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BOARD EXAM STUDY GUIDE > BIOMEDICINE - LINDA MORSE REVIEW GUIDE > Flashcards

BIOMEDICINE - LINDA MORSE REVIEW GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

Vitamin A: Retinol is found in what foods

A

Fruits, vegetables, dairy products liver

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2
Q

Vitamin A: Retinol pathologies

A

Night blindness (too much can be toxic to the liver)

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3
Q

Vitamin B1: Thiamin is found in what foods

A

Whole grains, legumes, liver yeast

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4
Q

Vitamin B1: Thiamin pathologies

A

*Beriberi, loss of appetite, fatigue

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5
Q

Vitamin B2: Riboflavin is found in what foods

A

Eggs, leafy greens, dairy products, organ meets

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6
Q

Vitamin B2: Riboflavin pathologies

A

Mouth sores, angular stomatitis, dry mouth

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7
Q

Vitamin B3: Niacin is found in what foods

A

Fowl, liver, yeast, meat

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8
Q

Vitamin B3: Niacin pathologies

A

*Pellagra, skin disorders, mental disorders

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9
Q

Vitamin B5: Pantothenic Acid foods

A

Eggs, liver, yeast

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10
Q

Vitamin B5: Pantothenic pathologies

A

Adrenal problems

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11
Q

Vitamin B6: Pyroxidine foods

A

Liver, dairy products, whole grains

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12
Q

Vitamin B6: Pyroxidine pathologies

A

Anemia and seizures, slow growth, skin problems

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13
Q

Vitamin B9: Folic Acid foods

A

Vegetables, eggs, liver, whole grains

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14
Q

Vitamin B9: Folic Acid pathologies

A

Anemia

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15
Q

Vitamin B12: Cobalamin foods

A

Liver, meat, dairy products, eggs

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16
Q

Vitamin B12: Cobalamin pathologies

A

*Pernicious anemia, severe alcoholics, vegetarians

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17
Q

Vitamin C: Ascorbic Acid foods

A

Citrus, fruits, tomatoes, potatoes

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18
Q

Vitamin C: Ascorbic Acid pathologies

A

Scurvy, easy bruising, slow healing

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19
Q

Vitamin D: Calciferol foods

A

Fortified milk, fish oils, sunshine

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20
Q

Vitamin D: Calciferol pathologies

A

*Rickets, *osteomalacia

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21
Q

Vitamin E: Tocopherols foods

A

Whole grains, dairy products, meats

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22
Q

Vitamin E: Tocopherols pathologies

A

*Hemolytic anemia in children

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23
Q

Vitamin K: Menadione foods

A

Liver, intestinal bacteria, dark green vegetables

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24
Q

Vitamin K: Menadione pathologies

A

Blood clotting

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25
Q

Vitamin H: Biotin foods

A

Liver, yeast, bacteria in gut

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26
Q

Vitamin H: Biotin pathologies

A

Skin problems, loss of hair

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27
Q

Iron foods

A

Eggs, fish, liver, meat, poultry, green leafy vegetables, whole grains

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28
Q

Iron pathologies

A

Poor immunity, poor concentration, anemai, fatigue, itching, pica

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29
Q

Flouride foods

A

Water supply

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30
Q

Flouride pathologies

A

Easy tooth decay

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31
Q

Iodine foods

A

Dairy products, seafood, saltwater fish, kelp

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32
Q

Iodine patholoiges

A

Simple goiter, cretinism

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33
Q

What is the Citric Acid Cycle aka the Krebs Cycle?

A

A series of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions, which are of primary importance to all living cells that use oxygen as a part of cellular respiration. Depends on the following vitamins: B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B9, B12, Biotin

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34
Q

Liver location

A

Upper border: 5th or 6th intercostal space

Lower border: 10th or 11th rib or under the xiphoid process

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35
Q

Kidney location

A

Right: T12-L3
Left: T11 to L2

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36
Q

Which kidney is higher?

A

The LEFT kidney

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37
Q

Heart location

A

Apex: 5th intercostal space
Mitral valve: between the left atrium and ventricle
Tricuspid valve: on the right

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38
Q

Lung location

A

Front: 6th intercostal space
Axillary: 8th intercostal space
Back: 10th intercostal space

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39
Q

Spleen location

A

LEFT SIDE OF THE BODY

From the 9th to the 11th rib

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40
Q

Scapula location

A

Level with T3 through T7

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41
Q

Spinal cord location

A

Level with T3 through T7

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42
Q

Inguinal groove landmarks

A

Nerve, artery, and vein (NAV) - lateral to medial

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43
Q

Eustachain Tube location

A

Opening between the pharynx and middle ear

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44
Q

The small intestine includes which three organs

A

Duodenum, jejenum, ileum

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45
Q

The cerebrum is in charge of

A

Cognitive motor control: memory, sensory awareness, speech, taste, vision

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46
Q

The cerebellum is in charge of

A

Coordination and integration of motor skills and balance: motor learning, motor control, voluntary movements

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47
Q

The thalamus is in charge of

A

Information processing back to the cerebellum, regulates motor function, governs sleep and awake states

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48
Q

The hypothalamus is in charge of

A

Emotions, blood pressure, thirst, heart rate, sleep cycles, regulation of body temperature, water balance

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49
Q

The brain stem is in charge of

A

Respiration and heart rates, peripheral blood flow

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50
Q

What establishes respiratory rhythm?

A

Brain stem and pons

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51
Q

What do neurons do?

A

Conduct impulses and wires the nervous system’s information circuits

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52
Q

What is the soma?

A

The cell body of the neuron that contains the nucleus, cytoplasm, and organelles

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53
Q

What are dendrites?

A

The branches of the nerve cell body that receive stimuli that initiate nerve signals

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54
Q

What is the axon?

A

The part of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body

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55
Q

What are the three neurotransmitters?

A

Substance P
Enkephalins
Endorphins

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56
Q

What is substance P?

A

A neurotransmitter and peptide that transmits pain

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57
Q

What are enkephalins?

A

A neurotransmitter that acts like opiates to block pain

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58
Q

What are endorphins?

A

A neurotransmitter that acts like opiates to block pain

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59
Q

What are the two parts of the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord (can’t regenerate)

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60
Q

What are the two parts of the PNS?

A

Autonomic and voluntary

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61
Q

What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic

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62
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system regulates

A

Eating, relaxing, urination

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63
Q

The sympathetic nervous system does what?

A

Stimulates adrenal glands to secrete epinephrine, adrenaline, and inhibit intestinal contractions, tachycardia, fight or flight

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64
Q

What are the two parts of the voluntary nervous system

A

Cranial and spinal nerves

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65
Q

C6 anatomical level

A

Beginning of the esophagus and trachea

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66
Q

C7 anatomical level

A

Highest point of the thoracic duct (lymph drainage)

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67
Q

T1 anatomical level

A

Apex of lungs

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68
Q

T4 anatomical level

A

Arch of the aorta

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69
Q

T7 anatomical level

A

Inferior angle of the scapula

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70
Q

T9 anatomical level

A

Xiphoid, sternal costal angle

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71
Q

T10 anatomical level

A

Esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm

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72
Q

L2 anatomical level

A

End of the spinal cord, testicular or ovarian artery

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73
Q

L3 anatomical level

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

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74
Q

L4 anatomical level

A

Iliac crest, umbilicus

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75
Q

Olfactory cranial nerve

A

Sensnory: smell

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76
Q

Optic cranial nerve

A

Sensory: vision

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77
Q

Oculomotor cranial nerve

A

Motor: eye movement (4 directions)

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78
Q

Trochlear cranial nerve

A

Motor: eye movement

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79
Q

Trigeminal cranial nerve

A

Motor and sensory: face and scalp sensation/pain, chewing

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80
Q

Abducens cranial nerve

A

Motor: eye movement, abducts the eye

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81
Q

Facial cranial nerve

A

Motor and sensory: facial expressions, saliva, tear excretion, taste, bell’s palsy

