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Blood Cells Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of Red Blood: Distribution

A
  1. Transports nutrients and oxygen… 2. Transports metabolic wastes to the respiratory and excretory organs…. 3. Transports hormones, enzymes, etc
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2
Q

Functions of Red Blood: Regulation

A
  1. Regulates temp… 5. maintains normal pH in body tissues blood proteins act as buffers… 6. Maintain adequate fluid volume in circulatory system.
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3
Q

Functions of Red Blood: Protection

A
  1. Prevents blood loss, blood clots halt blood loss…. 8. Prevents infection, antibodies and WBC protect against foreign invaders.
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4
Q

Blood Plasma: Plasma

A

Whole blood minus blood cells, clear straw colored liquid.. suspends blood cells

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5
Q

Blood Plasma: Serum

A

Whole blood minus clotting elements

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6
Q

Blood Plasma: Albumins

A

Most abundant plasma protein, synthesized in the liver… function regulates blood volume

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7
Q

Blood Plasma: Globulins

A

Form antibodies for immunity

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8
Q

Hemopoiesis

A

Is the formation of blood, initially from yolk sac

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9
Q

Hemoglobin

A

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide… hemo stands for oxygen and globin stands for reg pigments

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10
Q

RBC’s lifespan

A

120 days

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11
Q

Erythrocyte Disorders: Anemia

A

decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood… excessive bleeding, trauma, menstruation, ulcer

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12
Q

Erythrocyte Disorders: Hemorrhagic anemia

A

Excessive bleeding; trauma menstruation, ulcer

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13
Q

Luekocytosis

A

if values are above 10,000 WBC

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14
Q

Leukopenia

A

If WBC count is below 5,000

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15
Q

Erythrocyte Disorders: Pernicious Anemia

A

deficiency of Vit B12 usually due to the lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach, which is used to absorb Vit B12 in the intestine

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16
Q

Differential white blood cell count

A

determines the % of various types of leukocytes in a blood sample

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17
Q

WBC: Diapedesis

A

movement of WBC out of blood vessels into surrounding tissue; due to adhesion molecules on endothelial cells at site of inflammation

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18
Q

Erythrocyte Disorders: Polycythemia

A

higher then normal RBC numbers, get increased viscosity; blood doping

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19
Q

White Blood Cell (WBC) count: WBC life

A

10,000…10 days

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20
Q

WBC’s: Ameobid motion

A

Movement of WBC’s in the tissue by cytoplasmic extensions

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21
Q

WBC’s: Positive chemotaxis:

A

WBC’s follow trail of molecules released by damaged cells and gather at areas of tissue damage and infection to destroy foreign substances.

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22
Q

T-lymphocyte

A

Pass through thymus gland and directly attack virus infected cells and tumor cells, transplanted cells.

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23
Q

B-lymphocyte

A

Formed in bone marrow, change into plasma cells that produce antibodies into blood to attack antigens (humor immunity)

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24
Q

Leukopoiesis

A

Production of WBCs due to hormones

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25
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Decreased platelet count due to radiation, drugs, etc

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26
Q

Hemostasis

A

Stoppage of blood flow or loss

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27
Q

Hemostasis: Vascualar spasm

A

due to injury, smooth muscles in blood vessel contract, thus decreased blood loss.

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28
Q

Hemostasis: Platelet plug formation

A

Forms temporary seal due to damaged blood vessel, platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers and each other at damage site

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29
Q

Hemostasis: Blood Clotting

A

Most effective hemostatic mechanism

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30
Q

Blood Coagulation

A

Process in which blood clot is formed

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31
Q

Blood Coagulation: Phase 1

A

Formation of Prothrombin activator Intrinsic mechanism: takes 3-5 minutes min to clot Extrinsic mechanism: Takes 15 seconds to clot

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32
Q

Blood Coagulation: Phase 2

A

Formation of Thrombin Prothrombin (made by liver, inactive in blood) is converted to Thrombin (active enzyme) by Prothrombin

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33
Q

Blood Coagulation: Phase 3

A

Formation of Fibrin Fibrogen made by liver, is converted to Fibrin. Thus stimulates fibroblast and smooth muscle to repair.

