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Behavioral Science > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are family risk studies used for

A

to compare how often a mental disorder or trait occurs in the relatives of the affected individual

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2
Q

in twin studies, what does it mean to say a mental disorder or trait is concordant

A

it appears in both twins

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3
Q

if there is a genetic component in it’s development, a trait or disorder will have a higher concordance rate in monozygotic or dizygotic twins

A

monozygotic

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4
Q

typical onset Alzheimer’s disease usually begins after age __

A

65

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5
Q

what is the most common gene associated with typical onset Alzheimer’s disease

A

apolipoprotein E on chromosome 19

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6
Q

typical onset Alzheimer’s disease is most often caused by the apolipoprotein E gene. what type of gene is this?

A

risk factor gene

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7
Q

which apolipoprotein E is most common and increases the risk of developing Alzheimer’s

A

APOE e4 (apolipoprotein E)

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8
Q

early onset Alzheimer’s begins between the age of__ and __

A

30 and 60

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9
Q

early onset Alzheimer’s is linked to what type of genes

A

casual/deterministic genes

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10
Q

what are the 3 deterministic genes which can be mutated to cause early onset Alzheimer’s

A

amyloid precursor protein
presenilin 1
presenilin 2

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11
Q

early onset Alzheimer’s disease is associated with what 2 number chromosome

which number chromosome is associated with typical age onset Alzheimer’s

A

1, 14

19

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12
Q

Huntington’s disease is associated with what number chromosome

A

4

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13
Q

Acute Intermittent Porphyria is associated with what number chromosome

A

11

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14
Q

Phenylketonuria is associated with what number chromosome

A

12

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15
Q

Wilson’s disease is associated with what number chromosome

A

13

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16
Q

Rett’s Disorder is associated with what chromosome

A

X

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17
Q

which brain hemisphere is considered dominant

A

left

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18
Q

which cerebral hemisphere is associated with controlling preferential arm and leg use in skilled movements

A

left (dominant)

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19
Q

which cerebral hemisphere is associated with language function

A

left (dominant)

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20
Q

which cerebral hemisphere is associated with emotional expression and recognition of emotion

A

right

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21
Q

what are the main functions of the frontal cortex (8)

A

Broca’s area
personality and emotion expression regulation
concentration
abstract thought
memory
executive function
motor function
initiate and stop tasks

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22
Q

the frontal cortex is responsible for executive function. what is executive function

A

management of cognitive and related functions (ex: working memory, reasoning, task flexibility, problem solving, planning, execution)

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23
Q

what is the effect of a frontal cortex lesion

A

mood changes

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24
Q

frontal cortex lesion in the dominant (left) hemisphere may cause what type of mood change

A

depression

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25
Q

frontal cortex lesion in the nondominant (right) cortex may cause what type of mood change

A

elevation of mood

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26
Q

the dorsolateral frontal cortex is mainly associated with what 3 tasks

A

planning
strategy formation
executive function

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27
Q

the orbitofrontal cortex is mainly associated with what 2 tasks

A

decision making
response inhibition

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28
Q

what are the 3 main function of the temporal lobe

A

language
memory
emotion

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29
Q

a lesion to the temporal lobe in the dominant (left) hemisphere may lead to __

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

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30
Q

the parietal lobe is involved in what main task

A

intellectual processing of sensory info

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31
Q

damage on the dominant hemisphere (left) of the parietal lobe may impair what types of function

A

language

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32
Q

construction apraxia can occur due to a brain lesion where

A

right hemisphere of the parietal lobe

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33
Q

what is construction apraxia which can result from a brain lesion to the right hemisphere of the parietal lobe

A

inability to copy drawings or manipulate objects to form patterns or designs

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34
Q

what type of lesion can lead to Gerstmann syndrome

A

dominant (left) hemisphere lesion to the parietal cortex

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35
Q

what are the 4 symptoms of Gertsmann syndrome which can occur due to a lesion to the dominant hemisphere of the parietal cortex

A

agraphia (inability to write)
acalculia (inability to perform calculations)
finger agnosia (unable to recognize fingers)
right-handed disorientation

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36
Q

a lesion to the nondominant hemisphere of the parietal cortex can have what 4 effects

A

denial of illness
neglect of the opposite side (hemispatial neglect)
decreased visual spatial processing
construction apraxia

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37
Q

what is hemispatial neglect

A

after damage to one side of the brain, there is a deficit in attention and awareness of one side of space, most often contralateral

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38
Q

hemispatial neglect results most commonly from that hemisphere

A

right

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39
Q

hemispatial neglect most commonly cause neglect of what

A

one sided vision

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40
Q

a drawing of what is mostly commonly represented to show of someone with hemispatial neglect

