose to glucose

372
Q

Why should chocolates and biscuits be avoided in hypoglycaemia treatment?

A

As they have lower sugar content and their high fat content may delay stomach emptying

373
Q

If necessary after how many minutes should you repeat treatment for hypoglycaemia and what’s the maximum treatment times?

A

repeat treatment after 15 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 treatments in total.

374
Q

What should you do once blood glucose concentration is above 4mmol/L and the patient has recovered?

A

a snack providing a long-acting carbohydrate should be given to prevent blood glucose from falling again (e.g. two biscuits, one slice of bread, 200–300 mL of milk (not soya or other forms of ‘alternative’ milk, e.g. almond or coconut), or a normal carbohydrate-containing meal if due)

Insulin should not be omitted if due, but the dose regimen may need review.

375
Q

What should Hypoglycaemia which does not respond (blood-glucose concentration remains below 4 mmol/litre after 30–45 minutes or after 3 treatment cycles), be treated with?

A

should be treated with intramuscular glucagon or glucose 10% intravenous infusion

376
Q

In alcoholic patients what supplementation should be given with, or following the administration of intravenous glucose to minimise the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Thiamine supplementation

377
Q

How does glucagon work?

A

Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which increases blood-glucose concentration by mobilising glycogen stored in the liver.

378
Q

In which patients does the manufacturer advise not to use glucagon in?

A

he manufacturer advises that it is ineffective in patients whose liver glycogen is depleted, therefore should not be used in anyone who has fasted for a prolonged period or has adrenal insufficiency, chronic hypoglycaemia, or alcohol-induced hypoglycaemia.

379
Q

Glucagon may also be less effective in which other patients?

A

Glucagon may also be less effective in patients taking a sulfonylurea; in these cases, intravenous glucose will be required.

380
Q

In an emergency can anyone administer glucagon?

A

In an emergency, if the patient has a decreased level of consciousness caused by hypoglycaemia, intramuscular glucagon can be given by a family member or friend who has been shown how to use it. If glucagon is not effective after 10 minutes, glucose 10% intravenous infusion should be given.

381
Q

What should patients who are unconscious due to hypoglycaemia initially be treated with?

A

Patients who are unconscious, having seizures, or who are very aggressive, should have any intravenous insulin stopped, and be treated initially with glucagon. If glucagon is unsuitable, or there is no response after 10 minutes, glucose 10% intravenous infusion, or alternatively glucose 20% intravenous infusion should be given

382
Q

Is glucose 50% recommended to be used?

A

No - Glucose 50% intravenous infusion is not recommended as it is hypertonic, thus increases the risk of extravasation injury, and is viscous, making administration difficult.

383
Q

Do patients who have received glucagon require a smaller or larger portion of long-acting carbohydrate to replenish glycogen stores once they have recovered?

A

A larger portion of long acting carbohydrate

Glucose 10% intravenous infusion should be given to patients who are nil by mouth.

384
Q

How long may hypoglycaemia caused by sulfonylurea or long acting insulin last?

A

Up to 24-36 hours following the last dose, especially if there is concurrent renal impairment

385
Q

After a hyperglycaemic event - how long should blood-glucose monitoring be continued?

A

At least 24-48 hours

386
Q

How many mg of glucagon are in 1 unit of glucagon?

A

1 unit = 1mg

387
Q

What side effect has been associated with exenatide - GLP1 agonists?

A

Severe pancreatitis has been reported rarely, discontinue permanently if diagnosed

388
Q

When is incidence of heart failure increased with pioglitazone?

A

When taken with insulin, especially in patients with predisposing factors. Patients should be closely monitored for signs of heart failure, and treatment stopped if any cardiac deterioration occurs. It should not be used in patients with heart failure or with a history of heart failure.

389
Q

can pioglitazone be used in hepatic impairment?

A

No - liver toxicity - rare reports of liver dysfunction, discontinue if jaundice occurs.

390
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

It is a progressive bone disease characterised by low bone mass measured by bone mineral density (BMD), and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue

391
Q

What does osteoporosis lead to?

