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Blood Flashcards

Heamatopoiesis, white blood cells, platelets

1
Q

What is the composition of the blood?

A

45% RBC, <1% WBC and platelets, 55% plasma (water, proteins, solutes)

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2
Q

What is Haematopoiesis?

A

Haematopoiesis is the production of all cells in the blood, including RBC, WBC and platelets.

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3
Q

From what stem cell do the RBC, WBC and platelets descent from?

A

Multipotential Hematopoietic Stem cell

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4
Q

What does the lymphoid progenitor produce?

A

Lymphocytes

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5
Q

What does the myeloid progenitor produce?

A

Megakaryocyte, Erythrocyte, Mast cell, Myeloblast

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6
Q

What are Erythrocytes?

A

RBC

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7
Q

What are Megakaryocyte?

A

The precursor cells to platelets/ thrombocytes.

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8
Q

What is a Myeloblast?

A

A premature cell which can mature into different type of white blood cells

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9
Q

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

The production of red blood cells

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10
Q

What are the requirements for the production of RBC?

A

Hormone Erythropoietin, iron, amino acid, vitamin B12, folic acid and intrinsic factors.

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11
Q

When does the nucleus get ejected?

A

Phase 3 of the developmental pathway

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12
Q

When does the rRNA get lost?

A

From the stage between reticulocyte and erythrocyte. (developmental to matured).

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13
Q

What does the reticulocyte stage of the cell have?

A

No nucleus but rRNA

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14
Q

Where does Erythropoiesis occur?

A

Foetus: yolk sac then liver and then spleen
Infant: all bone marrow
Adults: only red bone marrow (ribs, vertebrae, skull, upper ends of long bones)

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15
Q

How many RBC are made per second?

A

2-3 million

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16
Q

What is the advantage of strong cytoskeleton?

A

Has proteins and lipids which don’t break but can be flexible

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17
Q

What is the RBC diameter?

A

7.2-8.4 micro meter

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18
Q

How are RBC destroyed?

A

Macrophage digests the RBC.

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19
Q

How many haemoglobins are there per RBC?

A

280 million

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20
Q

When is the haemoglobing produced?

A

Before RBC matures. At the erythroblast and reticulocyte stage.

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21
Q

Describe the structure of the haemoglobin

A

2 alpha and 2 beta subunits. Each subunit has a ‘haem’ connected to a polypeptide chain ‘globin’. Each Haem has a Fe2+ iron atom

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22
Q

How many O2 molecules bind to a haemoglobin?

A

4

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23
Q

What can Haemoglobin bind to?

A

CO2, CO and H+ and O2. CO permanently attaches.

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24
Q

How is Haemoglobin recycled?

A

Haemoglobin is broken down into Heme and globin. The iron in Heme is stores in the spleen or broken into Bilirubin which joins with albumin in the liver. The Globin is broken down into aa .

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25
Q

What is anaemia?

A

When the haemoglobin concentration in the whole blood is below normal

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26
Q

Describe Iron deficiency anaemia

A

Most common type, cells appear pale. Are hypochromic (lack haemoglobin) and microcytic (decreased MCV) .

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27
Q

Describe Megaloblastic anaemia

A

Have an increased Mean Cell volume because the cell will continue to grow without division. Often due to lack of Vitamin B12 or lack of intrinic factors.

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28
Q

Describe Folic acid deficiency

A

Same as Megaloblastic anaemia. Due to lack of Vitamin B12 but not IF

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29
Q

Describe Sickle cell anaemia

A

Hereditary and results in abnormal haemoglobin structure

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30
Q

Describe Thalassaemias anaemia?

A

Hereditary. Abnormal haemoglobin production which can effect either alpha or beta subunit.

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31
Q

What % of WBC are neutrophils?

A

50-70%

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32
Q

What % of WBC are Eosinophils?

A

2-4%

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33
Q

What % of WBC are Basophils?

A

<1%

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34
Q

What % of WBC are Monocytes?

A

2-10%

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35
Q

What % of WBC are Lymphocytes?

A

20-30%

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36
Q

Which type of white blood cells are the most popular?

A

Neutrophils

37
Q

What is the diameter of Neutrophils?

A

9 - 15 micro m

38
Q

How would a Neutrophil be described?

A

2-5 Lobed nucleus, granular cytoplasm. First line of defense and phagocytic. They can move into tissue and circulate into the blood for approximate 10 hours.

39
Q

How would you describe Eosinophils?

A

Bilobular nucleus, granules. Circulate in blood for 8-12 hours. Live in tissue for 1-3 days. Release toxic compounds to attack pathogens.

40
Q

What is Eosinophilia?

A

An increased number of eosinohils

41
Q

What is the diameter of an Eosinophil?

A

10 - 12 micro meters.

42
Q

What is the diameter of Monocytes?

A

20 micrometer (largest)

43
Q

Describe Monocytes

A

Horseshoe/ kidney shaped nucleus, extensive cytoplasm. No function in blood can circulate for 3-4 days. Can be phagocytic.