A

clock

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41
Q

the occipital lobe is mainly responsible for what

A

vision processing

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42
Q

cortical blindness results from damage to what lobe

A

occipital

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43
Q

what lobe is affected in Anton Syndrome

A

occipital

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44
Q

what causes Anton syndrome

A

bilateral occlusion of posterior cerebral arteries

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45
Q

what occurs in someone with Anton Syndrome

A

cortical blindness
failure to acknowledge the blindness

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46
Q

what are the 6 main functions of the limbic system

A

motivation
emotion
memory
conditioned responses
violet behaviors
sociosexual behaviors

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47
Q

what is the function of the hypothalamus

A

control of involuntary internal responses (“fight or flight” responses)

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48
Q

what results from destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus

A

hyperphagia and obesity

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49
Q

what results from destruction of the lateral hypothalamus

A

anorexia and starvation

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50
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for pain perception

A

thalamus

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51
Q

dysfunction of the thalamus can lead to impairment of what 2 functions

A

memory
arousal

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52
Q

what is the function of the reticular activating system

A

sets the level of consciousness (arousal and wakefulness)

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53
Q

what are the 2 main functions of the hippocampus

A

memory
new learning

54
Q

damage to the hippocampus results in __ and __

A

short term memory disorder
anterograde amnesia (amnesia of events before the damage)

55
Q

what part of the brain integrates internal and external stimuli

A

amygdala

56
Q

what part of the brain is mainly responsible for emotional memory

A

amygdala

57
Q

what causes Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

bilateral lesions of the anterior temporal lobes, including the amygdala

58
Q

what is the affect of Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

causes “taming” of the individual by reducing fear of natural enemies and a high rage threshold

59
Q

what causes Korsakoff Syndrome

A

thiamine deficiency (B1)

60
Q

damage to what part of the brain may cause Korsakoff Syndrome

A

thymus

61
Q

what are the 7 main functions of the basal ganglia

A

movement initiation and control
routine behavior
eye movement
cognition
integration of emotion with cognition and motor behavior
procedural learning
emotion

62
Q

what is the triad of symptoms of someone with Huntington’s Disease

A

dyskinesia
dementia
depression

63
Q

Parkinson’s, Huntington’s, and Tourette’s are all due to dysfunction of what part of the brain

A

basal ganglia

64
Q

Sydenham chorea is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and is associated with __ and __, and is linked to the __ of the brain

A

attention deficit
emotional lability
basal ganglia

65
Q

dysregulation of what 2 neurotransmitters may lead to OCD

A

low serotonin
high dopamine

66
Q

what causes Fahr Disease

A

hereditary disorder caused by calcification of the basal ganglia

67
Q

what part of the brain is important in REM sleep

A

pons

68
Q

what structure of the pons is involved with physiological responses to stress and panic

A

locus coeruleus

69
Q

what part of the brain is important in motor and balance

A

cerebellum

70
Q

what are 4 second messengers used by postsynaptic receptors

A

cAMP
lipids
Ca2+
nitric oxide

71
Q

what are the 3 major classes of neurotransmitters

A

biogenic amines
amino acids
peptides

72
Q

how are neurotransmitters removed from the synaptic cleft

A

reuptake
breakdown enzymes

73
Q

what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in Alzheimer’s disease

A

increased glutamate
decreased acetylcholine

74
Q

what are the abnormal levels in anxiety

A

increased norepinephrine
decreased GABA
decreased serotonin

75
Q

what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in depression

A

decreased norepinephrine
decreased serotonin
decreased dopamine

76
Q

what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in manina

A

increased dopamine
decreased GABA

77
Q

what are the abnormal neurotransmitter levels in schizophrenia

A

increased dopamine
increased serotonin
increased or decreased glutamate

78
Q

what 2 classes of neurotransmitters are included in biogenic amines

A

catecholamines (dopamine and norepinephrine)
indolamines (serotonin)

79
Q

are metabolites of monoamines or monoamines most often measures in body fluids

A

metabolites

80
Q

what is the monoamine theory of depression

A

lowered monoamine activity results in depression

81
Q

is autism spectrum disorder associated with high or low levels of serotonin

A

high

82
Q

what biogenic amine has been associated with the conditioned fear response

A

dopamine

83
Q

what are the 2 steps of dopamine synthesis

A

L-tyrosine is converted to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase
L-DOPA is decarboxylated by aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

84
Q

which dopamine receptor subtype is the major site of action for traditional antipsychotic drug/agents

A

D2

85
Q

which dopamine receptor subtypes are the site of newer “atypical” antipsychotic agents

A

D1
D4
D2

86
Q

what dopamine receptor subtype stimulates G protein and increases cAMP excitation

