Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gen Med (Haem) > Blood Transfusions > Flashcards

Blood Transfusions Flashcards

1
Q

Which types of viral hepatitis are donor blood samples screened for?

A

B, C and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What infections are all donor blood samples screened for?

A

HIV, hepatitis, HTLV and syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long can red cells be stored for?

A

35 days (at 4 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long can FFP be stored for?

A

3 years (at -30 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long can platelets be stored for?

A

7 days (at 22 degrees with agitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which blood product contains fibrinogen, VWF, factor VIII and fibronectin?

A

Cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The ABO system is coded for on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group O?

A

OO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group A?

A

AA or AO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group B?

A

BB or BO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group AB?

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Landsteiner’s law explains that when an individual lacks the A or B antigen on their red blood cells, what is produced in their plasma?

A

The corresponding IgM antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an individual is blood group A, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

A antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If an individual is blood group B, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

B antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If an individual is blood group AB, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

A and B antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If an individual is blood group O, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

No antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If an individual is blood group A, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If an individual is blood group B, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-A antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If an individual is blood group AB, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

No antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If an individual is blood group O, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Group O blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

All blood groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Group A blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

A and AB groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Group B blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

B and AB groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Group AB blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

Group AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Individuals with group O blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?

A

Group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Individuals with group A blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?

A

Group A and group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Individuals with group B blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?

A

Group B and group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Individuals with group AB blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?

A

Group AB, group A, group B and group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be rhesus positive?

A

DD or Dd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be rhesus negative?

A

dd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which blood test is used to identify the ABO and Rh status of a patient’s blood, and to identify the presence of clinically significant red cell antibodies?

A

Group and save

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the best blood test to perform in a situation where blood loss is not expected but blood may be required if the blood loss is greater than anticipated?

A

Group and save

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the best blood test to perform in a situation where blood loss is anticipated?

A

Crossmatch (also do a group and save)

34
Q

How often during a blood transfusion should observations be carried out?

A

Before the transfusion, at 15-20 minutes, at 1 hour and at completion

35
Q

Blood products should only be administered through which colours of cannula?

A

Green or grey

36
Q

In cases of non-active bleeding, how does NICE recommend that red blood cells are given?

A

1 unit at a time, reassessing after each

37
Q

What blood product would be required in cases of acute blood loss or chronic/symptomatic anaemia?

A

Packed red cells

38
Q

Over what period of time should a transfusion of packed red cells be given?

A

2-4 hours

39
Q

1 unit of packed red cells should increase a patient’s haemoglobin level by how much?

A

10g/L

40
Q

What blood product would be required in cases of haemorrhagic shock, profound thrombocytopenia and bleeding with thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelets

41
Q

Over what period of time should a transfusion of platelets be given?

A

30 minutes

42
Q

1 unit of platelets should increase a patient’s platelet count by how much?

A

20-40 x 10 to the nine / L

43
Q

Which blood product is composed of clotting factors?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

44
Q

What blood product would be required in cases of DIC, haemorrhage secondary to liver disease and all massive haemorrhages?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

45
Q

Over what period of time should a transfusion of fresh frozen plasma be given?

A

30 minutes

46
Q

What blood product would be required in cases of DIC with low fibrinogen, Von Willebrand’s disease and massive haemorrhage?

A

Cryoprecipitate

47
Q

Over what period of time should a transfusion of cryoprecipitate be given?

A

Stat

48
Q

Blood samples for transfusion should be sent in what colour of tube?

A

Pink

49
Q

If a patient becomes unwell during a blood transfusion, what should be done initially?

A

Stop the transfusion, ABCDE approach, investigate the cause

50
Q

Which blood products are automatically issued from the blood bank when the major haemorrhage protocol is activated?

A

4 x packed red cells and 4 x FFP

51
Q

What type of blood can be used in an emergency?

A

O negative blood

52
Q

In the major haemorrhage protocol (non-trauma), red cells and FFP should be transfused in what ratio?

A

2: 1

53
Q

In the major haemorrhage protocol (trauma), red cells and FFP should be transfused in what ratio?

A

1: 1

54
Q

What is the most severe type of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

ABO incompatibility

55
Q

Bacterial contamination of blood products is most commonly seen in transfusions involving which blood product?

A

Platelets

56
Q

Which type of transfusion reaction typically causes respiratory distress within 6 hours of the transfusion?

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload

57
Q

Transfusion associated circulatory overload is most common in which patients?

A

The elderly, and those with cardiac/renal failure

58
Q

What are the two potential types of mild transfusion reactions?

A

An isolated temperature rise of 1-2 degrees or > 38 degrees, OR an isolated rash

59
Q

What is the treatment option for a mild transfusion reaction with an isolated temperature rise?

A

Paracetamol

60
Q

What is the treatment option for a mild transfusion reaction with an isolated rash?

A

Anti-histamines

61
Q

Can a blood transfusion be continued alongside a mild transfusion reaction?

A

Yes

62
Q

What type of antibody is involved in acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, e.g. those caused by ABO incompatibility?

A

IgM

63
Q

What type of antibody is involved in delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

IgG

64
Q

In acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, is the haemolysis intra or extravascular?

A

Intravascular

65
Q

In delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions, is the haemolysis intra or extravascular?

A

Extravascular

66
Q

How long after transfusion does a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction occur?

A

5-10 days

67
Q

How soon after starting a transfusion do symptoms of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions occur?

A

Within minutes

68
Q

What is a feature that differentiates transfusion associated circulatory overload from transfusion related acute lung injury?

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload will cause hypertension (as opposed to hypotension)

69
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to occur as a result of a blood transfusion?

A

Hyperkalaemia

70
Q

How should an individual with an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction be treated?

A

Stop the transfusion and give generous fluid resuscitation

71
Q

What blood product can be used to reverse the action of warfarin within 1 hour?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate

72
Q

What should always be given alongside prothrombin complex concentrate?

A

Vitamin K

73
Q

How long does IV vitamin K take to reverse the action of warfarin?

A

4-6 hours

74
Q

How long does oral vitamin K take to reverse the action of warfarin?

A

24 hours

75
Q

A transfusion of FFP is most suitable for patients with ‘clinically significant’ but ‘without major haemorrhage’ bleeding with a PT or APTT greater than what?

A

1.5

76
Q

What blood group is the universal donor of FFP?

A

AB

77
Q

What are the 4 main components of cryoprecipitate?

A

Factor VIII, factor XIII, Von-Willebrand’s factor and fibrinogen

78
Q

Cryoprecipitate is indicated in patients with ‘clinically significant’ but ‘without major haemorrhage’ bleeding with a fibrinogen of less than what?

A

1.5g/L

79
Q

Irradiated blood products are deplete of what cells?

A

T lymphocytes

80
Q

The purpose of irradiated blood products is to reduce the risk of what?

A

Transfusion associated graft versus host disease

81
Q

What is the treatment threshold for a red blood cell transfusion in patients without ACS?

A

70g/L

82
Q

What is the treatment threshold for a red blood cell transfusion in patients with ACS?

A

80g/L

Gen Med (Haem) (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions