Bishop Chapter 30 Therapeutic Drug Monitoring Flashcards

1
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

A

Monitoring the circulating drug concentrations in serum, plasma, and whole blood specimens.

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2
Q

What are the main purposes for TDM?

A

(1) To ensure drug dosage is within a range that produces maximal therapeutic benefit.
(2) Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range, leading to drug inefficacy or toxicity.

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3
Q

Define standard dose.

A

The dose providing therapeutic benefits as statistically derived from observations in a healthy population.

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4
Q

The basis of TDM includes consideration of what?

A

The route of administration, rate of absorption, distribution of drug within the body, and rate of elimination.

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5
Q

Which route of administration offers the most direct and effective delivery to sites of action?

A

Intravenous (IV)

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6
Q

Define bioavailability.

A

The fraction of the administered dose that eventually reaches its site of action.

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7
Q

___ administration is the most common route of delivery as it is the least invasive for patients.

A

Oral

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8
Q

For orally administered drugs, the efficiency of absorption from the GI tract is dependent on what factors?

A

(1) Dissociation from its administered form
(2) Solubility in GI fluids
(3) Diffusion across GI membranes

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9
Q

Drugs are most commonly absorbed by which type of diffusion?

A

Passive diffusion

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10
Q

The volume of distribution index is used to describe what?

A

The distribution characteristics of a drug. Vol (L) = Dose (mg or g) / Concentration (mg/L or g/L).

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11
Q

What is first-pass metabolism?

A

The first pass effect is a phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug, specifically when administered orally, is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.

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12
Q

What is pharmacogenomics?

A

The study of variations in drug metabolism related to a patient’s genetics.

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13
Q

Most drugs are xenobiotics; what does that mean?

A

Exogenous substances that are capable of entering biochemical pathways intended for endogenous substances.

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14
Q

What is the basic function of the haptic mixed-function oxidase (MFO) system?

A

This system involves taking hydrophobic substances and, through a series of enzymatic reactions, converting them into water-soluble products. These products can then either be transported into the bile or released into general circulation for elimination by renal filtration.

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15
Q

Describe Phase I of the MFO system.

A

Reactions produce reactive intermediates.

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16
Q

Describe Phase II of the MFO system.

A

Conjugate functional groups (i.e. glutathione, glycine, phosphate, and sulfate) to reactive sites on the intermediates resulting in water-soluble products.

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17
Q

What occurs within the MFO system when there is excess drug (i.e. an overdose)?

A

The MFO system becomes overwhelmed and cannot effectively metabolize it to a safe, water-soluble end product for elimination. The conjugating group can become depleted and an accumulation of phase I products occur.

May lead to toxic effects.

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18
Q

Induction of the MFO system typically results in ___ clearance and a corresponding ___ drug half-life.

A

Induction of the MFO system typically results in accelerated clearance and a corresponding shorter drug half-life.

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19
Q

How would the drug half-life be effected for a patient with decreased glomerular filtration rate?

A

Increased drug half-life and elevated plasma concentration.

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20
Q

Independent of the clearance mechanism, decreases in the plasma drug concentration most often occur as what type of process?

A

First-order process

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21
Q

First-order processes indicate what type of loss?

A

Exponential rate of loss.

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22
Q

The elimination rate constant describes what?

A

The fraction of drug eliminated per unit of time or the rate at which plasma concentrations will decline during the elimination phase.

Hence why the rate constant is negative (decreasing value).

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23
Q

What are the two ways drugs are eliminated?

A

Hepatic metabolism, renal filtration, or a combination of the two.

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24
Q

Define pharmacokinetics.

A

The activity of a drug in the body as influenced by absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

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25
Q

Define peak drug concentration.

A

The maximum blood drug concentration.

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26
Q

Define trough drug concentration.

A

The minimum blood drug concentration.

27
Q

Approximately how many doses are needed before steady-state oscillation is achieved?

A

5 to 7 doses.

28
Q

When are trough concentration samples drawn?

A

Right before next dose.

29
Q

When are peak concentration samples drawn?

