Block 1 Flashcards
what are family risk studies used for
to compare how often a mental disorder or trait occurs in the relatives of the affected individual
in twin studies, what does it mean to say a mental disorder or trait is concordant
it appears in both twins
if there is a genetic component in it’s development, a trait or disorder will have a higher concordance rate in monozygotic or dizygotic twins
monozygotic
typical onset Alzheimer’s disease usually begins after age __
65
what is the most common gene associated with typical onset Alzheimer’s disease
apolipoprotein E on chromosome 19
typical onset Alzheimer’s disease is most often caused by the apolipoprotein E gene. what type of gene is this?
risk factor gene
which apolipoprotein E is most common and increases the risk of developing Alzheimer’s
APOE e4 (apolipoprotein E)
early onset Alzheimer’s begins between the age of__ and __
30 and 60
early onset Alzheimer’s is linked to what type of genes
casual/deterministic genes
what are the 3 deterministic genes which can be mutated to cause early onset Alzheimer’s
amyloid precursor protein
presenilin 1
presenilin 2
early onset Alzheimer’s disease is associated with what 2 number chromosome
which number chromosome is associated with typical age onset Alzheimer’s
1, 14
19
Huntington’s disease is associated with what number chromosome
4
Acute Intermittent Porphyria is associated with what number chromosome
11
Phenylketonuria is associated with what number chromosome
12
Wilson’s disease is associated with what number chromosome
13
Rett’s Disorder is associated with what chromosome
X
which brain hemisphere is considered dominant
left
which cerebral hemisphere is associated with controlling preferential arm and leg use in skilled movements
left (dominant)
which cerebral hemisphere is associated with language function
left (dominant)
which cerebral hemisphere is associated with emotional expression and recognition of emotion
right
what are the main functions of the frontal cortex (8)
Broca’s area
personality and emotion expression regulation
concentration
abstract thought
memory
executive function
motor function
initiate and stop tasks
the frontal cortex is responsible for executive function. what is executive function
management of cognitive and related functions (ex: working memory, reasoning, task flexibility, problem solving, planning, execution)
what is the effect of a frontal cortex lesion
mood changes
frontal cortex lesion in the dominant (left) hemisphere may cause what type of mood change
depression
frontal cortex lesion in the nondominant (right) cortex may cause what type of mood change
elevation of mood
the dorsolateral frontal cortex is mainly associated with what 3 tasks
planning
strategy formation
executive function
the orbitofrontal cortex is mainly associated with what 2 tasks
decision making
response inhibition
what are the 3 main function of the temporal lobe
language
memory
emotion
a lesion to the temporal lobe in the dominant (left) hemisphere may lead to __
Wernicke’s aphasia
the parietal lobe is involved in what main task
intellectual processing of sensory info
damage on the dominant hemisphere (left) of the parietal lobe may impair what types of function
language
construction apraxia can occur due to a brain lesion where
right hemisphere of the parietal lobe
what is construction apraxia which can result from a brain lesion to the right hemisphere of the parietal lobe
inability to copy drawings or manipulate objects to form patterns or designs
what type of lesion can lead to Gerstmann syndrome
dominant (left) hemisphere lesion to the parietal cortex
what are the 4 symptoms of Gertsmann syndrome which can occur due to a lesion to the dominant hemisphere of the parietal cortex
agraphia (inability to write)
acalculia (inability to perform calculations)
finger agnosia (unable to recognize fingers)
right-handed disorientation
a lesion to the nondominant hemisphere of the parietal cortex can have what 4 effects
denial of illness
neglect of the opposite side (hemispatial neglect)
decreased visual spatial processing
construction apraxia
what is hemispatial neglect
after damage to one side of the brain, there is a deficit in attention and awareness of one side of space, most often contralateral
hemispatial neglect results most commonly from that hemisphere
right
hemispatial neglect most commonly cause neglect of what
one sided vision
a drawing of what is mostly commonly represented to show of someone with hemispatial neglect
