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Cyber Trans > Block 4 > Flashcards

Block 4 Flashcards

0
Q

The segment format which is used as the Connectionless transport protocol in the TCP/IP stack?

A

(UDP) user datagram protocol

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1
Q

What is the type of protocol that just sends out packets to the receiving system and do not check to see if it was received

A

Connectionless-Oriented

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2
Q

Which protocol is best used to send small amounts of data

A

(UDP) user datagram protocol

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3
Q

What layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets from from the source to destination

A

Network layer

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4
Q

Network later protocols are divided into two categories.. What are they?

A

Routed and routing

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5
Q

Which category in the network layer protocol provides enough info to allow a segment/packet/frame to be forwarded from one host to another based on the addressing scheme through the router.

A

Routed protocols

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6
Q

Commonly routed protocol … It is Connectionless, unreliable, best effort delivery system protocol used on the internet

A

Internet Protocol (IP)

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7
Q

Which network layer protocol provides mechanisms for sharing routing information?
Messages move between routers in this protocol.

A

Routing protocol

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8
Q

What are the two classes of routing protocols?

A

Interior and Exterior Gateway Protocols.IGPs and EGPs

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9
Q

Routed packets inside a local network.. Examples are RIP IGRP OSPF

A

Interior routing protocols

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10
Q

Used to link several LANS /MANS together.

Example is a BGP

A

Exterior routing protocol

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11
Q

What is a (BGP) Border Gateway Protocol?

A

Exchange information between autonomous systems while guaranteeing loop free path selection.

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12
Q

Which layer controls the electrical impulse that enter and leave the network cable?

A

Data link layer

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13
Q

Which layer is responsible for the link between two devices on the same network via MAC address and broken down into LLC and MAC

A

Data link layer

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14
Q

Which later is responsible for transmitting bits from one computer to another

A

Physical Layer

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15
Q

Two types of media access techniques

A

Centralized access control

Distributed access control

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16
Q

Which media access technique is commonly found in mainframe-access apps where a front end communications controller polls terminals and gives each authority to transmit

A

Centralized access control

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17
Q

Which method under distributed control access operates like a group discussion?

A

Random access methods

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18
Q

Which method under distributed access control guarantees each station a turn at the transmission media even if they don’t have anything to transmit

A

Deterministic access methods

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19
Q

What is the United Nations agency formed to develop and standardize communication around the world

A

international telecommunications union (ITU)

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20
Q

What’s set standards for consumer products and electronic components?

A

EIA Electronics Industries Alliance

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21
Q

Which organization is responsible for overseeing the development of internet standards and protocols

A

IAB Internet Architecture Board

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22
Q

A standard developed by a company for that company’s product only

A

Proprietary or closed standard

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23
Q

Widely accepted standard designed to apply to equipment and Software regardless of the manufacturer.

A

Non-proprietary or Open

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24
Q

Product Is widely used and it becomes a standard without any formal path of implementation.

A

De Facto

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25
Q

A standard that has been officially approved by a recognized standards committe

A

De jure

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26
Q

What standards added enhancements to the open systems interconnection (OSI) model that all internet systems are based on

A

802

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27
Q

Defines wireless network standards (LAN)

A

802.11

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28
Q

Defines wireless personal are networks (WPAN)

A

802.15

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29
Q

Defines broadband wireless standards

A

802.16

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30
Q

Standard for mobile wireless

A

802.20

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31
Q

Sometimes called media converters… Required when going from one type of media to another

A

Converters

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32
Q

Both transmits and receives analog or digital signal

A

Transceiver

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33
Q

A printed circuit board that enables a PC to be attached to some sort of network cabling by providing a physical connection point and electrical signal conversion.

A

Network interface card (NIC)

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34
Q

Any digital device at the user end, which transmits and receives data and issues communication equipment for data transfer

A

DTE Data Terminal Equipment

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35
Q

Devices connected to a comm line for the purpose of transferring data from one point to another.
They establish maintain and terminate the connection.

A

DCE data communications equipment

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36
Q

Layer 1 device that does not manage any data that goes threw it. Any packet that enters a port is broadcast out on all other ports.

A

Hub

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37
Q

Layer one device that is added to a network to extend the length of the cable. Used for digital signals.

A

Repeater

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38
Q

Layer two device that connects two or more LAN segments to effectively make those segments one logical network. Switches in software.

A

Bridge

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39
Q

Layer two device that switches in hardware and interconnect LANs of different bandwidth.
Maintain MAC address tables.

A

Switches

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40
Q

Convert protocols languages and architecture to allow communications between different systems but do not alter the original data in any way.