44
Q

What is the diameter of Lymphocytes?

A

6-15 micro meter diameter.

45
Q

Describe the Lymphocytes?

A

Central role immune defense. Circulate in lymph tissue. Has T, B and NK cells.

46
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Have specific receptors for antigens and then activates B-cells. Mediate cell-mediated immunity

47
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Differentiate into plasma cells and secrete antibodies

48
Q

What do NK cells do?

A

Immune surveillance, important in preventing cancer.

49
Q

How many actual blood groups are there?

A

35

50
Q

Name the common blood groups

A

AO, BO, OO, Rh[D], AB

51
Q

Are blood type alleles, incomplete Dominace, codominance

A

Co-dominace

52
Q

What is the danger of transfusing a different blood type?

A

If antibody present for their own blood type then aggulation can occur which blacks vessels and anaemia.

53
Q

What antigens do blood type O have?

A

None

54
Q

What antibodies will a blood type have?

A

The antibodies of the antigens they don’t have. Antibodies are produced when in contacts with the blood.

55
Q

What is the best blood to donate?

A

Blood type O

56
Q

What is the best blood type to receive blood transfusion?

A

Blood type AB

57
Q

What is haemolytic disease?

A

When the new borns and the mothers blood mixes and so the mothers antibodies attack the fetus blood.

58
Q

What is the danger of a Rh[D-] mother?

A

If the baby is Rh[D+] baby and the blood mixes the mother will produce antibodies that will attack the babies blood.

59
Q

What medicine is used to prevent the haemolytic disease for Rh[D]?

A

Anti-D. They inject Rh[D] antibodies. These will then kill any baby RBC before the mothers blood comes into contact with the baby. That way the mother never produces memory cells.

60
Q

Would the first or second child be more at risk for Haemolytic disease and why?

A

Second. The first child the mother will not produce antigens in time, but there will be memory cells for the second.

61
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

The process in which the body stops bleeding.

62
Q

Name the three phases of Haemostasis.

A

The vascular phase, platelet phase, coagulation phase.

63
Q

What is the diameter of a platelet?

A

2-3 micrometer

64
Q

Describe the structure of the platelet

A

Small, oval, no nucleus, contains granules and clotting factors. Life span of 7-10 days.

65
Q

Where does platelet production occur?

A

Red bone marrow which contains megakaryocytes

66
Q

What is the growth factor for platelet production.

A

Thrombopoietin

67
Q

Where does Thrombopoietin get released?

A

Kidney and livers.

68
Q

What happens in the vascular phase?

A

Vasoconstriction (vascular spasm). Endothelium cells contact, release ADP, release endothelins to help vasoconstriction, and become sticky for platelets. In capillaries opposite cells can attack so cut off the vessel.

69
Q

When does the Platelet phase occur?

A

The first 15 seconds after injury

70
Q

What happens in platelet phase?

A

Platelets adhere to exposed fibres and each other. Granule contents (ADP and 5-HT are released). Platelet membrane changes to be pseudopodia and temporary plug is made.

71
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Changes the shape of platelets to make them bigger. Also stimulates secretion of platelets

72
Q

What does 5-HT do?

A

Promotes vasoconstriction / vascular spasm

73
Q

What does PF3 and thromboxane A2 do?

A

Causes more platelets to be released

74
Q

What type of feedback loop is the platelet phase

A

Positive feedback

75
Q

What are the three pathways of the coagulation phase?

A

Extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway and the common pathway.

76
Q

Which pathway starts first in the coagulation phase?

A

Extrinsic and intrinsic pathway both start first and at the same time

77
Q

When does coagulation start?

A

30 seconds after injury

78
Q

What happens in coagulation?

A

Fibrinogen (soluble) turns into fibrin (insoluble) which uses thrombin.

79
Q

What happens in the extrinsic pathway?

A

Damaged endothelial cells release Tissue factor 3 which binds to Factor 7. Then binds and activates factor 10.

80
Q

What happens in the intrinsic pathway?

A

Factor 8 and factor 9 activate factor 10.

81
Q

What does factor 10 do when activated?

A

Forms Prothrombinase which activates prothrombin into thrombin. The thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin.

82
Q

What produces more Factor 10, the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway?

A

The intrinsic produces more but is slower than the extrinsic.

83
Q

What is the common pathway?

A

When Factor X is activated. Fibrin produces a stable plug where no bleeding will occur.

84
Q

What vitamin and ions is needed for haemostasis?

A

Calcium ions and Vitamin K.

85
Q

What is Ca2+ used in?

A

All three pathways of caugulation

86
Q

What is Vitamin K used for?

A

Producing clotting factor including prothrombin

87
Q

What is Fibrinolysis?

A

Fibrin clot is broken down so blood can flow through and get to the tissue

88
Q

How does Fibrinolysis occur?

A

Plaminogen is activated and produces plasmin to start digesting the clot.

89
Q

What is Heparin and antithrombin used for?

A

To inhibit thrombin, to help control the clotting

Body Systems (8 decks)

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