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82
Q

Vestibulocochlear cranial nerve

A

Sensory: balance, equilibrium, hearing

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83
Q

Glossopharyngeal cranial nerve

A

Sensory and motor: swallowing, taste, ear pain, temperature

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84
Q

Vagus cranial nerve

A

Sensory and motor: controls muscles for voice and swallowing, taste from the epiglottis, sensation and motor control of the thoracic and abdominal viscera

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85
Q

Accessory cranial nerve

A

Motor: movements of shoulder, head, and viscera

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86
Q

Hypoglossal cranial nerve

A

Motor: tongue movement swallowing

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87
Q

Alzheimer’s

A

The most common cause of demential, brain cells degenerate reducing responsiveness
Sx: begins slowly and worsens over time, personality changes, poor memory, forgetfulness, inability to recognize people, places, objects, difficulty with abstract thinking
Tx: cholingergic enhancers, tricyclic antidepressent, provigil, NSAID’s, gingko biloba

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88
Q

Parkinson’s

A

A progressively slow degenerative disorder of the CNS nerve tissue and neurotransmitter production.
Sx: tremors at rest, sluggish initiation of movements, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, *shuffling gait, loss of postural reflexes, mask like face, staring, *damages both sides of the body
Tx: levodopa (dopamin precursor), anticholinergics

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89
Q

Stroke (Cerebral Vascular Attack) - CVA

A

Permanent damage to brain tissue due to ischemia (lack of blood/oxygen leading to death of tissue) in excess of four minutes. Can be caused by an aneurism, trauma, or vascular malformation by a blood clot (thrombus or embolus). The most common vessel involved is the *middle cerebral artery, *forehead does wrinkle
Sx: ipsilateral facial paralysis, contralateral hemiparesis, loss of extensor control, visual blurring, pupil asymmetry, difficulty speaking, aphasia, dizziness, sudden headache, possible loss of consciousness
Tx: keep blood pressure low, aspirin

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90
Q

TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack)

A

A temporary deficiency in the brain’s blood supply due to embolus, thrombus, or arterial stenosis. Most commonly affected: internal carotid, middle cerebral, or vertebrobasilar arteries.
Sx: ipsilateral blindness or contralateral hemiparesis, dizziness, double vision, general weakness, loss of sensation, weakness, slurred speech, unusual movements, imbalance, falling. Symptoms are *temporary and *reversible.
Tx: antiplatelets, anticoagulants, arterial bypass

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91
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Disorder of the CNV along one or more sensory divisions, especially the maxillary.
Sx: Successive, excruciating pain lasting seconds - 2 minutes, aggravated by touch and activity

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92
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Unilateral facial motor weakness/paralysis due to acquired dysfunction of CN VII
Sx: *Unilateral facial *motor weakness/paralysis, inability to close affected eye, increased salivation and lacrimation, altered taste, *forehead does not wrinkle
Tx: corticosteroids during acute stage

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93
Q

Atonic Seizures

A

A seizure where the person suddenly loses strength and drops to the ground. The eyelids may droop, the head may nod and the person may drop things as he falls to the ground. They are also called “drop attacks” or “akinetic”. This sometimes starts in childhood and often leads to adulthood. Some people wear protective helmets. EEG monitoring may be performed to confirm this and if the seizures persist other tests may be used to make sure that changes in the heart rhythm or blood pressure are not causing the patient to fall down.

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94
Q

Tonic Clonic Seizures (Grand Mal Seizures)

A

Associated with epilepsy. They are divided into two phases, *tonic and *clonic. Before the seizures begin a person may feel a sense of deja vu, light headedness or dizziness, weird emotions, intense feelings like something is wrong (a simple partial seizure).

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95
Q

Tonic Clonic Seizures - tonic phase

A

The person quickly loses consciousness and the skeletal muscles will suddenly tense. This is a very quick part of the seizure lasting only a few seconds. The person may also express vocalizations like a loud moan during the tonic stage due to air forcefully expelling from thelungs.

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96
Q

Tonic Clonic Seizures - clonic phase

A

The muscles start to contract and relax quickly, causing convulsions, varying from twitches to violent shaking. Person may roll and stretch, eyes roll back or close and the tongue could sustain bruising by the strong jaw contractions, possible incontinence The person has confusion and complete amnesia upon regaining consciousness which wears off.

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97
Q

First aid to those with seizures

A

Seek medical attention immediately. No attempt to restrain the person should be made. Place something soft under their head and ensure their limbs and body don’t bump into walls or other objects. If the person vomits, turn the head to the side. Nothing should be placed in the mouth because they can bite their tongue or choke. The frenulum linguae prevents them from swallowing their tongue. Usually it is not necessary to call an ambulance, unless the person is not known to have epilepsy, the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes, or another seizure occurs before regaining consciousness, suffer self injury, or stop breathing during/after the seizure.

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98
Q

Glaucoma

A

Increased intraocular pressure resulting in atrophy of the retina and optic nerve. Possible blindness.

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99
Q

Cataracts

A

Cloudiness of the lenses which causes decreased vision. Etiology unknown, maybe age related.

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100
Q

Detached retina

A

Usually happens due to trauma of the head, distorted vision, flashes of light or vision loss. Get medical attention as soon as possible, this could require surgical reattachment.

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101
Q

Meniere’s syndrome

A

Vertigo, hearing loss, nausea, tinnitus, leading to progressive deafness. Caused by rapid violent firing of the fibers of the auditory nerves

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102
Q

Stage one of Decubitus ulcers

A

Characterized by a surface reddening of the skin. The skin is unbroken and the wound is superficial. Lke a sunburn. Treatment consists of turning or alleviating pressure in some form of avoiding more exposure to the cause of injury.

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103
Q

Stage two of Decubitus ulcers

A

The blister is either broken or unbroken. A partial layer of skin is now injured. You must cover, protect and clearn the area.

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104
Q

Stage three of Decubitus ulcers

A

The wound extends through layers of the skin. It is a primary site for a serious infection to occur. Treat the same as stage two. Medical care is necessary to promote healing and prevent infection.

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105
Q

Stage four of Decubitus ulcers

A

Extends through the skin and involves underlying muscle, tendons, and bone. The diameter is not so important as the depth. This is very serious and may be life threatening. Must have medical care. Surgical removal of the necrotic or decayed tissue is often used in wounds of large diameter.

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106
Q

What hormones does the Anterior Pituitary secrete?

A 
Growth Hormone GH
Prolactin PRL
Adrenocorticotropic ACH
Thyroid Stimulating TSH
Melanocyte Stimulation MSH
Follicle Stimulation FSH
Leutinizing Hormone LH
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107
Q

Growth Hormone GH

A

Growth of body cells: hypo = dwarfism, hyper = gigantism/acromegaly

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108
Q

Prolactin PRL

A

Initiates and maintains milk secretion of mammary glands

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109
Q

Adrenocorticotropic ACH

A

Stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete hormones

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110
Q

Thyroid Stimulating TSH

A

Controls secretion of hormones by the thyroid. Most sensitive test for hypothyroidism

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111
Q

Melanocyte Stimulation MSH

A

Stimulates dispersion of melanin for skin color

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112
Q

Follicle Stimulation FSH

A

Women: initiate development of ova, induce secretion of estrogen by ovaries
Men: stimulates the testes to produce sperm

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113
Q

Leutinizing Hormone LH

A

Women: with estrogen, triggers ovulation and formation of corpus leutium (progesterone)
Men: stimulates interstitial cells in testes to produce testosterone

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114
Q

What are the hormones the posterior pituitary gland secretes?

A

Oxytocin

Antidiuretic hormone

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115
Q

Oxytocin

A

Stimulates uterine contraction during labor, aids the mammary in milk ejection

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116
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

Decreases urine volume, raises blood pressure by constricting vessels

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117
Q

What hormone does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

Releasing and Inhibiting hormones

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118
Q

What do releasing and inhibiting hormones do?