clock
the occipital lobe is mainly responsible for what
vision processing
cortical blindness results from damage to what lobe
occipital
what lobe is affected in Anton Syndrome
occipital
what causes Anton syndrome
bilateral occlusion of posterior cerebral arteries
what occurs in someone with Anton Syndrome
cortical blindness
failure to acknowledge the blindness
what are the 6 main functions of the limbic system
motivation
emotion
memory
conditioned responses
violet behaviors
sociosexual behaviors
what is the function of the hypothalamus
control of involuntary internal responses (“fight or flight” responses)
what results from destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus
hyperphagia and obesity
what results from destruction of the lateral hypothalamus
anorexia and starvation
what part of the brain is responsible for pain perception
thalamus
dysfunction of the thalamus can lead to impairment of what 2 functions
memory
arousal
what is the function of the reticular activating system
sets the level of consciousness (arousal and wakefulness)
what are the 2 main functions of the hippocampus
memory
new learning
damage to the hippocampus results in __ and __
short term memory disorder
anterograde amnesia (amnesia of events before the damage)
what part of the brain integrates internal and external stimuli
amygdala
what part of the brain is mainly responsible for emotional memory
amygdala
what causes Kluver-Bucy syndrome
bilateral lesions of the anterior temporal lobes, including the amygdala
what is the affect of Kluver-Bucy syndrome
causes “taming” of the individual by reducing fear of natural enemies and a high rage threshold
what causes Korsakoff Syndrome
thiamine deficiency (B1)
damage to what part of the brain may cause Korsakoff Syndrome
thymus
what are the 7 main functions of the basal ganglia
movement initiation and control
routine behavior
eye movement
cognition
integration of emotion with cognition and motor behavior
procedural learning
emotion
what is the triad of symptoms of someone with Huntington’s Disease
dyskinesia
dementia
depression
Parkinson’s, Huntington’s, and Tourette’s are all due to dysfunction of what part of the brain
basal ganglia
Sydenham chorea is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and is associated with __ and __, and is linked to the __ of the brain
attention deficit
emotional lability
basal ganglia
dysregulation of what 2 neurotransmitters may lead to OCD
low serotonin
high dopamine
what causes Fahr Disease
hereditary disorder caused by calcification of the basal ganglia
what part of the brain is important in REM sleep
pons
what structure of the pons is involved with physiological responses to stress and panic
locus coeruleus
what part of the brain is important in motor and balance
cerebellum
what are 4 second messengers used by postsynaptic receptors
cAMP
lipids
Ca2+
nitric oxide
what are the 3 major classes of neurotransmitters
biogenic amines
amino acids
peptides
how are neurotransmitters removed from the synaptic cleft
reuptake
breakdown enzymes
what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in Alzheimer’s disease
increased glutamate
decreased acetylcholine
what are the abnormal levels in anxiety
increased norepinephrine
decreased GABA
decreased serotonin
what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in depression
decreased norepinephrine
decreased serotonin
decreased dopamine
what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in manina
increased dopamine
decreased GABA
what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in schizophrenia
increased dopamine
increased serotonin
increased or decreased glutamate
what 2 classes of neurotransmitters are included in biogenic amines
catecholamines (dopamine and norepinephrine)
indolamines (serotonin)
are metabolites of monoamines or monoamines most often measures in body fluids
metabolites
what is the monoamine theory of depression
lowered monoamine activity results in depression
is autism spectrum disorder associated with high or low levels of serotonin
high
what biogenic amine has been associated with the conditioned fear response
dopamine
what are the 2 steps of dopamine synthesis
L-tyrosine is converted to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase
L-DOPA is decarboxylated by aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
which dopamine receptor subtype is the major site of action for traditional antipsychotic drug/agents
D2
