Block 2 Linton Flashcards

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1
Q

what does it mean to say a mental disorder is organic

A

it has a biological basis or medical cause

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2
Q

what does it mean to say a mental disorder is neurosis

A

a chronic non-psychotic mental disorder recognized by the the patient as being unacceptable

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3
Q

how many major classifications are in the DSM-5

A

21

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4
Q

when is an “other specified disorder” used clinically

A

allows the physician to state why a patient’s individual presentation does not meet criteria for a specific category

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5
Q

when is “unspecified disorder” used clinically

A

if the physician chooses not to state a reason the criteria are not met for a specific disorder (when there is insufficient information to make a more specific diagnosis- ex: in the ER)

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6
Q

in the DSM IV, how did axis I disorders differ from axis II disorders

A

axis 1- all other mental diagnoses
axis II- personality disorders and intellectual developmental disorders

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7
Q

does DSM V use an axial or nonaxial system of documentation

A

nonaxial

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8
Q

what is the world health organization disability assessment schedule 2.0 (WHODAS 2.0)

A

it assesses disability across 6 domains for the past 30 days
(understanding and communicating, getting around, self-care, getting along with people, life activities, participation in society)

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9
Q

bariatric surgery is recommended for what types of patients

A

obese with BMI >40

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10
Q

how does a gastric balloon work for weight loss

A

it’s an inflatable device that is temporarily placed in the stomach to take up space in the stomach

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11
Q

how does liraglutide work for weight loss

A

suppresses appetite
delays gastric emptying

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12
Q

how does orlistat work for weight loss

A

it’s a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that limits the breakdown of dietary fats

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13
Q

how does naltrexone-bupropion work for weight loss

A

reduced food craving

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14
Q

how does Phentermine/topiramate work for obesity

A

suppresses appetite

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15
Q

what OTC supplements have been successful for lowering caloric consumption and body weight

A

fiber glucomannan (konjac root)
guar gum

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16
Q

what is the difference between reliability and validity

A

reliability assesses the reproducibility of test results
validity assesses whether the test measures what the was supposed to measure

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17
Q

what are criterion referenced psychometric tests

A

results are compared to a preset standard
(ex: a grade above a 60% will pass)

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18
Q

what is a norm referenced psychometric test

A

the results of a test are compared to the norm of a group

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19
Q

what is mental age

A

a person’s level of intellectual functioning
(median test score for a given age)

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20
Q

what is the intelligence quotient an estimate of

A

functional capacities

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21
Q

behavior genetic studies suggest IQ is more than __% inherited

A

70

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22
Q

the distribution mean for IQ is __ with a standard deviation of __

A

100
15

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23
Q

an IQ less than 69 is associated with what

A

intellectual developmental disorder

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24
Q

an IQ of less than 69 accounts for what percent of the population

A

2.5%

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25
Q

an IQ between _ and _ is considered average

A

90 to 109

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26
Q

an IQ more than 130 accounts for what percentage of the population

A

2.5%

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27
Q

what is the equation to calculate IQ

A

mental age/chronological age x100
(chronological age is the patient’s actual age)

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28
Q

what is the highest age to determine IQ since past this age, IQ becomes stable

A

15

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29
Q

the margin of error for mental age and deviation from norms is + or - _

A

5

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30
Q

does intelligence decline with age

A

no

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31
Q

what ability holds up best as we age

A

verbal

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32
Q

why do cross sectional studies of IQ show lower levels for older people

A

older people tend to be less educated than the young

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33
Q

increased exposure to __ early in life leads to a higher IQ

A

verbal behavior

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34
Q

what are 2 factors that may influence the result of an IQ test

A

cultural bias
emotional response (test anxiety)

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35
Q

what is the most commonly used IQ test

A

Wechsler adult intelligence scale IV

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36
Q

what are the components of the Wechsler adult intelligence scale IV IQ test

A

there is a score for a full scale IQ and a score for subcomponents (verbal comprehension, working memory, perceptual reasoning, processing speed)
verbal IQ= verbal comprehension+working memory
performance IQ= perceptual reasoning+processing speed

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37
Q

the Wechsler intelligence scale for children is for ages __
the Wechsler preschool and primary scale of intelligence is used for children ages __

A

children= 6-17
preschool/primary= 4-6.5

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38
Q

the Wechsler nonverbal scale of ability is used for what populations

A

cultural and linguistically diverse

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39
Q

what was the first formal IQ test

A

stanford binet intelligence scale (this is still used for ages 2-18)

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40
Q

what is the Vineland social maturity scale used for

A

evaluate skills for daily living in those mentally/intellectually disabled

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41
Q

what do both the Wisconsin card sorting test and the Stroop color word test evaluate

A

executive function, ability to reason abstractly, solve problems, attend to a specific task while inhibiting interfering stimuli

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42
Q

what types of patients may have abnormal results in the Wisconsin card sorting test