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34
Q

Plasminogen

A

inactive blood protein is converted to plasmin (enzyme) that digests fibrin strands and dissolves clots

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35
Q

Tissue Plasminogen activator

A

(TPA) (Kallikrein) converts plasminogen to plasmin and streptokinase (enzyme from bacteria) are used to prevent myocardial infarction and strokes

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36
Q

Thrombus

A

A clot that stays in the place where it is formed in an unbroken blood vessel

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37
Q

Embolus

A

All or part of clot dislodges, circulates in bloodstream

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38
Q

Heparin

A

Prevents clots by interfering with the formation of prothrombin activator

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39
Q

Elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

A

suggests a kidney disorder

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40
Q

RBC’s percent of hemoglobin….

A

has 97% content is hemoglobin: binds and transports oxygen/carbon dioxide

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41
Q

RBC’s Lack: measured

A

lack nuclei, measured by hemocytometer

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42
Q

Megakaryocyte

A

giant cells, in red bone marrow pinches off cytoplasmic fragments called platelets with many internal granules

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43
Q

Megakaryocyte also does something to blood vessels

A

they stick to broken blood vessels

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44
Q

what are the lving and non livieng parts of blood called?

A

living-formed elements nonliving-plasm

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45
Q

what type of tissue is blood?

A

fluid tissue

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46
Q

what is albumin and where is it?

A

it regulates osmotic pressure in the plasm

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47
Q

what are globulins?

A

antibodies that protect the body from antigens

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48
Q

how is homeostacis maintained?

A

negative feedback

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49
Q

what are platelets?

A

cell fragments

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50
Q

main function of rbc?

A

carry oxygen

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51
Q

anatomy of rbcs?

A

biconcave discs, bags of hemoglobin, no nucleus, few organs, outnumber wbc

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52
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

binds strongly to oxygen, has 4 binding sites, each rbc has 250 million

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53
Q

formation of erythrocytes and location

A

erythropoiesis red bone marrow

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54
Q

hemocytoblast

A

undifferentiated hematopoietic stem cell

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55
Q

proerythroblast

A

first step in erythropoiesis; a differentiated cell destined to become erythrocyte

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56
Q

basophilic erythroblast

A

second step in erythropoiesis; formed by mitotic division of proerythroblast

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57
Q

polychromatic erythroblast

A

third step in erythropoiesis; formed by mitotic division of basophilic…

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58
Q

reticulocyte

A

polychromatic erythroblast that has lost nucleus; lose reticulum to become mature erythrocytes

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59
Q

erythropoietin

A

hormone secreted by kidney to stimulate erythropoeisis; production controlled by negative feedback…

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60
Q

death of erythrocytes

A

liver and spleen have macrophage cells that destroy the cell; results in hemoglobin breakdown…look up full process

61
Q

leukocyte types

A

granulocytes- cytoplasm contains granules agranulocytes- cytoplasm lacks granules

62
Q

granulocyte categories

A

basophils neutrophils eosinophils

63
Q

agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes monocytes

64
Q

neutrophils characteristics and function

A

polymorphonuclear (multi-lobed nuclei)active phagocytes attack bacteria

65
Q

plasma proteins

A

globulins albumins

fibrinogen

66
Q

eosinophils characteristics and function

A

nuclei have 2 lobes attack parasites phagocytic cells

67
Q

basophils

A

S shaped indistinct nuclei

contain histamine and heparin important in inflammatory…

68
Q

lymphocyte

A

produces antibodies made from lymphoblast

69
Q

monocyte

A

become macrophages that attack large foreign things in the body made from monoblasts

70
Q

myeloblasts

A

first step in forming granulocytes; differentiated from hemocytoblast

71
Q

progranulocyte

A

second step in forming granulocytes, mitotic division of myeloblasts

72
Q

myelocyte

A

third step in forming granulocytes, mitotic division of progranulocytes, differentiated into…

73
Q

band cell

A

fourth and final step in forming granulocytes, mitotic division and maturation of myelocytes,

74
Q

platelet function

A

aid in hemostasis and coagulation

75
Q

megakaryoblast

A

first step in forming platelets; differentiated from hemocytoblast

76
Q

megakaryocyte

A

second step in forming platelets; mitotic division and mature megakaryoblast; breaks up to…