A

Increased risk of fragility fractures (fractures resulting from low-level trauma)

392
Q

When is osteoporosis considered severe?

A

If there have been one or more fragility fractures

393
Q

In who does osteoporosis most commonly occur in?

A
  • Postmenopausal women
  • men over 50 years
  • in patients taking long-term oral corticosteroids (glucocorticoids)
394
Q

What are some other risk factors of osteoporosis?

A
  • increasing age
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Low calcium intake
  • Lack of physical activity
  • Low body mass index (BMI)
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Excess alcohol intake
  • Parental history of hip fractures
  • a previous fracture at a site characteristic of osteoporotic fractures
  • Early menopause
395
Q

What lifestyle changes is advised for osteoporosis?

A
  • increase level of physical activity
  • Stop smoking
  • maintain a normal BMI level (between 20-25kg/m2)
  • Reduce their alcohol intake
  • ensure adequate intake of calcium and Vitamin D
396
Q

Is calcium intake preferred via diet or supplementation?

A

Calcium should preferably be obtained through increasing dietary intake; supplements may be used if necessary

397
Q

Who may a daily dietary supplement of Vitamin D be considered in?

A

A daily dietary supplement of vitamin D may be considered for those at increased risk of deficiency.

398
Q

Which patients are at high risk of vitamin D deficiency?

A

Elderly patients, especially those who are housebound or live in residential or nursing homes, are at high risk of vitamin D deficiency and may benefit from calcium and vitamin D treatment

Elderly patients also have an increased risk of falls

399
Q

What is considered first line option for post-menopausal women?

A
  • Alendronic acid and risedronate are considered first line due to their broad spectrum of anti-fracture efficacy
400
Q

What have alendronic acid and risedronate shown to reduce?

A

Reduce occurrence of vertebral, non-vertebral and hip fractures.

401
Q

What alternative oral bisphosphonate does SIGN recommend?

A

Ibandronic acid

402
Q

Can parenteral bisphosphonate be used?

A

Yes for those who are intolerant to oral bisphosphonate, or in whom they are unsuitable, with raloxifene hydrochloride or strontium ranelate as additional alternative options.

403
Q

Which monoclonal antibody can be used for osteoporosis?

A

Denosumab

404
Q

Can HRT be used for osteoporosis?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) may also be considered as an additional alternative option, but its use is generally restricted to younger postmenopausal women with menopausal symptoms who are at high risk of fractures.

This is due to the risk of adverse effects such as cardiovascular disease and cancer in older postmenopausal women and women on long-term HRT therapy.

405
Q

What other option does SIGN recommend for younger postmenopausal women, particularly those with menopausal symptoms?

A
  • Tibolone
406
Q

What is Teriparatide reserved for?

A

Teriparatide is reserved for postmenopausal women with severe osteoporosis at very high risk of fractures, particularly vertebral fractures

407
Q

SIGN recommends remosozumab as an option for postmenopausal women with ?

A

postmenopausal women with severe osteoporosis who have previously experienced a fragility fracture and are at imminent risk of another (within 24 months).

408
Q

In postmenopausal women with at least one severe or two moderate low-trauma vertebral fractures which drugs are preferred over oral bisphophonates?

A
  • Teriparatide

- Romosozumab

409
Q

What is glucocorticoid treatment strongly associated with?

A

With bone loss and increased risk of fractures

410
Q

When does the greatest rate of bone loss occur with glucocorticoid use?

A

he greatest rate of bone loss occurs early after initiation of glucocorticoids and increases with the dose and duration of therapy.

411
Q

When should bone=protection treatment start for patients on glucocorticoid treatment who are at high risk of a fracture?

A

Bone-protection treatment should be started at the onset of glucocorticoid treatment in patients who are at high risk of a fracture.

412
Q

Which Patients on glucocorticoids should be on bone protection?

A

Women aged ≥70 years, OR with a previous fragility fracture, OR who are taking large doses of glucocorticoids (prednisolone ≥7.5 mg daily or equivalent) should be considered for bone-protection treatment.