A

Regulates emotions (the releasing and inhibition of special hormones)

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119
Q

What hormones does the thyroid secrete?

A

T3 and T4

Calcitonin

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120
Q

What does T3 and T4 do?

A

Regulates metabolism, growth and development, and the activity of the nervous system

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121
Q

Calcitonin

A

Lowers blood levels of calcium, increases calcium from storage in bones

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122
Q

What are the hormones the Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans) secrete?

A

Glucagon
Insulin
GH inhibiting factor

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123
Q

Glucagon

A

Raises blood glucose - conversion of glycogen into glucose

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124
Q

Insulin

A

Lowers blood glucose - transports into cells, converts glucose to glycogen

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125
Q

GH inhibiting Factor

A

Inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon

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126
Q

What are the hormones secreted by the Adrenal Cortex?

A

Aldosterone
Cortisol
Androgens and Estrogens

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127
Q

Aldosterone

A

Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium ions

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128
Q

Cortisol

A

Increases blood glucose levels and participates in carbohydrate metabolism

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129
Q

What are the hormones secreted by the Adrenal Medulla?

A

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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130
Q

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

A

Increases the heart, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels, great to counteract stress

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131
Q

What is the hormone secreted by the testes?

A

Testosterone

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132
Q

Testosterone

A

Regulates the male sex hormones, increases the rate of cellular metabolism and production of red blood cells

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133
Q

What are the hormones secreted by the ovaries?

A

Estrogen and Progesterone

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134
Q

Estrogen

A

Produce the female sex cells and sex hormones. Stimulates the enlargement of accessory organs, external structures, and is responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics and the menstrual cycle.

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135
Q

Progesterone

A

Helps the uterus prepare for pregnancy. Stimulates the development of mammary glands, menstrual cycle

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136
Q

What hormone does the Pineal gland secrete?

A

Melatonin

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137
Q

Meltaonin

A

A substance formed by the pineal gland that seems to depress gonadal functions and inhibited reproductive functions, involved in circadian rhythms

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138
Q

What hormone does they Thymus secrete?

A

Thymosin

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139
Q

Thymosin

A

A group of peptides secreted by the thymus gland that increases production of certain types of white blood cells.

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140
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

Endocrine disease: hyper-secretion of glucocorticoids, redistribution of body fats, “moon face”, swollen face, red cheeks, buffalo hump, thin reddened skin

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141
Q

Addison’s disease

A

Endocrine disease: Hypo-secretion of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids, decrease in blood sodium levels, drop in blood glucose and increase in potassium levels and dehydration with weight loss, hyperpigementation

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142
Q

Grave’s disease

A

Hyperthyroidism disease of the endocrine system: Toxic diffuse goiter, exophthalmos, raised skin over the shins, functions are all sped up, inherited or possible autoimmunity, increased perspiration and nervousness

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143
Q

Hashimoto’s disease

A

Hypothyroidism disease of the endocrine system: Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone, enlarged thyroid (goiter), affects ages 30-50 years, functions are slowed down, more common in femals. autoimmune disorder

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144
Q

Simple goiter

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Deficiency of thyroid hormones due to iodine deficiency

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145
Q

Diabetes Mellitus

A

Type 1: juvenile onset, insulin dependent (IDDM), rare

Type 2: adult onset, overweight, hereditary, non-insulin dependent (NIDDM), common

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146
Q

Gestational Diabetes

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Carbohydrate intolerance during pregnancy, resolve after delivery

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147
Q

Diabetes Insipidus

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Chronic excretion of very large amounts of pale urine of low specific gravity which causes dehydration and extreme thirst. Usually results from in adequate output of pituitary anti-diuretic hormone

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148
Q

Cretinism

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Due to underactive thyroid gland during infancy and chidlhoood

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149
Q

Dwarfism

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Due to underactive growth hormone during childhood

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150
Q

Gigantism

A

Disease of the endocrine system: due to overactive growth hormone, usually with tumor of pituitary, during childhood

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151
Q

Acromegaly

A

Disease of the endocrine system: Oversecretion of growht hormone during adulthood

152
Q

Syndrome X

A

Disease of the endocrine system: A collection of metabolic abnormalities that puts patients at a great risk of stroke and coronary artery disease. The syndrome is characterized by elevated levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, obesity and insulin resistance. AKA: HBP, high blood sugar, too much fat around the waist

153
Q

Vitiligo

A

Disease of the endocrine system/melanin: Depigmented macules appear on the face, hands, feet, other regions

154
Q

Cafe au lait spot

A

Disease of the endocrine system/melanin: Slight uniformly pigmented macule/patch with irregular border. 0.5-1.5 cm

155
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Cause: toxic chemicals, radiation
Defect: damages bone marrow

156
Q

Hemolytic Anemia

A

Cause: toxic chemicals
Defect: red blood cells destroyed

157
Q

Iron deficiency Anemia

A

Cause: dietary lack of iron
Defect: hemoglobin deficient

158
Q

Pernicious Anemia

A

Cause: inability to absorb vitamin B12
Defect: excess of immature cells, lack of intrinsic factor essential for the reabsorption of cyanocobalamin

159
Q

Sickle Cell Disease

A

Cause: defective gene
Defect: red blood cells abnormally shaped

160
Q

Thalassemia

A

Cause: defective gene
Defect: hemoglobin deficient; red blood cells short lived

161
Q

Microcytic Anemia

A

A generic term for any type of anemia characterized by SMALL red blood cells. The red blood cells are usually HYPOCHROMIC (pale). Causes in children are from iron deficiency and Thalassemia. For adults iron deficiency and sideroblastic anemia, lead poisoning.

162
Q

Macrocytic Anemia

A

When blood with an insufficient concentration of hemoglobin in which the red blood cells are LARGER than their normal volume with an insufficient number of cells. Types of MACROCYTIC anemia include MEGALOBLASTIC anemia usually associated with chronic alcoholism or poisons like antiviral drugs or chemotherapeutic agents. .

163
Q

What is the first line of defense in the immune system?

A

The skin and mucous membranes

164
Q

What is the second line of defense in the immune system?

A

Inflammation

165
Q

The is the third and last line of defense for the immune system?

A

Immune response

166
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Primary cell for immune response

Originates in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow of the fetus

167
Q

T-Lymphocytes

A

Migrate through the thmus gland to become T-lymphocytes. These cells leave the marrow at an early age and travel to the thymus and mature. Here they are imprinted with critical information for recognizing self and non self substances

168
Q

B-Lymphocytes

A

Mature in bone marrow

169
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Filter lymph and phagocytes (eat foreign particles) from harmful bacteria and microorganisms

170
Q

Components of blood

A

45% blood, 55% plasma

171
Q

Platelets

A

Important in coagulation

172
Q

Erythrycoytes

A

Transport of respiraotyr gases - depend on hemoglobin. Low levels in hodkin’s, MM, leukoemia

173
Q

Luekocytes

A

Most important cellular components in the body’s defenses

174
Q

What are the three types of Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

175
Q

Neutrophils

A

60-70%, cellular defense phagocytes of small pathogenic microorganisms. BACTERIAL INFECTIONS, inflammation and stress responses

176
Q

Eosinophils

A

2-4%, lining of respiratory and digestive tract, PARASITES AND ALLERGENS

177
Q

Basophils

A

0.5-1%, contains HISTAMINE (antiinflammatory) and HEPARIN (anticoagulant)

178
Q

What are the three types of agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages

179
Q

Lymphocytes

A

20-25% of agranulocytes. Smallest. They DIRECTLY ATTACK INFECTED OR CANCEROUS CELLS. For viral infections.

180
Q

Monocytes

A

3-8% of agranulocytes. Largest, phagocytosis of large bacterial organisms. For chronic VIRAL INFECTIONS.

181
Q

Macrophages

A

“Large eaters”. They are large and long lived. They capture foreign cells, digest and present protein fragments from the cells They present the antigen to T cells.