77
Q

hemostasis

A

process of stopping bleeding started by vasospasm then sticky platelets glue together form…

78
Q

seratonin

A

causes vasospasm released by platelets

79
Q

thrombus condition: thrombosis

A

blood clot abnormally forming in vessel (stays in place)

80
Q

embolus condition: embolism

A

clot moves and lodges in another place

81
Q

antigens

A

cell surface markers

82
Q

fibrin function

A

traps platelets and blood cells to form hematoma (clot)

83
Q

extrinsic pathway

A

tissues release chemicals found outside of blood that in presence of Ca ions eventually…

84
Q

Septocemia/ Septis

A

Blood poisoning infection in blood streamantibiotic treatment

85
Q

Septocemia/ Septis

A

Blood poisoning infection in blood stream antibiotic treatment

86
Q

Jaundice

A

liver malfunctioning secretion of bilirubin florescent light exposure to treat

87
Q

An O+ recipient can receive blood from what Blood Type?

A

O-, O+ Remember that if it’s a positive it can take both the negative and positive.

88
Q

An O-(neg) recipient can recieve blood from what blood type(s)?

A

O-(neg) remember that a negative blood type can only recieve a negative blood type.

89
Q

A- recipient can receive blood from what blood type(s)?

A

A- , O- Remember only neg blood typs get neg blood types.

90
Q

B+ recipient can receive blood from what blood type(s)?

A

B- , B+ , O-, O+

91
Q

B- recipient can receive blood from what blood type(s)?

A

B- , O-

92
Q

AB+ recipient can receive blood from what blood type(s)?

A

AB-,AB+,B-,B+,A-,A+,O-,O+ remember AB+ is the universal recipient.

93
Q

AB- RECIPIENT CAN RECEIVE BLOOD FROM WHAT BLOOD TYPE(S)

A

AB-,B-,A-,O-

94
Q

what blood type is considered the universal donor?

A

O-

95
Q

What blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A

AB+

96
Q

What do the erythrocytes lack?

A

Nuclei Mitochondria Organelles

97
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase

A

Protein molecule in the erythrocytes that have affinity for carbon dioxide only.

98
Q

Which plasms protein: 1. Is most abundant? 2. Is produced in liver & lymph tissues? 3. Is a lipid transport? 4. Major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure? 5. Involved in blood clotting formation through the formation of fibrin fibers? 6. Is a carrier for various substances? 7. Is a steroid transport? 8. Involved in immunity (antibodies)?

A
  1. Albumin 2. Globulin 3. Globulin 4. Albumin 5. Fibrinogen 6. Albumin 7. Globulin 8. Globulin
99
Q

What do the erythrocytes lack?

A

Nuclei Mitochondria Organelles

100
Q

What is the most abundant protein in erythrocytes? What is it composed of? What does each sub-unit contain? What gives the the blood the red colour? To what part on the hemoglobin does the oxygen bind?

A

Hemoglobin 4 polypeptide chains of two types (2 alpha and 2 beta) each of which has an iron-containing ring structure (heme group). Globin protein: Alpha and Beta The Fe2+ molecule contained in heme group. The Fe2+ is the site to which a molecule of oxygen binds.

101
Q

How long do Erythrocytes live in bloodstream? What is the process of erythrocyte production with the bone marrow called? What organ removes dead erythrocytes? How are erythrocytes produced? What are two types of synthetic EPO and what do they do? When the erythrocyte is engulfed by macrophages in kidney, what happens then?

A

120 days Erythropoiesis Spleen and liver: old erythrocytes are engulfed by macrophages. PRODUCTION: -Erythropoietin is released from kindeys when low oxygen concentration is detected. It then travels to the bone marrow. In the bone marrow, it triggers differentiation of pluripotent cells to erythrocytes. During differentiation, erythrocytes lose their organelles and nuclei and produce Hemoglobin. Darbepoietin & Epoeitin: stimulate erythropoiesis, used abused by atheletes and used as treatement for illnesses. In spleen: Macrophages destroy erythrocytes and the hemoglobin is also catabolized. After iron is removed, the resulting heme is converted to bilirubin (a yellow component), which is released into the bloodstream and gives a yellow colour. Bilirubin –> Liver –> Bile –> blood stream

102
Q

What is the expected haematocrit for males and female?