Men aged ≥70 years with a previous fragility fracture, OR who are taking large doses of glucocorticoids, should also be considered for treatment.

For some premenopausal women and younger men (particularly those with a previous history of fracture or who are receiving large doses of glucocorticoids), bone-protection treatment may be appropriate.

SIGN (2021) recommends that bone-protection treatment should be considered in all men and women taking large doses of glucocorticoids (prednisolone ≥7.5 mg daily or equivalent) for 3 months or longer.

413
Q

What are the first line and alternative treatment for glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis?

A

The oral bisphosphonates alendronic acid or risedronate sodium are first-line treatment options. Zoledronic acid, denosumab or teriparatide are alternative options in patients intolerant of oral bisphosphonates or in whom they are unsuitable.

414
Q

Which drugs are recommended first line for osteoporosis in men?

A

The oral bisphosphonates alendronic acid or risedronate sodium are recommended as first-line treatments for osteoporosis in men. Zoledronic acid or denosumab are alternatives in men who are intolerant of oral bisphosphonates or in whom they are unsuitable; teriparatide or strontium ranelate are additional alternative options.

415
Q

Which specific therapy increases risk of osteoporosis in men?

A

Men having androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer have an increased fracture risk.

Fracture risk assessment should be considered when starting this therapy.

A bisphosphonate can be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis; denosumab may be considered as an alternative if bisphosphonates are unsuitable or not tolerated.

416
Q

How long after should treatment with bisphosphonates - alendronic acid, risedronate acid or ibandronic acid be reviewed?

A

After 5 years of treatment

417
Q

How long after should treatment with zolendronic acid be reviewed?

A

After 3 years

418
Q

Is there any evidence for treatment beyond 10 years with bisphosphonates?

A

No

419
Q

What is the MAO of bisphosphonates?

A

Bisphosphonates are adsorbed onto hydroxyapatite crystals in bone, slowing both their rate of growth and dissolution, and therefore reducing the rate of bone turnover.

420
Q

What MHRA warning has been issued with long term treatment for osteoporosis with oral bisphosphonates?

A

Femoral fractures

Discontinuation of bisphosphonate treatment in patients suspected to have an atypical femoral fracture should be considered after an assessment of the benefits and risks of continued treatment.

421
Q

Patients should be advised to report what symptoms or signs when on a bisphosphonate?

A

Patients should be advised to report any thigh, hip, or groin pain during treatment with a bisphosphonate.

422
Q

Is the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw greater with IV bisphosphonates in the treatment of cancer or for patients receiving oral bisphosphonates for osteoporosis or Paget’s disease?

A

The risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw is substantially greater for patients receiving intravenous bisphosphonates in the treatment of cancer

423
Q

What are the risk factors for developing osteonecrosis?

A

Risk factors for developing osteonecrosis of the jaw that should be considered are: potency of bisphosphonate (highest for zoledronate), route of administration, cumulative dose, duration and type of malignant disease, concomitant treatment, smoking, comorbid conditions, and history of dental disease.

424
Q

What other part of the body has been associated with osteonecrosis with long term bisphosphonate use other than the Jaw?

A

osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal

Benign idiopathic osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal has been reported very rarely with bisphosphonate treatment, mainly in patients receiving long-term therapy (2 years or longer).

The possibility of osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal should be considered in patients receiving bisphosphonates who present with ear symptoms, including chronic ear infections, or suspected cholesteatoma.

425
Q

What are the risk factors for developing osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal?

A

steroid use, chemotherapy, infection, an ear operation, or cotton-bud use.

426
Q

What symptoms should patients be advised to report that could indicate osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal?

A

Patients should be advised to report any ear pain, discharge from the ear, or an ear infection during treatment with a bisphosphonate.

427
Q

What three main things should patients on bisphosphonates be warned/ aware of (MHRA warnings)?

A

Atypical femoral fractures -
Patients should be advised to report any thigh, hip, or groin pain during treatment with a bisphosphonate.

