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Speech and Language Therapy Y1 > Biomedical sciences > Flashcards

Biomedical sciences Flashcards

1
Q

What is anatomy?

A

Study of internal + external structures of the body, and the physical relationship among body parts

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2
Q

What is physiology?

A

Study of the functions and activities of structures of the body (cells, tissues and organs) and of the physical and chemical changes involved

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of anatomy?

A

Regional
Systems
Surface

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4
Q

What is regional anatomy?

A

How different body structures work together in a particular region of the human body

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5
Q

What is systems anatomy?

A

The anatomy of a body system e.g.
cardiovascular system in relation to the head and neck

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6
Q

What is surface anatomy?

A

The study of anatomical landmarks that can be identified by observing the surface of the body in a particular area

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7
Q

What is pathology?

A

The study and diagnosis of a disease

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8
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

The specific cause of a disease at the cell or tissue level

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9
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

The abnormalities of a disease (the pathogenesis) – how this affects normal physiology, often causing illness

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10
Q

What is embryology?

A

The science of the development of an embryo from the fertilisation of the ovum to the foetal stage

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11
Q

Give 3 reasons why anatomical terms are used

A
  1. Form of standardisation across health professionals
  2. Describes anatomy so it’s easy to understand no matter direction/ position of organism and limbs
  3. Avoids confusion as organisms can rake on dif positions, changing relative placement
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12
Q

What is the standard position of reference?

A

S- standing upright
P- palms facing forward
A-arms straight
F- facing forward
F- feet together + parallel
T- toes pointing forward

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13
Q

What do directional terms allow?

A

Description of an anatomical position by comparing location relative to other structures / within the body

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14
Q

What are the 7 main directional terms?

A

Anterior (ventral) VS posterior (dorsal)
Superior (cranial) VS interior (caudal)
Medial VS lateral
Proximal VS distal
Deep VS superficial
Bilateral VS unilateral
Ipsilateral VS contralateral

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15
Q

What is anterior / posterior?

A

Anterior- towards the front
Posterior- towards the back

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16
Q

What is superior / inferior?

A

Superior- upper, towards the head
Inferior- lower, away from the head

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17
Q

What is medial / lateral?

A

Medial- towards the midline
Lateral- away from the midline

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18
Q

What is proximal / distal?

A

Proximal- toward/nearest the trunk (point of origin)
Distal- away from/farthest from the trunk (point of origin)

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19
Q

What is deep / superficial?

A

Deep- farther from the surface of the body
Superficial- closer to the surface of the body

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20
Q

What is unilateral / bilateral?

A

Unilateral- on one side of the body
Bilateral- on both sides of the body

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21
Q

What is ipsilateral / contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral- same side of the body
Contralateral- opposite side of the body

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22
Q

What are anatomical planes?

A

Sections/slices of the body or organs

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23
Q

What are the 3 types of anatomical planes?

A

Frontal (coronal)
Sagittal
Transverse

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24
Q

How does the frontal/coronal plane divide the body or organ?

A

Anterior and posterior

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25
Q

How does the sagittal plane divide the body or organ?

A

Left and right

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26
Q

How does the transverse plane divide the body or organ?

A

Superior and inferior

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27
Q

What are the 9 levels of organisation in the human body?

A

Atoms
Molecules
Macromolecule
Organelles
Cells
Tissues
Organs
Organ Systems
Organism

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28
Q

What are cells?

A

Basic living units
Smallest subdivision able to carry out life processes
Contains organelles
Specialised for specific physiological roles

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29
Q

How do different types of cells exist?

A

Cell differentiation from stem cells in embryonic development

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30
Q

What are specialised cells?

A

Cells adapted to specific functions

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31
Q

What are the 3 types of stem cells?

A

Totipotent embryonic
Pluripotent embryonic
Multipotent (still have as adults)

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32
Q

How are specialised tissues formed? Give an example

A

Specialised cells work together
Neuron -> nervous tissue -> brain -> nervous system

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33
Q

What are organelles?