182
Q

IgM antibodies - immunoglobulin

A

Synthesized by immature Beta cells, produced after initial contact with antigen. Does not cross the placenta.

183
Q

IgG antibodies - immunoglobulin

A

Most abundant, makes up 75% of antibodies in the blood. DOES cross the placenta.

184
Q

IgA antibodies - immunoglobulin

A

Present in mucus membranes, saliva, tears, colostrums. Does not cross the placenta

185
Q

IgE antibodies - immunoglobulin

A

Associated with allergies

186
Q

IgD antibodies - immunoglobulin

A

Unknown

187
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity reactions. IgE

A

IgE antibody reaction occurs within 15 to 30 minutes of exposure tough sometimes 10-12 hours after exposure. Anaphylaxis is the most severe type of hypersensitivity. Reactions in this group are allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, allergic asthma, food allergies.

188
Q

Type 2 Hypersensitivity reactions. IgG and IgM

A

IgG and IgM mediate cytotoxic reactions activate in the complement cascade. Symptoms emerge within a few minutes to several hours after the antibody-antigen binding. Hemolytic anemia, blood transfusions,and drug allergies.

189
Q

Type 3 Hypersensitivity reactions IgG and IgM

A

IgG and IgM are immune complex reactions. The reaction is usually within 3-10 hours after the immune complex forms. SLE, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis, vasculitis and RA.

190
Q

Type 4 Hypersensitivity reactions T-cell lymphocytes

A

Mostly T-cells, also called delayed type hypersensitivity reactions which usually take days or weeks to manifest. Rashes like poison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac, bacteria or fungi.

191
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Disease of the Immune System: A chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease causing weakness of the skeletal and voluntary muscles of the body. Lack of eyelid muscle movement is one of the first signs. The thymus gland is usually abnormal.

192
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

Disease of the Immune System: A disorder in which th nerves of the eye, brain, and spinal cord lose patches of myelin. There is numbness, motor, sensory, and visual problems including loss of balance, muscle spasms, sexual problems, trouble moving arms and legs, walking, coordination. Heat triggers symptoms, tremors, bowel and bladder problems.

193
Q

Lupus (SLE)

A

Disease of the Immune System: the most common autoimmune disease the damages the skin, joints, and organs. Symptoms are achey joints, welling of hands and feet, fever, extreme fatigue, skin lesions, butterfly shaped rash across the cheeks and nose, sensitivity to light, hair loss, abnormal blood clotting, Raynaud’s disease, weight loss or weight gain, anxiety, dry eyes.

194
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome

A

Disease of the Immune System: A systemic autoimmune disease in which the immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva. Can occur with RA, SLE, scleroderma, or primary biliary cirrhosis. Symptoms of dryness (eyes, skin, nose, vagina, organs).

195
Q

Scleroderma

A

Disease of the Immune System: An autoimmune disease of the connective tissue causing skin thickening, spontaneous scarring, blood vessel disease, and varying degrees of inflammation. Environment plays a very important role and may be genetically predisposed.Causes inflammation (redness, swelling, tenderness, itching, and pain) of the skin. Affects the fingers, feet, face, and neck.

196
Q

Histamine

A

Allergic reactions

197
Q

Bradykinin

A

Mediates inflammation

198
Q

Serotonin

A

Plays a role in infalmmation

199
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

Most common form of skin cancer, related to sun exposure, non metastasizing, malignant, grows slowly, located at the basal layer of the epidermis. People over 40, usually on the face

200
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

Malignant tumor of the outer epidermis, most likely to metastasize. People over 60 usually, fair skinned and sun exposed. Grows quickly.

201
Q

Malignant Melanoma

A

Malignant tumor of melanocytes, rapid progression, metastasizing form. Noticeable growth or color change, mostly fair skinned people. Variation in color, irregular perimeter and surface, asymmetrical, raised, bigger than 7mm.

202
Q

Herpes Zoster (shingles)

A

Infectious pathology: Severely painful skin eruptions of fluid filled blisters. Caused by the herpes virus, VARICELLA ZOSTER which causes chicken pox. It lays dormant in the DORSAL ROOT GANGLIA of the spinal cord. Symptoms include pain, tingling, and itching, malaise, small fluid filled blisters, unilateral on the trunk. Until scabbing occurs, blisters may transmit the virus causing chicken pox in other people. Stress brings it out.

203
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Infectious pathology: A viral inflammation of the retina of the eye caused by herpes. Symptoms include blind spots, blurred vision, decreased visual acuity, floaters and loss of peripheral vision. Harms those that have a weakened immune system.

204
Q

Genital Warts

A

Infectious pathology: caused by the human papilloma virus. Small, soft, moist, pink or red swelling, one or a group looking like cauliflower.

205
Q

Meningitis

A

Infectious pathology: Infection of the meninges (tissues around brain), recent onset of severe whole head headache and pain traveling down the neck. Other signs; Stiff neck, Kernig sign, vomiting, high fever, nuchal rigidity develops over hours or days.

206
Q

Encephalitis

A

Infectious pathology: An acute inflammation of the brain caused by bacteria such as meningitis spreading directly to the brain. Could also be caused by rabies or syphilis. Symptoms include fever, headache, and photophobia with weakness and seizures common.

207
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Infectious pathology: An inflammation of the conjunctiva, the membrane that lines the eyelid and circles around and covers most of the white of the eye. The eyes are red, swollen, itchy, with pus in the eye, the eyelids may stick together. Can be caused by allergies, makeup, viruses, bacteria, contact lens solution.

208
Q

Sty

A

Infectious pathology: A bacterial infection within an oil gland on the edge of the eyelid. It looks like a small pimple and will gradually come to a head, open and drain. Early treatment is beneficial. A stubborn case may need antibiotics.

209
Q

Malaria

A

Infectious pathology: An infection resulting from asexual erythrocytic or blood stage parasites (mosquito). The incubation period can be 7-30 days. Anti malarial drugs can be taken by travelers. Lasts 6-10 hours and sometimes goes unnoticed. Symptoms include fever, chills, sweats, headaches, nausea, vomiting, body aches, and general malaise.

210
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

Infectious pathology: An infection caused by single celled parasite called toxoplasma gondii. The infection is most commonly acquired from contact with cats and their feces or with raw or undercooked meat. Very dangerous in pregnant women. Typical flu like symptoms, swollen lymph nodes, muscle aches and pain that lasts from a few days to several weeks.

211
Q

Typhoid Fever

A

Bacteria pathology: A life threatening illness caused by bacterium Salmonella Typhii. Can occur from overseas food or beverage, in sewage, and water. Vaccination is available. Symptoms are high fever, weakness, stomach pains, headache, or loss of appetite, rashes.

212
Q

Cat Scratch Fever

A

Bacteria pathology: An infection caused by BARTONELLA BACTERIA that is transmitted by cat scratches or bites or exposure to cat saliva. Symptoms include fatigue, fever, headache, lymph node swelling, malaise, blisters or bumps at the site of the attack. Not a serious patholoyg.

213
Q

Listeriosis

A

Bacteria pathology: A bacterial infection which is relatively rare and more likely would be found in someone who had a compromised immune system or a pregnant woman. Caused by contaminated food products like raw meat, dairy products, vegetables, and seafood, soft cheese, and unpasteurized milk.

214
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A

Bacteria pathology: Found in soil, water, skin, and man made environments, including medical equipment, hot tubs. Symptoms include inflammation, sepsis, urinary difficulty, and fruity door. It is antibiotic resistant.

215
Q

Vibrio Vulnificus

A

Bacteria pathology: Found in marine and fresh water environments that contains seafood. Symptoms are diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain. May develop into septicemia.

216
Q

Contact Dermatitis

A

Skin disease: two types, allergic, and irritant. Plant allergens causing dermatitis include poison, ivy, oak, and sumac. Other allergens are hair sprays, rubber, citrus fruit and peels, fragrances, medications.