A

1 hour after an orally administered dose.

30
Q

What tubes are generally unacceptable for TDM measurements?

A

EDTA, citrate, and oxalate.

31
Q

What is Digoxin?

A

A cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of congestive heart failure.

32
Q

How does Digoxin function?

A

It functions by inhibiting membrane Na, K-ATPase. This causes a decrease in intracellular potassium which results in increased intracellular calcium in cardiac myocytes, which improves cardiac contractility.

33
Q

Quinidine is used to treat what condition?

A

Used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias.

34
Q

Procainamide is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used to treat cardiac arrhythmias.

35
Q

Disopyramide is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Antiarrhythmic agent used in the treatment of cardiac abnormalities.

36
Q

Aminoglycosides is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

A group of chemically related antibiotics used to treat gram-negative bacterial infections that are resistant to other less-toxic antibiotics.

37
Q

What are the most common aminoglycosides used in a clinical setting?

A

Gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, and kanamycin.

38
Q

Teicoplanin is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Bactericidal antibiotic effective against both aerobic and anaerobic gram-positive bacilli as well as gram-positive cocci.

39
Q

Vancomycin is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic effective against gram-positive cocci and bacilli infections.

40
Q

Phenobarbital and Primidone is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

A slow-acting barbiturate that effectively controls several types of seizures.

41
Q

Primidone is rapidly absorbed in the GI tract and converted to what?

A

Its active form, phenobarbital.

42
Q

Phenytoin is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

A common therapeutic agent used in the treatment of seizure disorders.

Can also be used as a short-term prophylactic agent in brain injury to prevent loss of functional tissue.

43
Q

Valproic Acid is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used in the treatment of petit mal and absence seizures.

44
Q

Carbamazepine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

An effective treatment for various seizure disorders; however, because of its serious adverse effects, it is only used when patients do not respond well to other AEDs.

45
Q

Ethosuximide is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used for controlling petit mal seizures.

46
Q

Felbamate is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Primarily indicated for use in severe epilepsies such as children with mixed seizure disorder.

47
Q

Gabapentin is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Administered as a monotherapy or in conjunction with other AEDs for patients suffering from complex partial seizures with or without generalized seizures.

48
Q

Lamotrigine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used to treat patients with partial and generalized seizures.

49
Q

Levetiracetam is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used to treat patients with partial and generalized seizures.

50
Q

Oxcarbazepine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Indicated for treatment of partial seizures and secondarily in generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

51
Q

Tiagabine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used in the treatment of partial seizures.

52
Q

Topiramate is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used in the treatment of partial and generalized seizures.

53
Q

Zonisamide is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

An anticonvulsant used in adjunctive therapy for partial and generalized seizures.

54
Q

Lithium is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

A mood-altering drug primarily used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, recurrent depression, and aggressive or self-mutilating behavior. Can also be used for migraines and cluster headaches.

55
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants are used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used to treat depression, insomnia, extreme apathy, and loss of libido.

56
Q

What are some examples of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Imipramine, amitriptyline, and doxepin.

57
Q

Clozapine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

An antipsychotic used in the treatment of otherwise treatment-refractory schizophrenia.

58
Q

Olanzapine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Effectively treats schizophrenia, acute manic episodes, and the recurrence of bipolar disorders.

59
Q

Cyclosporine is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

To suppress of host-versus-graft rejection of heterotopic transplanted organs.

60
Q

Tacrolimus is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

An orally administered immunosuppressive drug that is 100 times more potent than cyclosporine.

61
Q

Sirolimus is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

An antifungal agent with immunosuppressive activity that is used to prevent graft rejection in patients receiving a kidney transplant.

62
Q

Mycophenolic Acid is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used commonly as a supplemental therapy with cyclosporine and tacrolimus in renal transplant patients.

63
Q

Methotrexate is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used as a antineoplastic which inhibits DNA synthesis in all cells. Cancer treatment.

64
Q

Theophylline is used to treat what condition(s)?

A

Used in the treatment of respiratory disorders, such as asthma and stable COPD.