Osteonecrosis of the jaw -
During bisphosphonate treatment patients should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms.

Osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal-
Patients should be advised to report any ear pain, discharge from ear or an ear infection during treatment with a bisphosphonate.

428
Q

Can alendronic acid be used in pregnancy?

A

No should be avoided

429
Q

What severe …. reactions have been reported with alendronic acid?

A

Oesophageal rections

Patients should stop treatment and seek medical attention if they develop oesophageal irritation, dysphagia or worsening heartburn

430
Q

What is the dose and frequency of alendronic acid in men and in women?

A

Men - 10mg daily

Women - 10mg daily/ alternatively 70mg once weekly

431
Q

What is the instructions for taking alendronic acid?

A

with a full glass of water whilst sitting or standing. It should be taken atleast 30 minutes before breakfast and other medicines and the patient should remain upright for a further 30 minutes after taking.

432
Q

What eGFR should alendronic acid be avoided in?

A

Less than 35ml/min/1.73m2

433
Q

Is ibandronic acid for osteoporosis given daily, weekly or monthly?

A

Monthly - 150mg once a month

Alternatively (by IV) 3mg every 3 months to be administered over 15-30 seconds

434
Q

Can risedronate be used for Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Yes

435
Q

What is the dose of risedronate for osteoporosis?

A

5mg daily/ alternatively 35mg weekly

436
Q

Is zolendronic acid available as an oral formulation?

A

No - IV only

437
Q

What type of drug is teriparatide?

A

Calcium regulating drug (parathyroid hormones and analogues)

438
Q

What is the drug action of denosumab?

A

It is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits osteoclast formation, function and survival, thereby decreasing bone resorption

439
Q

What is the dose and frequency of denosumab for osteoporosis?

A

60mg every 6 months

(supplement with calcium and vitamin D, to be adminstered into the thigh, abdomen or upper arm.

440
Q

Have atypical femora fractures been reported with denosumab use as well?

A

Yes - long term use 2.5 or more years

Also osteonecrosis of the jaw

and external auditory canal

441
Q

Why does denosumab require calcium supplementation?

A

Becuase it is associated with causing hypocalcaemia - the risk increases with the degree of renal impairment

442
Q

When is plasma calcium concentration monitoring recommended for denosumab 60mg (osteoporosis indication)?

A
  • before each dose
  • within two weeks after the intial dose in patients with risk factors for hypocalcaemia (e.g. severe renal impairment, creatinine clearance less than 30ml/min)
  • if suspected symptoms of hypocalcaemia occur
443
Q

Patients on denosumab should report symptoms of hypocalcaemia, what are the symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A
  • muscle spasms
  • twitches
  • cramps
  • numbness or tingling in the fingers, toes or around the mouth
444
Q

What is a contradiction of denosumab?

A

Hypocalcaemia

445
Q

Denosumab is teratogenic- how long is contraception is required?

A

Ensure effective contraception in women of child bearing potential, during treatment and for at least 5 months after stopping treatment

446
Q

Missed doses for denosumb, when can it be given?

A

Within 1 month of scheduled date

447
Q

What is bromocriptine used for?

A

Bromocriptine is used for the treatment of galactorrhoea, and for the treatment of prolactinomas (when it reduces both plasma prolactin concentration and tumour size).

448
Q

What does bromocriptine also inhibit?

A
  • Inhibits the release of growth hormone and is sometimes used in the treatment of acromegaly, but somatostatin analogues (such as octreotide) are more effective
449
Q

What may patients be given who are intolerant to bromocriptine?

A
  • Cabergoline
450
Q

Are bromocriptine and cabergoline recommended for routine suppression of lactation?

A

No - they are not recommended for routine suppression (or for the relief of symptoms of postpartum pain and engorgement) that can be adequately treated with simple analgesics and breast support.

451
Q

If a dopamine-receptor agonist is required which of the two is preferred for supression of lactation?

A

Cabergoline

452
Q

Is quinagolide licensed for the suppression of lactation?

A

No

453
Q

What type of dopamine agonist is quinagolide?