A

D1
D5

87
Q

what dopamine receptor subtype inhibits G protein and decreases cAMP excitation

A

D2
D3
D4

88
Q

what 3 tracts are considered dopaminergic

A

nigrostriatal
tuberoinfundibular
mesolimbic-mesocortical

89
Q

what is the function of the nigrostriatal tract

A

regulation of muscle tone and movement

90
Q

what tract degenerates in Parkinson disease

A

nigrostriatal

91
Q

what tract does dopamine act on to inhibit the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary

A

tuberoinfundibular

92
Q

what is the function of the mesolimbic-mesocortical tract

A

expression of emotion

93
Q

hyperactivity of the mesolimbic-mesocortical tract has been thought to be associated with positive symptoms of ___

A

schizophrenia

94
Q

how is dopamine converted to norepinephrine (what enzyme)

A

dopamine beta hydroxylase

95
Q

where are most noradrenergic neurons located

A

in the locus coeruleus (in the pons)

96
Q

what neurotransmitter is associated with decreased sexual function

A

serotonin

97
Q

is the serotonin system targeted by typical or atypical antipsychotics

A

atypical

98
Q

what are SNRIs

A

serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

99
Q

heterocyclic antidepressants block reuptake of __ and __

A

serotonin
norepinephrine

100
Q

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is what type of drug

A

heterocyclic antidepressant

101
Q

how does Fluoxetine (Prozac) work

A

selectively blocks reuptake of serotonin in the presynaptic neuron

102
Q

monoamine oxidase inhibitors prevent the degradation of what neurotransmitters

A

serotonin
norepinephrine

103
Q

heterocyclic antidepressants block what receptors

A

muscarinic acetylcholine and histamine

104
Q

what are 5 anticholinergic effects

A

dry mouth
blurry vision
constipation
urinary retention
delirium

105
Q

what type of drug is imipramine

A

heterocyclic antidepressant

106
Q

agranulocytosis is a frequent side effect of __

A

imipramine

107
Q

how is serotonin synthesized

A

tryptophan–> 5-hydroxytryptophan–> serotonin by tryptophan hydroxylase and aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase

108
Q

most serotonergic cell bodies in the brain are contained where

A

in the dorsal raphe nucleus

109
Q

what are the 2 common side effects of blockade of histamine receptors

A

sedation
increased appetite (resulting in weight gain)

110
Q

Alzheimer’s, Down syndrome, and movement and sleep disorder is associated with degradation of what neurons

A

cholinergic

111
Q

how is acetlycholine synthesized

A

by cholinergic neurons from acetyl CoA and choline using choline acetyltransferase

112
Q

what 2 brain areas are involved in the production of acetylcholine

A

nucleus basalis of Meynert
medial septal nucleus

113
Q

Donepezil (Aricept), Rivastigmine (Exelon), and Galantamine (Reminyl) are all drugs that block what neurotransmitter action

A

acetylcholine

114
Q

what is the most common drug-related cause of delirium

A

anticholinergics

115
Q

what class of neurotransmitters are involved in most synapses in the brain

A

amino acid

116
Q

glutamate, GABA, and glycine are all what class of neurotransmitters

A

amino acid

117
Q

is glutamate as a neurotransmitter excitatory or inhibitory

A

excitatory

118
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters may contribute to what 2 diseases

A

Alzheimer’s
schizophrenia

119
Q

what is the effect of memantine (Namenda)

A

it is a blocker of the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (a glutamate receptor) which blocks calcium influx

120
Q

is GABA excitatory or inhibitory

A

inhibitory

121
Q

how is GABA synthesized

A

from glutamate by glutamic acid decarboxylase with B6

122
Q

is glycine as a neurotransmitter excitatory or inhibitory

A

inhibitory

123
Q

what is substance P

A

neurotransmitter for pain sensations from the periphery into the spinal cord

124
Q

how do opiates help relieve pain

A

blocking substance P release

125
Q

enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins, and endomorphins are endogenous opioids which have what effect

A

decrease pain and anxiety
play a role in addiction

126
Q

what is the structure of enkephalins, an endogenous opioid

A

composed of 2 peptides each containing 5 amino acids

127
Q

what is placebo analgesia

A

the reduction of pain, when an inert treatment (the placebo) is administered to a subject who is told that it is a painkiller

128
Q

what is an example of an opioid receptor blocker

A

naloxone

129
Q

disease that affect what part of the brain are more likely to manifest with prominent personality changes

A

frontal lobe or subcortical structures

130
Q

explicit or declarative memory is the knowledge of ___

A

facts

131
Q

implicit or nondeclarative memory is the knowledge of __

A

how to perform an act (unconscious recall, procedural, working memory)

Behavioral Science (7 decks)

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