which dopamine receptor subtypes are the site of newer “atypical” antipsychotic agents
D1
D4
D2
what dopamine receptor subtype stimulates G protein and increases cAMP excitation
D1
D5
what dopamine receptor subtype inhibits G protein and decreases cAMP excitation
D2
D3
D4
what 3 tracts are considered dopaminergic
nigrostriatal
tuberoinfundibular
mesolimbic-mesocortical
what is the function of the nigrostriatal tract
regulation of muscle tone and movement
what tract degenerates in Parkinson disease
nigrostriatal
what tract does dopamine act on to inhibit the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary
tuberoinfundibular
what is the function of the mesolimbic-mesocortical tract
expression of emotion
hyperactivity of the mesolimbic-mesocortical tract has been thought to be associated with positive symptoms of ___
schizophrenia
how is dopamine converted to norepinephrine (what enzyme)
dopamine beta hydroxylase
where are most noradrenergic neurons located
in the locus coeruleus (in the pons)
what neurotransmitter is associated with decreased sexual function
serotonin
is the serotonin system targeted by typical or atypical antipsychotics
atypical
what are SNRIs
serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
heterocyclic antidepressants block reuptake of __ and __
serotonin
norepinephrine
Fluoxetine (Prozac) is what type of drug
heterocyclic antidepressant
how does Fluoxetine (Prozac) work
selectively blocks reuptake of serotonin in the presynaptic neuron
monoamine oxidase inhibitors prevent the degradation of what neurotransmitters
serotonin
norepinephrine
heterocyclic antidepressants block what receptors
muscarinic acetylcholine and histamine
what are 5 anticholinergic effects
dry mouth
blurry vision
constipation
urinary retention
delirium
what type of drug is imipramine
heterocyclic antidepressant
agranulocytosis is a frequent side effect of __
imipramine
how is serotonin synthesized
tryptophan–> 5-hydroxytryptophan–> serotonin by tryptophan hydroxylase and aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
most serotonergic cell bodies in the brain are contained where
in the dorsal raphe nucleus
what are the 2 common side effects of blockade of histamine receptors
sedation
increased appetite (resulting in weight gain)
Alzheimer’s, Down syndrome, and movement and sleep disorder is associated with degradation of what neurons
cholinergic
how is acetlycholine synthesized
by cholinergic neurons from acetyl CoA and choline using choline acetyltransferase
what 2 brain areas are involved in the production of acetylcholine
nucleus basalis of Meynert
medial septal nucleus
Donepezil (Aricept), Rivastigmine (Exelon), and Galantamine (Reminyl) are all drugs that block what neurotransmitter action
acetylcholine
what is the most common drug-related cause of delirium
anticholinergics
what class of neurotransmitters are involved in most synapses in the brain
amino acid
glutamate, GABA, and glycine are all what class of neurotransmitters
amino acid
is glutamate as a neurotransmitter excitatory or inhibitory
excitatory
excitatory neurotransmitters may contribute to what 2 diseases
Alzheimer’s
schizophrenia
what is the effect of memantine (Namenda)
it is a blocker of the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (a glutamate receptor) which blocks calcium influx
is GABA excitatory or inhibitory
inhibitory
how is GABA synthesized
from glutamate by glutamic acid decarboxylase with B6
is glycine as a neurotransmitter excitatory or inhibitory
inhibitory
what is substance P
neurotransmitter for pain sensations from the periphery into the spinal cord
how do opiates help relieve pain
blocking substance P release
enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins, and endomorphins are endogenous opioids which have what effect
decrease pain and anxiety
play a role in addiction
what is the structure of enkephalins, an endogenous opioid
composed of 2 peptides each containing 5 amino acids
what is placebo analgesia
the reduction of pain, when an inert treatment (the placebo) is administered to a subject who is told that it is a painkiller
what is an example of an opioid receptor blocker
naloxone
disease that affect what part of the brain are more likely to manifest with prominent personality changes
frontal lobe or subcortical structures
explicit or declarative memory is the knowledge of ___
facts
implicit or nondeclarative memory is the knowledge of __
how to perform an act (unconscious recall, procedural, working memory)