A

Gateways

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41
Q

Connects two or more network segments and support dynamic path assignment. Gateway for entry to and from a network

A

Routers

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42
Q

Most advanced encryption and authentication available.

A

VPN Concentrators

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43
Q

VPN concentrator creates a virtual private network by creating a secure connection across a TCP/IP network called?

A

Tunneling

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44
Q

Creates more space for cables where there isn’t much floor space

A

Distribution racks and rack shelves

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45
Q

Most accurate time and frequency standard known… Used as primary standards for international time distribution services

A

Atomic clock

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46
Q

A space based positioning and time transfer system

A

GPS

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47
Q

Measure of secrecy of information

A

Confidentiality

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48
Q

Ensures that information is accurate and reliable. Ensures data is not tampered with.

A

Integrity

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49
Q

Ability of the users to access the information.

A

Availability

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50
Q

Process by which a subject professes and an identity and accountability is initiated.

A

Identification

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51
Q

The process of verifying or testing that the identity claimed by a subject is valid or the procedure where the system verified the individual or network device has a right to access the system or system resource

A

Authentication

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52
Q

What’s the most common method of identification and authentication

A

Username and password

53
Q

Weakest form of protection

A

Knowledge based (username and passwords)

54
Q

Password-generating devices that subjects must carry with them

A

Possession-based

55
Q

Physical means to provide identity. In the forms of a swipe card, smart card, floppy disk or simple as a key

A

Static token

56
Q

Generates passwords at a fixed time intervals.

A

Synchronous dynamic password token

57
Q

Generates passwords based on the occurrence of an event

A

Asynchronous dynamic password token

58
Q

Generates passwords or responses based on instructions from the authentication system.

A

Challenge-response token

59
Q

A behavioral or physiological characteristic that is unique to the subject

A

Biometric based

60
Q

Way to substantially increase the security of I&A is to use a combination of I&A

A

Combining methods

61
Q

A mechanism that employs a third-party entity to prove identification and provide authentication

A

Ticket authentication

62
Q

A mechanism that allows a subject to be authentication only once on a system and be able to access resource after resource unhindered by repeated authentication prompts

A

Singe sign on

63
Q

Residual representation of data that was previously erased in some way.

A

Remanence

64
Q

Use of prescribed safeguards and controls to prevent reconstruction or disclosure of sensitive or classified information to persons who do not have the proper clearance or need-to-know for information.

A

Remanence security

65
Q

Removes information to render the sensitive or classified information unrecoverable by normal system utilities or non-technical means while leaving the media usable.

A

Clearing media

66
Q

Removes classified and sensitive information from media to render the information unrecoverable by technical means.

A

Sanitizing media

67
Q

A process where the magnetic media is erased

A

Degaussing

68
Q

Ultimate form of sanitization

A

Physical destruction

69
Q

Occurrence that takes place during a certain period of time that appears suspicious

A

Event

70
Q

Event that has a negative outcome affecting the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an organizations data

A

Incident

71
Q

Incidents that are reconnaissance attacks that usually precede another, more serious attack.

A

Scanning attacks

72
Q

Any unauthorized access to the system or information the system stores.

A

Compromise

73
Q

Think of virus or spyware

A

Malicious code

74
Q

Easiest to detect.

Normally when a user or automated tool reports that one or more services are unavailable

A

DOS Denial of Service

75
Q

Dedicated response team for investigating any computer security incidents that take place

A

CIRTS AND CSIRTS

76
Q

DODs practical strategy for achieving IA in today’s network dependent environments.

A

Defense in depth

77
Q

What are the 3 steps under Defense in Depth

A

People
Organization
Technology

78
Q

Air Force has further developed the defense in depth strategy and established a concept for boundary protection of the network called ?

A

Barrier Reed

79
Q

Barrier reef concept is the Air Forces spin on the defense-in-depth using a process known as

A

Layering

80
Q

What does a barrier reef concept consist of at a minimum

A

External router
Perimeter consisting of firewalls/servers
Internal router

81
Q

What protects the base the bases network perimeter in accordance with Air Force security policies

A

Boundary protection

82
Q

First line of defense for AF bases …. Serves as an entry/exit point to DISN
controlled by inosc

A

Air Force SDP router

83
Q

Second layer of defense for Air Force bases .

Acls on this router block address that have been explicitly identified as threat to base operations

A

External routers

84
Q

A piece of hardware or software program that examines data passing into your computer or network

A

Firewall

85
Q

Router that provides additional layer
Used to block high bandwidth or unauthorized traffic
Usually connected to one of the base backbone devices

A

Internal router

86
Q

A system that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of unauthorized access or abuse in progress.