A

Structure with a specific cell function

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34
Q

What does the cell membrane do?

A

Separates and transports molecules in/out of the cell

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35
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules + microfilaments + centrosome for support and movement

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36
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

Jelly like fluid containing organelles + dissolved molecules

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37
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

Contains DNA, arranged in chromosomes
Contains the nucleolus (where ribosomes made, helps make proteins)
Membrane bound by nuclear envelope with small pores

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38
Q

What do mitochondria do?

A

They metabolise glucose in the presence of oxygen to produce ATP for energy: Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + ATP
Also contains small amount of DNA

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39
Q

What is the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Site of protein folding after being synthesised on
ribosomes

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40
Q

What is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Site of lipid synthesis

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41
Q

What is the golgi body?

A

Where proteins are sorted + transported to other parts of the cell/outside the cell

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42
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

Break down old organelles

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43
Q

What is the cell membrane made of?

A

The phospholipid bilayer

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44
Q

What is the cell membrane?

A

Barrier around all cells, separates outside and inside of the cell
Controls movement of substances in/out of cell
Keeps atoms + molecules at optimum concentrations in/out of cell, protects internal envrionement

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45
Q

What is the phospholipid bilayer made of?

A

2 layers of phospho-lipid molecules

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46
Q

Describe phosphate heads

A

Hydrophilic (attracted to water) so face outward towards cytoplasm or extracellular fluid

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47
Q

Describe lipid tail

A

Hydrophobic (repelled by water) so face inward to eachother

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48
Q

How permeable are cell membranes?

A

Selectively permeable

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49
Q

What are cell membranes permeable to?

A

Gases cross rapidly (eg: O2)
Molecules made of lipid cross rapidly (eg: testosterone)
Small polar (partly charged) molecules cross slowly (eg: water)

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50
Q

What are cell membranes impermeable to?

A

Large polar molecules as hydrophilic, repelled by hydrophobic lipids (eg: glucose)
Ions (charged) repelled by hydrophobic lipids (eg: Na+)

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51
Q

What do membrane proteins do?

A

Control transport of ions + larger molecules in/out of cells
Allow cell-cell communication

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52
Q

What are the 4 main types of membrane proteins?

A

Channel protein
Carrier protein
Glycoprotein
Receptor protein

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53
Q

How does cholesterol (a lipid) help the cell membrane?

A

Provides rigidity/support

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54
Q

What are the 3 types of passive transport?

A

Diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis

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55
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Movement of larger/ charged molecules using
membrane proteins

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56
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The passive movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration (more dilute) to a region of lower concentration (more concentrated) across the partially/selectively permeable phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes

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57
Q

Why does osmosis matter in the human body?

A

Important to keep ion + water concentrations
equal (isotonic) inside and outside the cell

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58
Q

What happens if the solution outside cells becomes hypotonic (watery)?

A

Water will diffuse by osmosis into the cells

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59
Q

What happens if the solution outside cells becomes hypertonic (less watery)?

A

Water will diffuse by osmosis out of the cells

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60
Q

What is active transport?

A

Movement of materials through the cell membrane from low to high concentration, against the concentration gradient- requires energy ie: ATP

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61
Q

What are 2 examples of important cell membrane proteins?

A

Na+K+ ATPase pump
CFTR- channel protein in cystic fibrosis

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62
Q

What is the NA+K+ ATPase pump?

A

Protein found in all cell membranes
Carries out active transport so uses ATP
Pumps 3Na+ out, 2K+ in to maintain correct ionic balance in/out of cell

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63
Q

What is cystic fibrosis caused by?

A

Defect in a single transmembrane protein: cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)

CFTR is an ion channel membrane protein that transports Cl- ions out of the cell, and defect prevents movement of chloride ions out
Water moves in by osmosis, mucus on cell
surface dries out, builds up

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64
Q

What is an ion?

A

Atom/molecule with a net +/- electrical charge

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65
Q

How are ions formed?