217
Q

Ringworm

A

Skin disease: A fungal skin infection commonly affecting the feet, groin, scalp, nails and trunk. Marked by a ring shaped, itchy, reddened, scaly, or blistery patches. Infection may be acquired from another person, an animal, soil, or inanimate objects like chair, shower stall, or carpeting.

218
Q

Scabies

A

Skin disease: Common skin infection that causes small itchy bumps or blisters due to tiny mites that burrow into the top layer of human skin to lay their eggs. Symptoms include severe itching worse at night or after a hot bath. Most commonly affect the hands and feet, inner part of the wrists, and folds under the arms.

219
Q

Impetigo

A

Skin disease: Caused by bacterial infections (streptococcla and stphylococcal). Shows up as a rash that may occur anywhere on the body and commonly affects the face, nose, and mouth. The rash starts as a red sore and quickly ruptures, oozes, and develops a yellowish-brown crus. Seldom serious. Minor infections sometimes clear in two or three weeks. A complication of impetigo is cellulitis.

220
Q

Cellulitis

A

Skin disease: A potentially serious infection affecting tissues underlying your skin and eventually could spread to your lymph nodes and into the blood stream. It could become life threatening and commonly comes from staph.

221
Q

Staphylococcus

A

Skin disease: A bacteria that lives harmlessly on the skin, until the skin is broken then entering the wound causing infection. The infection may enter the blood stream attacking the lungs, bones, heart, joints, blood, and central nervous system. May cause MRSA.

222
Q

Peptic ulcers

A

A well defined round, or oval sore that occurs where the lining of the stomach or duodenum has been eaten away by stomach acid and digestive juices

223
Q

Duodenal ulcer

A

Most common, occurs in the Duodenum. Major cause is helicobacter pylori bacteria. Rarely cancerous. 1/2 suffers from gnawing, burning, aching, soreness, empty feeling and hunger. Pain commonly wakes the person up at 1-2 am. Complications include bleeding due to perforation. *Worse with empty stomach, better with eating.

224
Q

Gastric ulcer

A

Less common, usually occurs along the upper curve of the stomach. Caused by drug use. Often cancerous. Symptoms include bloating, nausea, vomiting after eating due to swelling of tissues. Complications include bleeding due to perforation. *Worse with eating, better with empty stomach.

225
Q

Symptoms of upper GI bleeding

A

Black tarry and sticky stool (melena)

226
Q

Malabsoprtion of fats

A

Due to reduced bile flow.

Causes light/clay colored soft, bulky, foul smelling stool (steatorrhea)

227
Q

Giardia

A

Bacteria and intestinal parasite in the digestive tract: A single celled protozan that lives int he small intestine and sometimes in the gall bladder. Diarrhea is the most common symptom. Also light colored fatty stools, gas, abdominal cramps, lactose and meat intolerance, folic acid, fat soluble vitamin deficiencies may also occur. Comes from infected food or water containing cysts or through hand to mouth contact with infected articles like clothes or diapers.

228
Q

Shigella Bacteria/Bacillary dysentery

A

Bacteria and intestinal parasite in the digestive tract: Comes from flies that transfer bacteria from infected feces to food in areas where hygiene is poor. Food handlers pass it on. Symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea with mucus and blood, high fever, abdominal cramps, loss of appetite.

229
Q

Amebic dysentery

A

Bacteria and intestinal parasite in the digestive tract: only occurs in hot climates and spreads via contaminated water, raw food, contaminated soil. Symptoms include semifluid or fluid stools that contain blood, mucus, and active trophozoits, fever, constipation, diarrhea, flatulence, and cramping abdominal pain.

230
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Bacteria and intestinal parasite in the digestive tract: A bacterial infection of the colon that occurs primarily among individuals who have been using antibiotics. It is the most common infection acquired by patients while they are in the hospital. This bacterium is found in your colon normally but with the use of antibiotics it comes unbalanced and can over create toxins. Symptoms include diarrhea, cramping, flu like symptoms, weakness, dehydration, fever, nausea, vomiting, blood in stool or feces.

231
Q

What are the three types of roundworms

A

Hookworms, pinworms, trichinosis

232
Q

Hookworms

A

Parasites. Symptoms include itchy rash that may develop on the feet and last for several days, pica, pain in the stomach, low appetite, constipation. Can cause anemia, cough and pneumonia.

233
Q

Pinworms

A

Parasites. Itchy around the anus at night, sleep disturbances that arise from itching or crawling sensations.

234
Q

Trichinosis

A

Parasites. Usually acquired by eating undercooked pork or pork products. Mild infestation has no symptoms. Heavy infestation includes diarrhea and vomiting within 1-2 days of eating infested meat. A weak or so later the symptoms are fever, swelling around the eyelids, severe muscle pains.

235
Q

Tapeworms

A

Parasites. Typically acquired by eating undercooked fish or meat. Symptoms cause mild abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, constipation, weight loss, anemia.

236
Q

Acute Appendicitis

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: Inflammation of the appendix. Affects the Right Lower Quadrant. Pain begins near umbilicus and shifts to RLQ, coughing increases pain, rebound pain at McBurney’s point, pain worse with leg lift. Other symptoms include nausea and vomiting. Persistent low grade fever.

237
Q

IBS

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: Disorder of the motility of entire GI tract. Affects women more than men. GI tract is sensitive to many stimuli. Pain is bouts of continuous dull aches or cramps over the abdomen, ALTERNATING CONSTIPATION AND DIARRHEA WITH PAIN. Pain relieved by bowel movements. Other symptoms include bloating, gas, nausea, headaches, fatigue, depression, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, exacerbated by emotions. Affects the entire GI tract

238
Q

Crohns’ Disease

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: Chronic inflammation of the intestinal wall. Occurs in the Right Lower Quadrant. Pain is crampy abdominal pain. Other symptoms are CHRONIC DIARRHEA, loss of appetite, weight loss, diarrhea, vomiting, bleeding from the rectum. Affects the SI and LI or the entire GI tract. There is typically fever.

239
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: Chronic inflammation and ulceration of the LI (higher risk of colon cancer). Often begins gradually with mild cramps in the lower abdomen. May have abdominal pain and peritonitis. Inflammation is continuous throughout affected areas. Begins gradually with urgency to defecate, visible blood and mucus in the stool, joint pain, weight loss. May have SUDDEN AND SEVERE ATTACKS OF VIOLENT DIARRHEA. Affects the LI. There is HIGH FEVER.

240
Q

Diverticulosis

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: PRESENCE OF DIVERTICULA. DIVERTICULUM BULGES AT POINT OF WEAKNESS. Affects the Lower Left Quadrant. Possible episodes of lower abdominal pain. Other symptoms include BLEEDING, GAS, CONSTIPATION, Usually affects the *LI, sigmoid colon.

241
Q

Diverticulitis

A

Disorder of the bowels and intestines: Inflammation or infection of one or more of the diverticula. Affects the Lower Left Quadrant. Pain and tenderness. Other symptoms include bleeding and constipation. Usually occurs int he *LI, sigmoid colon. There is FEVER.

242
Q

Strain

A

An injury to a muscle or tendon. Physical force exerted so there is an injury.

243
Q

Sprain

A

Ligaments are sprained. Traumatic injury to the ligaments or around the joint. Characterized by pain, swelling and discoloration of the skin over the joint.

244
Q

Rickets

A

Vitamin D deficiency seen usually in babies and children characterized by abnormal bone formation. Symptoms include bowlegs, knock-knees, enlarged skull, muscle pain, chest deformities, spinal curvature, enlargement of LV and SP

245
Q

What are the three types of muscles?

A

Striated - Voluntary or skeletal, move bones, face and eyes
Sooth Muscle - move internal organs
Cardiac muscles - look striated but are like smooth muscles in action

246
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Compression of the median nerve, which innervates the palm and radial side of the hand. Numbness of the first three fingers. Phalen’s Test, Tinel sign.