A

It is a non-ergot dopamine D2 agonist

454
Q

What is the indication of quinagolide?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia

455
Q

Which drugs are luteinising hormone releasing hormone antagonists which inhibit the release go gonadotrophins?

A

Cetrorelix and ganirelix are luteinising hormone releasing hormone antagonists, which inhibit the release of gonadotrophins (luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone)

They are used in the treatment of infertility by assisted reproductive techniques.

456
Q

When are gonadorelin analogues used?

A

are used in the treatment of endometriosis, precocious puberty, infertility, male hypersexuality with severe sexual deviation, anaemia due to uterine fibroids (together with iron supplementation), breast cancer, prostate cancer and before intra-uterine surgery

457
Q

What does the use of leuprorelin acetate do?

A

Use of leuprorelin acetate and triptorelin for 3 to 4 months before surgery reduces the uterine volume, fibroid size and associated bleeding.

458
Q

What is the clinical name for breast bain?

A

Mastalgia

459
Q

What is the initial steps in treating breast pain?

A

Once any serious underlying cause for breast pain has been ruled out, most women will respond to reassurance and reduction in dietary fat; withdrawal of an oral contraceptive or of hormone replacement therapy may help to resolve the pain.

460
Q

What is mild, non-cyclic breast pain treated with?

A

Mild, non-cyclical breast pain is treated with simple analgesics; moderate to severe pain, cyclical pain or symptoms that persist for longer than 6 months may require specific drug treatment.

461
Q

What is danazol licensed for in use of breasts?

A

Danazol is licensed for the relief of severe pain and tenderness in benign fibrocystic breast disease which has not responded to other treatment.

462
Q

When should treatment for breast pain be reviewed?

A

Treatment for breast pain should be reviewed after 6 months and continued if necessary. Symptoms recur in about 50% of women within 2 years of withdrawal of therapy but may be less severe.

463
Q

Give a list of gonadotrophin releasing hormones (used to release gonadotrophin hormones)?

A
  • Buserelin
  • Goserelin
  • Leuprorelin Acetate
  • Nafarelin
  • Triptorelin
464
Q

What is the corticotropin - teracosactide used for?

A

Tetracosactide (tetracosactrin), an analogue of corticotropin (ACTH), is used to test adrenocortical function

Failure of the plasma cortisol concentration to rise after administration of tetracosactide indicates adrenal insufficiency

465
Q

What are the gonadotrophins used for?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) together, or follicle-stimulating hormone alone (as in follitropin), are used in the treatment of infertility in women with proven hypopituitarism or who have not responded to clomifene citrate, or in superovulation treatment for assisted conception (such as in vitro fertilisation).

466
Q

What is growth hormone used to treated?

A

Growth hormone is used to treat deficiency of the hormone in children and in adults.

467
Q

In Children what is growth hormone used to treated?

A

In children it is used in Prader-Willi syndrome, Turner syndrome, chronic renal insufficiency, short children considered small for gestational age at birth, and short stature homeobox-containing gene (SHOX) deficiency

468
Q

Which growth hormones are now used?

A

Growth hormone of human origin (HGH; somatotrophin) has been replaced by a growth hormone of human sequence, somatropin, produced using recombinant DNA technology.

469
Q

Which hypothalamic hormones used?

A

Gonadorelin when injected intravenously in normal subjects leads to a rapid rise in plasma concentrations of both luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). It has not proved to be very helpful, however, in distinguishing hypothalamic from pituitary lesions. Gonadorelin analogues are indicated in endometriosis and infertility and in breast and prostate cancer.

470
Q

Gonadorelin can be used to assess the functon of?

A

Assessment of pituitary function

471
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder that develops when your pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood. When you have too much growth hormone, your bones increase in size. In childhood, this leads to increased height and is called gigantism. But in adulthood, a change in height doesn’t occur

472
Q

Which drug can be used for treatment of acromegaly?

A
  • Pegvisomant
473
Q

Which drug can be used for treatment of deficiency of growth hormone?

A

Somatropin