A

40% - 54% M 37%-47% F

103
Q

What is the measure of the hemoglobin in a given volume of packed red blood cells.

A

MCHC: Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration

104
Q

How does the structure of leukocytes differ from erythrocytes? What are all the 6 leukocytes? What is their function?

A

Nucleated, with organelles, also found in other tissues Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Basophil, Monocyte, Macrophage, Lymphocyte Immunity: > High mobility: important to defend the body against invading microorganisms and other foreign materials.

105
Q

What four components are included in basic blood vessels?

A

Lumen, Endothelium, Smooth Muscle, Connective Tissue

106
Q

How do the arteries and veins differ in structure?

A

V: thinner walls, thin layer of smooth muscle, have one-way valves A: larger diameter, thick layer of smoothe muscle Both: Thick outer fibrous layer

107
Q

What are metarterioles?

A

Bypass channels, allow blood to continue flowing from arterioles to venules, by passing capillaries.

108
Q

What is microcirculation?

A

Regulates the amount of blood passing through capillaries (circulation only visible by a microscope), also involves arterioles and venules.

109
Q

What is the difference between arterioles and metarterioles in terms of SNS innervation?

A

A receives SNS, M might not. A and M both have their smooth muscles under local control of metabolities

110
Q
  1. In which blood vessel is resistance the greatest? 2. Where is the site of blood flow control?
A
  1. Arterioles 2. Arterioles & Metarterioles: the major function of arterioles is to serve as points of control for regulating resistance to blood flow, which serves two functions: 1. Controlling Blood Flow to individual capillary beds via circulatory smooth muscle (relaxation and contraction ~ influence on resistance) 2. Regulating MAP
111
Q

How do the venules differ from arterioles?

A

Little or no smooth muscle No nerve innervation

112
Q

What two types of capillaries exist and how do they differ? How do they differ in structure and how does this help their function?

A

Continuous and Fenestrated: F: 1. Has pores, allows larges molecules to pass through, water soluble or lipid soluble (such as proteins, newly formed blood clots, WBC, RBC). 2. Is more leaky than continous. C: 1. Is only permeable to substances with small molecular size and lipid soluble: oxygen, carbon dioxide, and steroids. 2. Is less leaky and more common than F 3.

113
Q

What system permits independent control of blood flow?

A

Microcirculation

114
Q

What is the venous pressure just before entering the right atrium? What is the Aortic Pressure just before exiting the left ventricle (MAP)?

A

o mm Hg 90 mm Hg

115
Q
  1. Any change in ____________ affects flow to all organs 2. Vascular resistance to individual organs is regulated by _______
A
  1. MAP 2. ANS
116
Q

How is blood pressure determined?

A

Using sphygmomanometer + Stethoscope 1. Pressure in cuff above 120 mm Hg is applied to stop blood flow through brachial artery 2. Pressure is slowly released between 120 to 80 mm Hg until first turbulent flow in compressed artery makes audible vibrations (Korotkoff sounds). 3. SP is recorded when the Korotkoff sound first appears. 4. DP is recorded whe the Korotkoff sound first disappears (

117
Q

How is pulse pressure calculated?

A

Difference between SP and DP

118
Q

How is blood pressure calculated

A

SP/DP

119
Q

What is the normal or average blood pressure? What is hypertension and how is it diagnosed?

A

110/70 Condition in which there is a persistantly evelvated blood pressure than normal range: SP>140 DP>90

120
Q

How is MAP calculated?

A

MAP = SP + (2XDP) 3

121
Q

What does the body do with an abnormal decrease or increase in MAP?

A

The change triggers Neural and hormonal responses to act within seconds to bring the MAP back to normal.

122
Q

What are the sensors that monitor MAP called? What does it do exactly. Where is it found?