A

IDS

87
Q

Which IDS primarily used software

Analyzes encrypted data…

A

Host based IDS (HIDS)

88
Q

A system that primarily uses passive hardware sensors to monitor traffic on a specific segment on a network

Cannot analyze encrypted packets

A

Network based (IDS)

89
Q

Ability to identify and report vulnerabilities at the host and network level to protect resources directly managed by the NCC

A

Internal control

90
Q

Provides the capability to prioritize and guarantee access to traffic at various levels of mission criticality.

A

Access preservation

91
Q

Limits access to base systems based on roles or identification that reflects the degree of the users need to know and privileges

A

Access control

92
Q

Function that verifies the identity of users attempting to access the network or equipment and applications running on the network

A

Authentication

93
Q

Process of encoding information in an attempt to make it secure from in-authorized access, particularly during transmissions

A

Encryption

94
Q

Which type of encryption uses a shared key to encrypt and decrypt

A

Symmetric

95
Q

Uses two keys a public key and a private key

A

Asymmetric

96
Q

Monitor and detect intrusions, security holes and weaknesses in a base network

A

Security tool precautions

97
Q

First three sanctioned tools of the Air Force recommended security tools/methods is called

A

Combat information transport system (CITS)

98
Q

Performs automated, distributed or event driven proves of geographically dispersed network services, operating system, routers/switches

A

Internet security systems (ISS)

99
Q

Agent based intrusion detection tool used by INOSC and NCC.

A

Intruder alert

100
Q

Runs a management server and has agents installed on hosts to run checks based on vulnerabilities of a particular operating system.

A

Enterprise security manager (ESM)

101
Q

Software is used to prevent, detect, and audit and remove malware, including computer viruses

A

Anti-Virus

102
Q

The ability to have a single point of control to accomplish the activities required to manage a network

A

Network management

103
Q

Process of detecting, isolating bs correcting network problems

A

Fault management

104
Q

3 elements of fault management

A

Identify, isolate, fix the problem

105
Q

This occurs when a device sends info to a management device to be recorded or produce a warning

A

Logging

106
Q

When the network management software can send out a message to other devices asking them for their status.

A

Polling

107
Q

Process of obtaining data from the network and using that data to manage the setup of all managed devices.

A

Configuration management

108
Q

3 steps of configuration management

A

Gathering data
Using the data
Maintaining or storing

109
Q

A method of managing and controlling hardware configuration and software resources on the network

A

Control mechanism

110
Q

Measurement of network usage, costs, charges and access to resources

A

Accounting management

111
Q

The goal of this is to ensure all users have adequate users have adequate network resources and are regulated/distributed accordingly.

A

Accounting management

112
Q

It’s Goal is to measure and make available various aspects of network performance so that internet work performance can be maintained at an acceptable level.

A

Performance management

113
Q

It’s 3 steps are
Gathering data
Analyzing data
Establish thresholds

A

Performance management

114
Q

The purpose is to ensure the data and equipment on a network is only used by authorized users.

A

Security management

115
Q

Security management involves protecting sensitive information found on devices attached to a data network by?

A

Controlling access points

116
Q

What Stops packets or frames from unauthorized hosts before they reach an access point that may have sensitive information?

A

Packet filtering

117
Q

What filters network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at the routers interfaces?

A

Access control lists

118
Q

What is another name for communication computer facility records

A

Commonly known as central office records

119
Q

What is designed to proactively manage small, medium and large scale enterprise networks from local, regional, and central locations simultaneously.

A

CAIRS

120
Q

What software modules was adopted by the Air Force as the standard application to maintain and generate central office records?

A

TMS modules

121
Q

What provides an automated system to open, close or modify service request?

A

Work order processor

122
Q

A client server software application development environment from BMC Software.

A

Remedy action request system

123
Q

Provides a common tool to automate and integrate service support processes among functional or regional groups, third-party resources and other parts of the enterprise

A

Remedy action request system

124
Q

Provides users a central point to receive help on various computer issues

A

Help desks

125
Q

Regulates how much information can be passed over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

A

Sliding windows

126
Q

Used to reference the location of a particular application or process on each machine.

Identifies the application to the transport layer.

A

Ports

127
Q

Combination of port numbers and IP address

A

Sockets

128
Q

Assigned port numbers are referred to as?

Also controlled and assigned by IANA

A

Well known ports

129
Q 
It's four basic steps are 
Identifying the sensitive information
Identify the access points
Securing the access points 
Maintaining and/or monitoring
A

Security management

Cyber Trans (12 decks)

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