A

those with frontal lobe/caudate damage
schizophrenics

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43
Q

what are objective tests

A

questions with limited range of responses scored mathematically

little/no clinical experience required to score

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44
Q

what is the Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory-2 test

A

it has statements in which patients answer true or false about themself

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45
Q

in the Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory-2 test, results are considered significant if they are > or < ___

A

2 standard deviations from the mean

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46
Q

is the Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory 2 test a criterion referenced or norm referenced test

A

norm (demographics, SES, education, and lifestyles choices may cause variation in readings)

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47
Q

how do projective tests differ from objective tests

A

projective tests involve ambiguous stimuli and a possibility of a wide range of responses

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48
Q

what is the most commonly uses projective personality test

A

Rorschach inkblot test

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49
Q

what is involved in the Rorschach inkblot test

A

10 bilaterally symmetrical inkblot designs are shown and the patient is asked to interpret them
results are then standardized using the Exner scoring method

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50
Q

is the Rorschach inkblot test an objective or projective test

A

projective

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51
Q

is the thematic aperception test objective or projective

A

projective

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52
Q

what is involved in the thematic aperception test

A

patients are asked to create a verbal scenario about a series of cards, each depicting a scene

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53
Q

is a sentence completion test an objective or projective test

A

projective

54
Q

are projective drawings an objective or projective test

A

projective

55
Q

what is involved in the projective drawing test

A

the patient is asked to draw a house, tree, person, family, or another object, with the drawings scored for size, placement, distortion, details, etc.

56
Q

what are the 4 common rating scales for depression

A

Hamilton
Beck
Zung
Raskin

57
Q

how do the Zung and Beck scales compare to the Hamilton and Raskin scales for depression

A

Zung and Beck scales are scored by the patient
Hamilton and Raskin are scored by the examiner

58
Q

what is the brief psychiatric rating scale used to assess

A

severity of psychiatric symptoms, especially psychotic symptoms

59
Q

what is the Hamilton anxiety scale used for

A

quantifying the symptoms of anxiety

60
Q

what is the Yale Brown obsessive compulsive scale used for

A

rate the severity of OCD symptoms

61
Q

what are the scale for assessment of negative (SAN) and the scale for assessment of positive symptoms (SAP) used to measure

A

positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia

62
Q

neuropsychological tests are used to assess patients with what types of conditions

A

suspected neurological problems (ex: dementia) or brain damage

63
Q

what is the Halstead Reitan battery used for

A

to test for presence and localization of brain function to provide an impairment index

64
Q

what is the Luria Nebraska neuropsychological battery used for

A

tests for impairment and functioning to assess cognitive function and specific types of brain dysfunction (ex: dyslexia)

65
Q

what test is useful for determining left or right cerebral dominance

A

Luria Nebraska neuropsychological battery

66
Q

what type of test is the Bender visual motor gestalt test

A

visuomotor coordination

67
Q

what occurs in the Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

A

the patient is asked to copy 9 shapes from memory

68
Q

what test is used most frequently in adults as a screening device for signs of neuropsychiatric dysfunction

A

Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

69
Q

what type of test is the Benton Visual Retention Test

A

memory

70
Q

what test is sensitive to short term memory loss

A

Benton Visual Retention Test

71
Q

what is tested in the Benton Visual Retention Test

A

visual perception and visual memory

72
Q

what is the Wechsler memory scale uses to access

A

memory impairment

73
Q

what test can pick up memory/amnestic problems due to conditions such as Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Wechsler memory scale

74
Q

what memory test battery is most widely used

A

Wechsler memory scale

75
Q

what type of test is the Boston naming test

A

language

76
Q

how does the Boston naming test work

A

it has 60 line drawings of objects from more common to lesser common and it measures word retrieval

77
Q

what type of test is the Digit Symbol Substitution Test

A

cognitive

78
Q

what type of test is the Folstein Mini Mental State Examination

A

cognitive

79
Q

what is used to assess level of consciousness by rating patient responsiveness

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

80
Q

with the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of __ indicates mild neurological impairments, __ is moderate, and __ is severe impairment

A

<12= mild
9-12= moderate
<9= severe

81
Q

expansiveness, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, heightened self esteem, and grandiose ideas represent what state

A

mania/hypomanis

82
Q

expansiveness, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, heightened self esteem, and grandiose ideas represent what state

A

mania/hypomania

83
Q

it is estimated that at least __% of patients referred to primary care for any reason have depression

the diagnosis of depression is missed in __% of cases

A

10
50

84
Q

only __% of patients are prescribed antidepressant medication

A

25

85
Q

what complaint may be the primary complaint, making the diagnosis of depression difficult