A

Arterial Baroreceptors It is a type of sensory receptor neuron located in blood vessels and heart, it responds to changes in pressure within the cardiovascular system: When the distending pressure rises, the arteries expend, stretching the walls of the arteries and the sensory endings of the baroreceptor and inducing AP –> CNS (cardiovascular control centre in MEDULLA OBLONGATA) via baroreceptor’s axon. CNS (if abnormal pressure is detected) sends appropriate ANS effectors. FOUND within the walls of: Aortic Arch (of the Aorta) and Carotid Sinuses (of the Carotid Artery) located in the neck

123
Q

What are the MAJOR autonomic innervations of the cardiovascular system?

A
  1. SNS and PSNS - SA node ~ HR 2. SNS - ventricular myocardium ~ Ven.Contractility 3. SNS - arterioles and other resistance vessels ~ vascular resistance 4. SNS - veins ~ venomotor tone
124
Q

What is central venous pressure?

A

The pressure in the large veins in the thoracic cavity that leads to the heart. Is very low.

125
Q

What are the effectors of Venous Return?

A
  1. Respiratory Pump Increased Abdominal Pressure compared to Thoracic pressure: BLOOD: Inhalation - From AB to - Central Vein in TH - To the Heart Exhalation - Backflow from central veins to abdominal region is prevented by closure if valves in abdominal vein. - INSTEAD, rise in TH pressure drives the forward movement of blood from CV to the heart, INCREASED VR and CO. 2. Skeletal Muscle Pump -the muscles in the legs squeeze the vein when contracting, pushing blood towards the heart: DISTAL VALVE - C PROXIMAL VALVE - O - when the muscles relax, DISTAL VALVE - O PROXIMAL VALVE - C 3. Blood Volume - drop in volume = drop in CVP = drop VR, EDV, CO = drop in MAP - raise in volume = hypertension
126
Q

What is hypertension

A

Persistantly elevated MAP, increase in BV because the body retains excess fluid because the kidneys fail to excrete adequate amounts of salt and water.

127
Q
  1. What is orthostatic hypotension 2. How is fainting beneficial?
A
  1. A drop in MAP upon standing = dizziness due to decrease in blood flow to the brain. But compensation by reflexes is quick . 2. Fainting, by falling down, causes the blood that has been pooled in the veins to move towards central veins = ^ VR = ^CO = ^MAP, helping to restore blood in the brain.
128
Q

What does hemorrage do in terms of BV? Kidney disease?

A

Loss of BV by more than 40%

129
Q

What are the four factors that influence venous return and venous pressure?

A

Skeletal Muscle Pump Respiratory Pump Blood Volume Venomotor Tone

130
Q

What neurons does the SNS innervate during venomotor tone? What is increased in the veins?

A

venocontrictor neurons Wall tension is increased in the veins.

131
Q

What are all the effectors of CVP and how do they contribute to increase in CVP?

A

Increase in: - Blood volume - SNS activity –> Venomotor Tone increase –>Decrease in Venous Compliance - Activity of muscle pump - Activity of respiratory pump

132
Q

systolic

A

top number measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats (contracts)

133
Q

diastolic

A

bottom number measures the pressure in the arteries between heart beats (relaxed)

134
Q

Old RBC’s are recycled in the ___ and ____

A

liver and spleen

135
Q

Hemoglobin made of up to ___ subunits called _____

A

4 heme groups

136
Q

Hemoglobin - each heme group can pick up and carry ____ oxygen molecule

A

one

137
Q

peripheral resistance

A

amount of friction encountered by blood vessels-caused by constriction

138
Q

atherosclerosis

A

narrowing of arteries

139
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

hardening of arteries

140
Q

blood pressure increases

A

kidneys allow more water to leave the body in urine

141
Q

blood pressure low

A

release renin; formation of a vasoconstrictor

142
Q

temperature

A

cold vasoconstricts

heat vasodilates

143
Q

epinephrine

A

increase both heart rate and blood pressure

144
Q

nicotine

A

increase blood pressure by causing Vasoconstriction

145
Q

alcohol and histamine

A

DECREASE BP

146
Q

circulatory shock

A

blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally-blood loss

147
Q

4th week in the embryo

A

tube heart develops

148
Q

7th week in the embryo

A

heart becomes a 4 chambered organ

glossary (9 decks)

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