247
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A

Compression of nerves or blood vessels because of an inadequate passageway through the thoracic outlet between the base of the neck and armpit. Symptoms include neck, shoulder, and arm pain, numbness or impaired circulation to the extremities, which extend to the fingers and hands causing weakness.

248
Q

Sciatic

A

Nerve root pain that is shooting and radiates down one or both legs, usually to below the knees, often with associated numbness and tingling and possibly local weakness. Bending, sneezing, coughing, or straining usually worsens the pain.

249
Q

Adson’s Test

A

Positive is thoracic outlet syndrome at the scalene triangle. The patient is examined standing. The examiner palpates the radial pulse while moving the upper extremity in abduction, extension, and external rotation. The patient then is asked to rotate her head toward the involved side while taking a deep breath and holding it. A positive exam will result in a diminished or absent radial pulse.

250
Q

Brudzinksi Sign

A

An indication usually present in meningitis. Passive flexion of the head on the chest induces flexion of the lower limbs. Or passive flexion of one lower limb induces flexion of the other limb.

251
Q

Kernig Test

A

If the test is positive, there is pain and resistance on attempting to extend the leg at the knee with the thigh flexed at the hip. This indicates meningitis which causes severe stiffness of the hamstrings.

252
Q

Yergason Test

A

A test for evaluation of biceps tendon injury to determine the stability of the biceps tendon in the bicipital groove. The elbow is flexed to 90 degrees and the patient is asked to resist while externally rotating the arm. The test is positive if this resistance produces pain in the biceps tendon.

253
Q

PronationSupination of FOrearm

A

Hold elbow at 90 degree angle for both tests.

254
Q

Finkelstein Test

A

Positive test indicates stenosing tenosynovitis (DeQuervain’s disease). Client makes a fist with thumb inside the fingers. Doctor holds the forearm and turns the wrist in the direction of the ulnar side.

255
Q

Phalen’s Test

A

Positive test indicates carpel tunnel syndrome. Hold the patient’s wrist in acute flexion 60 seconds or ask the patient to press the back of both hands together to form right angles. These maneuvers compress the median nerve. If numbness and tingling develop over the palmer surface of the thumb, index, and part of the ring finger the sign is positive.

256
Q

Tinel’s sign

A

Positive test indicates carpal tunnel syndrome. Tap the median nerve along its course in the wrist. A positive test is found when this causes worsening of the tingling in the fingers.

257
Q

Straight Leg Test

A

Straight leg test is for low back pain, osteoarthritis and sciatica. Raise one leg - knee absolutely straight until pain is experienced in the thigh, buttock, and calf.

258
Q

Braggard’s Test

A

This test is positive if it produces pain in the spine. Positive test indicates nerve root lesion, disk herniation or sciatica. Straighten the legs and passively dorsiflex the ankle by pushing up on the balls of the feet.

259
Q

Apley Compression Test

A

Pain can indicate an injury of either meniscus. The patient is placed prone on the exam table with the knee flexed to 90 degrees. Gently kneel on the back of the thigh to stabilize it while leaning hard on the heel to compress the medial and lateral menisci between the tibia and the femur. Then rotate the tibia internally and externally on the femur as you maintain firm compression. pain on the medial side suggests damaged medial meniscus, and pain on the lateral side suggests damaged lateral meniscus.

260
Q

McMurray Test

A

Used to determine a meniscal tear With the patient supine, grasp the knee, place one hand over the top of the knee with the thumb over one joint line and index and middle finger over the opposite joint line. Begin with knee in full flexion and then medially and laterally rotate the tibia while paying attention for an audible click. Then laterally rotate the tibia and extend the knee beyond 90 degrees. An audible click while performing this maneuver can indicate a torn medial meniscus. To examine the lateral meniscus return the knee to full flexion and apply a medial rotation to the tibia prior to extending the knee again.

261
Q

Anterior Drawer Test

A

Detects rupture of the anterior cruciate ligaments in the knee. If positive send for an MRI. The patient should be supine withe the hips flexed to 45 degrees, the knees flexed to 90 degrees and the feet flat on the table. Sit on the patient’s feet and grasp the patient’s tibia and pull it forward. If the tibia pulls forward more than normal, the test is considered positive.

262
Q

Posterior Drawer Test

A

Detects rupture of the posterior cruciate ligaments in the knee. If positive send for an MRI. The patient should be supine with the hips flexed to 45 degrees, the knees flexed to 90 degrees and the feet flat on the table. Sit on the patient’s feet and grasp the patient’s tibia and pulls it backward. If the tibia pulls backward more than normal, the test is considered positive.

263
Q

A Patella Injury

A

Could occur when you fall directly on the knee, or sudden flexion

264
Q

ACL injury

A

Could come from running fast then stopping quickly, or stopping when going forward.

265
Q

PCL injury

A

Stopping when going backward

266
Q

Meniscus

A

Jumping and twisting at the same time

267
Q

Rotator Cuff Muscles

A

(SITS) - supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

268
Q

Supraspinatus

A

One of the muscles that abducts the arm

269
Q

Knee Range of Motion

A

0 degrees for extension, 135 degrees for flexion, supination 90 degrees, pronation 90 degrees

270
Q

Athlete’s Triad, Three Common Injuries

A

Medial Collateral ligament, medial meniscus, anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

271
Q

Lordosis

A

An inward curvature of the cervical and lumbar vertebra which are normally lordotic: a curve that is convex anteriorly and concave posteriorly. An accentuation of the normal curve of the spine is called hyper-lordosis, swayback, or saddle black. Loss of lordosis is sometimes seen with painful spinal conditions. If rigid, usually after spinal fusion surgery, it is known as flat back.

272
Q

Kyphosis

A

A rounded thoracic convexity - common with aging, especially in women

273
Q

Scoliosis

A

A curvature of the spine. Use a plum line from T1 to the gluteal cleft. It is a rotation of the vertebra upon each other. Best seen when flexing forward. Causes include congenital malformation of the spine, poliomyelitis, skeletal dysplasia, spastic paralysis, and unequal leg length.

274
Q

C5 neurological signs

A

Bicep reflex

275
Q

C6 neurological signs

A

Wrist or brachioradialis reflex
Sensory thumb and 2nd finger
Tricep Reflex

276
Q

C7 neurological signs

A

Tricep reflex

Sensory to 3rd fingers

277
Q

C8 neurological signs

A

Sensory to 4th/5th fingers

278
Q

T8-T12 neurological signs

A

Abdominal reflex upper part and lower part

279
Q

L2-L4 neurological signs

A

Patella reflex

280
Q

L4 neurological signs

A

Sensory to lateral thigh and ankle

281
Q

L5 neurological signs

A

Sensory to lateral calf and big toe, 2nd toe, 3rd toe

282
Q

L5, S1 neurological signs

A

Plantar responses

283
Q

S1 neurological signs

A

Achilles reflex, sensory to 4th and 5th toes and heels

284
Q

Gout

A

Usually an inborn error of uric acid metabolism. Painful swelling of the joint with chills and fever. Can progress to the development of destructive joint changes. More often in men. Usually it affects one or two joints at a time. After menopause gout is more often seen in women. When the uric acid is increased in the blood it is called hyperuricaemia.

285
Q

Psoriatic Arhritis

A

Arthritis that is often associated with psoriasis of the skin. It is a chronic skin condition that causes red patches or a rough, scaly type of rash that appears most commonly on the knees, elbows, and scalp. The rash consists of red or silvery grey scaly patches on the skin. Usually psoriasis comes before arthritis. Treated with NSAIDS.

286
Q

Lyme’s Disease

A

Caused by ticks, red macule or papule usually on the extremity or on the trunk. Completely round. Most common symptoms are flu like conditions, malaise and fatigue, chills and fever, stiff neck, headache and backache. Some patients within weeks or months develop arthritis.