A

somatic complaints

86
Q

what is anaclitic depression

A

infants who appeared depressed due to separation from the mother

*this is not recognized by the DSM

87
Q

major depressive disorder has a lifetime prevalence of __%

__% in men, __% in women

A

12-15%

men= 5-12%
women= 10-20%

88
Q

what percent of the population worldwide suffers from depression

A

4.4%

89
Q

according to WHO, what is the leading cause of disability worldwide

A

depression

90
Q

bipolar I has a lifetime prevalence of __%

A

1%

91
Q

bipolar II has a lifetime prevalence of __%

A

1%

92
Q

what is the lifetime prevalence of bipolar disorders

A

4.4%

93
Q

what is the ratio of female:male for bipolar I

A

2:1

94
Q

what 2 neurotransmitters are of the most concern in depression

A

NE
serotonin

95
Q

what is the main drug class used for depression

A

SSRI

96
Q

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an example of what class of drug that is used to treat depression

A

SSRI

97
Q

depletion of what precursor to serotonin may precipitate depressive symptoms

A

tryptophan

98
Q

dopamine is elevated in __ and reduced in __

A

elevated in mania
reduced in depression

99
Q

Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an example of a drug that is used for what

A

depression (it increases dopamine levels which are lowered in those with depression)

100
Q

reduction of GABA in plasma, CSF, and the brain has been seen in those with what condition

A

depression

101
Q

what may account for the neurocognitive effects of severe recurring depression

A

glutamate working in conjunction with hypercortisolemia

102
Q

glutamate and glycine bund to what receptor site

A

NMDA

103
Q

drugs that antagonize NMDA can have what effect

A

antidepressive

104
Q

how does ketamine work

A

it antagonizes NMDA to have antidepressant effects

105
Q

what is the most consistent brain abnormality in depressive disorders

A

increased frequency of abnormal hyperintensities in subcortical regions

106
Q

reduced hippocampal or caudate nucleus volume have been seen in patients suffering from what

A

depression

107
Q

what is most commonly found with PET scans in those with depression

A

decreased anterior brain metabolism

108
Q

is decreased anterior brain metabolism most commonly seen on the left or right side

A

left

109
Q

depression has been associated with increased __-sided activity (left or right)

A

right

110
Q

reductions in cerebral blood flow or metabolism in the dopaminergically innervated mesolimbic and mesocortical tracts have been seen in patients suffering from ___

A

depression

111
Q

in patients with severe recurring depression, what else is seen in neuroimaging besides a reduction of anterior cerebral metabolism

A

increased glucose metabolism

112
Q

major depressive disorder is also known as __

A

unipolar disorder

113
Q

severity of depression has been linked to hyper__

A

hypercortisolism

114
Q

what has been considered the most common correlate of suicide

A

depression

115
Q

those with depression have a __x higher rate of suicide than the nondepressed

A

17

116
Q

__-__% of suicides are related to mental disorders

A

27-90%

117
Q

increased corticotropin releasing factor occurs in __

A

major depressive disorder

118
Q

abnormalities in what axis is seen in those with major depressive disorder

A

limbic hypothalamic pituitary

119
Q

__% of depression/fatigue cases may be secondary to hypothyroidism

A

10

120
Q

what is the sleep cycle seen in those with major depressive disorder

A

increased REM in the first half of sleep
decreased REM latency
decreased stage 4 sleep
increased REM overall

121
Q

the prevalence of adults with major depressive disorder is highest among what age range

A

18-25

122
Q

what is the median age of onset of major depressive disorder based on symptoms

A

26

123
Q

what is the median age of onset of major depressive disorder based on diagnosis

A

31

124
Q

are the elderly or young more likely to be depressed

A

young

125
Q

depression usually co-occurs with __

A

pain

126
Q

__% of those diagnosed with depressive disorders may also be diagnosed with anxiety

A

50

127
Q

what is the immunological abnormality seen in those with depression

A

increased levels of cytokines

128
Q

what are the 5 criteria for major depressive disorder

A

A. 5 out of 9 symptoms present for at least 2 weeks (1 symptom must be anhedonia or depressed mood)
B. symptoms cause significant distress/impairment in social, occupational, or other functions
C. the episode is not attributed to the effects of a substance or other medical condition
D. the occurrence is not better explained by schizophrenia/other delusional disorder
E. there has never been a manic or hypomanic episode

129
Q

what are the 9 symptoms of depression

A
  1. depressed mood most of the day
  2. anhedonia
  3. weight loss or gain (change in 5% of body weight in one month)
  4. insomnia or hypersomnia
  5. psychomotor agitation/retardation
  6. fatigue/loss of energy
  7. feeling of worthlessness or excessive guilt
  8. diminished ability to think/concentrate
  9. recurrent thoughts of death/suicidal ideations
130
Q

what criteria of major depressive disorder represent a major depressive episode

A

A. 5 out of 9 symptoms present for at least 2 weeks (1 symptom must be anhedonia or depressed mood)
B. symptoms cause significant distress/impairment in social, occupational, or other functions
C. the episode is not attributed to the effects of a substance or other medical condition