BLOCK 13 Flashcards

1
Q

what type of drug is Paclitaxal?

A

a microtubule stabilisation agent (antineoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is paclitaxals moa?

A

binds to the beta subunit of tubulin causing hyperstabilization of the microtubule which prevents the cell from undergoing disassembly. This adversely affects cell function
also binds to Bcl-2 inducing apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of drug is cisplatin?

A

an anti neoplastic alkylating agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is cisplatins moa?

A

either attachment of alkyl groups to DNA bases, crosslinking DNA or inducing the nucleotide mispairing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of drug is isoniazid?

A

a bactericicdal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is isoniazid target?

A

mycobacterium (specifically M. tuberculosis, M. bovis and M. kansasii)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is isoniazids moa?

A

once activated it inhibits the synthesis of mycoloic acids, an essential component of the bacterial cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what type of drug is ethambutol?

A

a bactericidl agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is ethambutol effective against?

A

actively growing mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is ethambutols moa?

A

inhibits arabinosyl transferases which inhibits bacterial cell wall production, increasing cell wall permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is pyrazinamide used to treat?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis (only active at slightly acid pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is pyrazinamides moa?

A

interfering with fatty acid synthases, disrupting the membrane potential and energy production or binding to the ribosomal protein S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what type of drug is salbutamol?

A

a beta 2 adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are salbutamols 2 isomers?

A

the R-isomer is levalbuterol and this is responsible for bronchodilation
the S-isomer increases bronchial reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is salbutamols moa?

A

stimulates beta 2 adrenoreceptors leading to adenyl cyclase activation, increasig cAMP concentration and activating protein kinase A. This lowers intracellular Ca2+ concentrations causing smooth muscle relaxation
(it also inhibits the release of bronchoconstricting agents from mast cells_

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what type of drug is salmeterol?

A

a beta 2 adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is salmeterols moa?

A

it binds to exosites near beta 2 adrenoreceptors in the lungs and bronchiolar smooth muscle which allows the active portion of the molecules to remain at the receptor site, continually binding and releasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is salmeterol used for?

A

prevention - when used regularly it decreases the number and severity of asthma attacks but it cannot relieve an attack that has alreasy started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

whats the difference in duration of action between salmeterol and salbutamol?

A

salmeterol lasts 12 hours whilst salbutamol lasts 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

whats the difference between salmeterol and formoterol?

A

formoterol has a faster onset of action and is more potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of drug is budesonide?

A

an anti-inflammatory corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

why does budesonide need to be formulated as an extended release tablet?

A

because it undergoes significant first pass elimination so this delays its release until exposure to the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of drug is montelukast?

A

a leukotriene receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is montelukast used for?

A

as an alternative to anti-inflammatory medications in the management of asthma and exercise induced bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is montelukasts moa?

A

it selectively antagonizes leukotriene D4 at CysLT1 receptors, preventing airway oedema, smooth muscle contraction and enhanced secretion of thick, viscous mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what type of drug is ipratropium?

A

an anticholinergic agent

27
Q

what is ipratropium used for?

A

as a bronchodilator in the management of cholinergic-mediated bronchospasm (associated with COPD)

28
Q

what is ipratropiums moa?

A

it non-seletively inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors, resulting in a decrease in cGMP concentration. This causes a decrease in smooth muscle contraction

29
Q

what type of drug is verapamil?

A

a class 4 anti-arrhythmia agent

30
Q

what is verapamil moa?

A

in the heart it blocks L-type calcium chanells causing a reduction in ionotropy and chronotropy, reducing hR and BP

31
Q

what type of drug is diltiazem?

A

a Ca2+ channel inhibitor

32
Q

what is diltiazem used to treat?

A

hypertension, chronic stable angina pectoris and prinzmetals variant agina

33
Q

what is diltiazem moa?

A

it inhibits the influx of extracellular calcium across the myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cell membranes

34
Q

what type of drug is atenolol?

A

a beta 1 selective antagonist

35
Q

whats likely to be used instead of atenolol?

A

bisoprolol

36
Q

what type of drug is atropine?

A

an antimuscarinic (M2) agent

37
Q

what are the indications for atropine?

A

bradycardia

38
Q

what type of drug is glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)?

A

a vasodilator

39
Q

what is GTN given for?

A

angina pectoris or perioperative hypertension to produce controlled hypotension

40
Q

what is glyceryl trinitrates moa?

A

its converted to nitric oxide which activates guanylate cyclase, stimulating the synthesis of cGMP which activates protein kinase G leading to dephosphorylation of myosin light chain causing decreased intracellular Ca2+ = smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

41
Q

what type of drug is amiodarone?

A
a vaughan williams class 3 antiarrhythmic agent
K+ channel blocker
42
Q

what is amiodarones moa?

A

prolonging the myocardial cell action proteintial by blocking K+ channels duration
or acting as a non-copeitiive alpha and beta adrenergic inhibitor

43
Q

what type of drug is adenosine?

A

an endogenous nucleoside

44
Q

what is adenosins moa?

A

actvating A1 and A2 adenosine receptors which causes inhibition of the slow inward calcium current and activation of adenylate cyclase in smooth muscle cells = relaxation

45
Q

what is adenosine given for?

A

Rapid reversion to sinus rhythm of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias

46
Q

what type of drug is lidocaine?

A

an anaesthetic agent class 1b

47
Q

what is lidocaines moa?

A

blocks voltage sensitive Na+ channels during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, slowing and depressing impulse conduction

48
Q

what is lidocaine used to treat?

A

ventricular tachycarrhythmias assocated with MI

49
Q

what class of drug is lidocaine?

A

a class 1 b sodium channel blocker/ anaesthetic agent

50
Q

what is lidocaine moa?

A

blocks voltage sensitive Na+ channels during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, thus slowing and depressing impulse conduction.

51
Q

what is lidocaine used to treat

A

ventricular tachyarrythmias

52
Q

what class of drug is quinidine?

A

class 1a antiarrthmic

53
Q

what class of drug is procainamide?

A

class 1a anti arrhythmic

54
Q

what class of drug is phenytoin (vaughan williams)?

A

class 1b antiarrythmic

55
Q

what class of drug is flecainide (vaughan williams)?

A

class 1c antiarrythmic

56
Q

what class of drug is propafenone (vaughan williams)?

A

class 1 c antiarrhytmic

57
Q

what class of drug is verapamil (vaughan williams)?

A

class 4 antiarrythmic

58
Q

what class of drug is sotalol (vaughan williams)?

A

class 3 antiarrythic

59
Q

what class of drug is metoprolol (vaughan williams)?

A

class 2 antiarrythnic

60
Q

what do class 1 antiarrythnics do?

A

block Na+ channels

61
Q

what do class 2 antiarrythmics do?

A

block beta 1 receptors

62
Q

what do class 3 antiarrythmics do?

A

block K+ channels

63
Q

what do class 4 antiarrythmics do?

A

block Ca2+ channels