287
Q

Rheumatoid Arhtirits

A

Chronic inflammation of synovial membranes, with secondary erosion of cartilage and bones, damage to tendons and ligaments. Small joints, knobby bumps on knees, arms, elbows, and ankles. They are symmetrically additive. Chronic with remissions and exacerbations. Tender, often warm, but seldom red. Prominent stiffness, often for an hour or more in the morning or after inactivity. General symptoms include weakness, fatigue, weight loss, low fever.

288
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Degeneration and progressive loss of cartilage within the joints, damage to underlying bone and formation of new bone at margins of cartilage. Knees hips, hands, cervical and lumbar spine, wrists, previously injured joints. Additive, only one joint may be involved. Slow, temporary exacerbation after use. Possibly tender, seldom warm, rarely red. Frequent but brief stiffness in the morning and after inactivity. Usually no other symptoms.

289
Q

The Cardiovascular System

A

Deoxygenated blood coming from the body enters the RIGHT ATRIUM and flows through the TRICUSPID VALVE into the RIGHT VENTRICLE. When the ventricle contracts it closes the tricuspid valve and forces open the PULMONARY VALVE. This branches immediately, and carries blood to the RIGHT AND LEFT LUNGS. Here the blood gives up carbon dioxide and takes on a clean supply of oxygen. The lungs have capillary beds that are drained by venules, which are branches of the heart. Blood flows from the LEFT ATRIUM through the MITRAL VALVE/BICUSPID VALVE and into the LEFT VENTRICLE. Contraction of the ventricle closes the mitral valve and opens the AORITC VALVE at the entrance to the aorta. The first branches from the aorta occur just beyond the aortic valve still within the heart. Two openings lead to the right and left coronary arteries, which supply the heart itself. The coronary arteries start within the heart and pass directly out to the surface of the heart. They supply blood to the capillaries, which cover every aspect of the heart. The capillaries drain into two coronary veins that empty into the RIGHT ATRIUM.

290
Q

Tachycardia

A

Greater than 100 beats/min

291
Q

Bradychardia

A

Less than 60 beats/min

292
Q

Gallop Rhythm

A

Abnormal rhythm where there are four heart sounds instead of two. Occurs more in men than women and is an indication of heart failure.

293
Q

Premature Atrial/Nodal Contractions

A

A beat of atrial/nodal origin that comes earlier than the next normal beat

294
Q

Premature Ventricular Contractions/ectopic heartbeat

A

A beat of ventricular origin that comes earlier than the next expected normal beat (skipped beat), and can be relatively common and found in healthy persons of any age. Symptoms are chest pain, faint feeling, fatigue, hyperventilation. Possible causes: smoking, drugs (cocaine), caffeine, mitral valve prolapse, ischemia.

295
Q

Sinus Arrhythmia

A

The heart varies cyclically usually speeding up on inspiration and slows down with expiration

296
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

The ventricle rhythm is irregular, although short runs of the irregular rhythm may see regular. This is the main cause of stroke in elderly people.

297
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

Occurs when parts of the ventricles depolarize repeatedly in an erratic, uncoordinated manner. The EKG in ventricular fibrillation shows random, apparently unrelated waves. Usually there is no recognizable QRS complex. Ventricular fibrillation is almost invariably fatal.

298
Q

P Wave EKG

A

Atrial depolarization

299
Q

QRS Complex EKG

A

Ventricular depolarization

300
Q

T Wave EKG

A

Ventricular repolarization

301
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The pressure of blood against the walls of the main arteries

302
Q

Systole

A

Pressure measured during the period of ventricular contraction

303
Q

Diastole

A

the minimum level of blood pressure measured between ventricular relaxation

304
Q

Normal blood pressure

A

120/80 MAX

305
Q

Prehypertension

A

139/89 MAX

306
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

150/99 MAX

307
Q

Stage 2 Hypertension

A

160/100 or higher

308
Q

Essential hypertension

A

Refers to high blood pressure with no identifiable cause

309
Q

Portal hypertension

A

Abnormally high blood pressure in branches of the portal vein, the large vein that brings blood from the intestine to the liver

310
Q

Secondary hypertension

A

Elevated blood pressure that results from an underlying, identifiable, often correctable cause. Like genetic disorders. Only 5-10% of the population has this type of hypertension.

311
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A

High blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs which makes the right side need to work harder than normal.

312
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Also known as postural hypotension, is a form of hypotension in which a person’s blood pressure suddenly falls when the person stands up. The decrease is typically greater than 20/10 mm HG and may be most pronounced after resting. Increases with age.

313
Q

CPR steps

A

1st - opens the airway
2nd - 30 chest thrusts/2 breaths
3rd - Do sequence 4 times, then check for breath/pulse

314
Q

Deep vein thrombosis

A

Commonly affects the leg veins or the deep veins of the pelvis. Occasionally the veins of the arm are affected. A DVT can occur without symptoms, but in many cases the affected extremity will be painful, swollen, red, warm and the superficial veins may be engorged. The greatest complication of a DVT is that the clot could be dislodged and travel to the lungs, which is called a pulmonary embolism.

315
Q

Mesenteric thrombosis

A

Is a blood clot that blocks off the mesenteric vein located in the tissue connecting the intestine to the back of the abdominal wall. People more at risk have had previous abdominal surgery, blunt abdominal trauma, take estrogen oral contraceptives, have portal hypertension, enlarged spleen, suffer from hyper-coagulable blood, or smoke.

316
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

Over the course of time, the arterial walls are apt to lose elasticity, which limits the amount of blood that can surge through them and hence limits the supply of oxygen to the heart

317
Q

Artherosclerosis

A

Fatty deposits, called plaque, may accumulate on the interior surface of the coronary arteries. This is particularly common in people who have high levels of cholesterol in their blood.

318
Q

Apex

A

The uppermost part of the lung

319
Q

Base

A

The lowest area of the lungs

320
Q

Lungs

A

The right lung is slightly larger than the left lung. The right lung has THREE lobes. The left lung has TWO lobes

321
Q

Alveolar cavity

A

Where the exchange of O2 and CO2 take place

322
Q

Cheyne Strokes Respiration

A

An abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by periods of breathing with gradually increasing and decreasing tidal volume interspersed with periods of apnea. This pattern can be seen in patients with strokes, head injures, or brain tumors or in patients with congestive heart failure. Hospice staff also associated this with irregular breathing as the patient nears death.

323
Q

Biot’s Respiration

A

Cluster breathing where groups of breaths tend to be similar in size

324
Q

Tidal Volume

A

Amount of air inhaled and exhaled with normal breathing

325
Q

Vital Capacity

A

Normal exhalation followed by forcing air out of the lungs

326
Q

Rhonchi

A

An abnormal of adventitious sound heard when listening to the chest as the person breathes. This can happen when the airway is partially obstructed owing to secretions, mucosal swelling, or tumor tissue pressing on the passage. Sounds are gurgling noises heard on auscultation of the lungs with a stethoscope during inhalation or exhalation. Patients that have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and acute or severe bronchitis.

327
Q

Pleural Effusion

A

An accumulation of fluids between the layers of the tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. Transudative pleural effusions are caused by fluid leaking into the pleural space because of elevated pressure in, or low protein count in, the blood vessels. Congestive heart failure is the most common cause. Exudative effusions usually result from leaky blood vessel caused by inflammation of the pleura. This is often caused by lung disease. Ex: lung cancer, lung infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, drug reactions, abestosis.

328
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy

A

Occurs when the baby starts to develop outside of the uterus - most commonly in the fallopian tubes. In rare cases they can occur in the ovary, stomach area, or cervix. Most cases are a result of scarring caused by past ectopic pregnancy, infection, or surgery in the fallopian tubes. Up to 50% of women having ectopic pregnancies have had swelling of the fallopian tubes or pelvic inflammatory disease. Other causes are birth defects of the fallopian tubes, complications of a ruptured appendix, endometriosis, scarring caused by previous pelvic surgery. Symptoms include: abnormal vaginal bleeding, amenorrhea, breast tenderness, low back pain, mild cramping on one side of the pelvis, nausea, pain in the lower abdomen or pelvic area. If the area ruptures and bleeds, symptoms may get worse. Symptoms may include fainting, pain in the shoulder area, severe, sharp, sudden pain in the lower abdomen and shock. Shock is the first symptom of almost 20% of ectopic pregnancies.

329
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

A

Inflammation in the pelvic region. Symptoms are vaginal discharge, pain in the abdomen in the early stages and dysmenorrhea, metrorrhagia, and severe tenderness on palpation of the cervix and adnexa. Usually starts with gonoccocal infection.

330
Q

Endometriosis

A

Endometrial tissue in abnormal locations, including the ovaries, uterine wall and pelvic peritoneum. Endometriosis could also be associated with dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, hypermenorrhea (too frequent menstrual periods), sterility, and dyspareunia. Treatment ranges from symptomatic relief of pain to surgical removal of endometrial implants.

331
Q

Prostate Specific Antigen Test (PSA)

A

This test measures the level of PSA in the blood.
Less than 4ng/ml is normal.
Between 4-10ng/ml is borderline.
Greater than 10ng/ml is high.
High levels indicate: prostate cancer, prostatitis, recent ejaculation, benign prostatic hyperplasia

332
Q

Cacinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

A

This test is used as a tumor marker for both benign and malignant conditions
HIGH LEVELS INDICATE: colon and rectum, pancreas, stomach, breast, or lung cancer. Certain types of thyroid and ovarian cancer.
Chemotherapy and radiation therapy can cuase a temporary rise in CEA.

333
Q

Blood tests for rapid detection of heart rate

A

Creatine Kinase (CK) - 6 hrs after the start of a heart attack. Peaks at 18hrs, returns to normal after 24-36 hours

334
Q

Alainine Aminotransferase Test (ALT)

A

Liver Function Test.

High levels indicate: jaundice, liver disease, hepatitis, cirrhosis, infectious mononucleosis

335
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase high blood levels in absence of elevated GGT can indicate

A

Bone disease, placenta, intestine

336
Q

Gamma-Glutamyltranspeptidase high blood levels of Alkaline Phosphatase and GGT indicate

A

Liver disease, alcohol ingestion, alcoholic liver disease, obstruction of the bile ducts

337
Q

Bilirubin test high levels indicate

A

Increased destruction of red blood cells, as in hemolytic anemia. Liver disease, decreased ability of the liver to process blood bilirubin. Gall bladder disease (cancer).

338
Q

Jaundice

A

Yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera, caused by abnormally high levels of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Causes: inflammation of other abnormalities of the liver cells hinder the excretion of bile, hemolysis of RBC’s.

339
Q

Serum Albumin

A

In liver disease, albumin production is decreased making low blood levels of albumin

340
Q

Prothrombin Time (PT) measures blood clotting factors

A

In liver disease, clotting factors are not produced normally

341
Q

Serum Creatinine

A

Kidney function test: creatinine is a waste product formed through the body’s metabolism of protein. The serum creatinine test measures the amount of creatinine in the blood. Normal range is 0.6-1.2 miligrams creatinine per deciliter of blood. If the kidneys are not working properly, creatinine is not cleared from the blood, thus the levels rise. Levels greater than 1.2mg/dL can indicate kidney disease.

342
Q

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

A

Kidney function test: another waste product formed through the body’s metabolism of protein. The test is measured by the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood. Normal range is 7-20mg/dL. When the kidneys do not filter properly, urea nitrogen is not cleared from the blood in a normal manner, thus causing BUN levels to rise. Levels greater than 20mg/dL can indicate kidney disease.

343
Q

Total blood cholesterol levels are as follows

A

Desirable: less than 200 mg/dL.
Borderline high: 200-239 mg/dL.
High: 240 mg/dL

344
Q

High density lipoprotein or HDL levels

A 
Low HDL (increased risk of heart disease): less than 40mg/dL.
High HDL (reduced risk of heart disease): higher than 60mg/dL
345
Q

Low density lipoprotein or LDL levels

A

Desirable: Below 100mg/dL
Borderline high: 130-159 mg/dL
High: 160 mg/dL

346
Q

Total cholesterol to HDL ratio

A

Desirable: Below 5 to 1
Optimal: 3.5-1

347
Q

Triglycerides levels

A

Normal: Less than 200mg/dL
Borderline: 200-400mg/dL

348
Q

Complete blood count (CBC)

A

This tests red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Normal white blood cell counts are 5,000 to 10,000. An increase suggests inflammation or infection. Normal red blood cell counts for MEN are 5-6 mil, for WOMEN are 3.6-5.6 mil. A decrease suggests inflammation.

349
Q

Hematocrit

A

PACKED cell volume used to determine anemia or polycythemia

350
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Part of the CBC. Vehicle for transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide, used to determine anemia or polycythemia.

351
Q

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

A

Blood test: blood sample in tube to determine how fast the red blood cells settle to the bottom in one hour. Normal rate is 20 mm in one hour. Inflammation makes the red cells clump together and fall faster, significantly increasing the rate. May indicate arthritis.

352
Q

Rheumatoid Factor (RF)

A

Blood test: antibody found in usually large amounts of patients with RA. The higher the concentration, the more severe the RA. It may take many months to show and only 85% of patients with RA will have the RF.

353
Q

PTH (Parathyroid Hormone)

A

Blood test
Increased: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism
Decreased: Hypercalcemia not due to hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism

354
Q

TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone)

A

Blood Test
Increased: hypothyroidism
Decreased: Hyperthyroidism, thyrotoxicosis

355
Q

HLA typing

A

Blood Test
White blood cells may be typed for the presence of HLA-B27. A common test in medical centers for transplants. It is also a genetic marker for some forms of arthritis.

356
Q

Antinuclear Antibody (ANA)

A

This test is used especially for Lupus, and for certain rheumatic diseases. It tests for antibodies to the nucleus or command center of the body’s cells. Blood serum is placed on a slide and a fluorescent dye is added, which binds to the antibodies. Under the microscope, abnormal antibodies can be seen binding to the nuclei. This is a positive or negative test.

357
Q

Type A blood contains which antigens

A

A antigen and anti-B antibody

358
Q

Type B blood contains which antigens

A

B antigen and anti-A antibody

359
Q

Type AB blood contains which antigens

A

A and B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies

360
Q

Type 0 blood contains which antigens

A

Contains no A or B antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antigens.

361
Q

AB blood contains which antigens

A

Universal recipients

Has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

362
Q

Elisa Test (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Assay)

A

Fluorescent immuno-assay adheres to a specific antibody. If that antibody reacts to its corresponding antigen, it glows. Elisa test is used to screen for Lyme Disease, EBC, Hepatitis, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus. If an Elisa screening test comes back positive, then it is usually followed up by the Western Blot Test, which either confirms the positive or comes back negative.

363
Q

Platelet count adults

A

140/400

364
Q

Platelet count children

A

150/450

365
Q

What is a sweat test used for

A

Cystic Fibrosis

366
Q

HCG test is for

A

Pregnancy

367
Q

Dick test is for

A

Scarlet fever

368
Q

Schick test is for

A

Diptheria

369
Q

Specific Gravity

A

Indicates a normal urine concentration ability. A low restful may indicate sickle cell disease or diabetes insipidus.

370
Q

When hydrogen ion concentration increases in the blood the pH

A

decreases

371
Q

When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases in the blood the pH

A

increases

372
Q

Respiratory acidosis results from

A

the failure of the Lungs to remove CO2

373
Q

Metabolic acidosis results from

A

the failure of the Kidneys to remove H+ ions

374
Q

Carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer

A

The most important buffer in the blood to maintain acid-base balance

375
Q

Phosphate buffer

A

Plays a minor role in regulating the pH in the blood

376
Q

Hemoglobin buffer

A

Also plays a minor role as a pH buffer in the blood

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