A

By substances in our diet called electrolytes
Electrolytes can dissolve or dissociate in our body water into ionic forms

eg: NaCl dissolves into Na+ and Cl- ions

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66
Q

Which ions are at high concentration in extracellular fluid?

A

Na+
Cl-

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67
Q

Which ion is at high concentration in intracellular fluid?

A

K+

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68
Q

Which ions are ion channel proteins specific for?

A

K+
Na+
Cl-
Ca2+

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69
Q

What do ion channel proteins do?

A

Transports ions across cell membranes, critical for many cellular functions eg: electrical excitability, regulation of bodily fluids

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70
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue in the human body?

A

Epithelial
Nervous
Muscle
Connective

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71
Q

What are the 3 functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Forms the skin to cover the body, portects against germs
Forms serous membranes that line body cavities
Forms mscous membranes that line the tracts

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72
Q

What are the 4 different types of epithelial tissue?

A

Simple squamous epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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73
Q

Where can simple squamous epithelium be found?

A

Air sacs of the lung

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74
Q

Where can stratified squamous epithelium be found?

A

Vocal cords
Mouth
Vestibule of nasal cavity

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75
Q

Where can simple columnar epithelium be found?

A

Small bronchioles of lungs

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76
Q

Where can psuedostratified columnar epithelium be found?

A

Throughout respiratory tract (nasal cavity to bronchi)

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77
Q

Where is nervous tissue located?

A

CNS (central nervous system)
PNS (peripheral nervous system)

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78
Q

What is the function of nervous tissue?

A

Transmits information

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79
Q

What types of cells are found in nervous tissue?

A

Neuron
Glial cells

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80
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle

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81
Q

Describe skeletal muscle

A

Voluntary contractions
Striated appearance, attached to skeleton
Produces heat

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82
Q

Describe cardiac muscle

A

Involuntary contractions
Striated
Heart contractions

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83
Q

Describe smooth muscle

A

Involuntary contractions
Non-striated
Blood vessels, gastrointestinal tract, bladder

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84
Q

What are 2 important skeletal muscles in SLT?

A

Facial muscles
Muscles of mastication

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85
Q

Where is connective tissue located?

A

Component of all major tissues
Most abundant type of tissue in the body

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86
Q

What are 4 functions of connective tissue?

A

Supportive tissue
Part of musculoskeletal system (bone, cartilage, tendons, ligaments)
Fat storage and deposition (adipose tissue)
Some immune functions

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87
Q

What is the general structure of connective tissue?

A

Consists of cells called fibroblasts (areolar tissue)- secretes fibres (eg: collagen, elastic fibres) and matrix to form an extracellular material surrounding itself

Extracellular matrix can be solid/ gel-like / liquid -> physical consistency depends on the mechanical support needed

Minimal blood supply- depends on tissue fluid for nourishment and waste removal

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88
Q

What are the 6 types of connective tissue?

A

Dense connective tissue
Adipose tissue
Areolar tissue
Bone
Cartilage
Blood

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89
Q

What is dense connective tissue?

A

Strong + dense + organised to form ligaments, tendons, capsules, fascia

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90
Q

What are bone cells surrounded by?

A

Matrix containing calcium hydroxyapatite

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91
Q

What are the 2 types of bone tissue?

A

Compact bone (cortical bone)
Spongy bone (trabecular or cancellous bone)

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92
Q

Describe compact bone?

A

Outer layer of bones
Dense + hard

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93
Q

Describe spongy bone?

A

Inner area of bones has trabeculae (spikes) and airspaces
Maximum strength, minimum weight
Spaces filled with red/yellow bone marrow

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94
Q

What are the 3 properties of cartilage?

A

Great compressive and tensile strength
Not as strong as bone but more resistant to compression, more elastic
Smooth – covering for bones to reduce friction

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95
Q

What are the 3 basic types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrocartilage

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96
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage

A

Smooth, glassy, blue/white, widely distributed,
covers bones at the ends, gliding, low friction
Synovial joints (hinge joints)

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97
Q

Describe elastic cartilage

A

Many elastin fibres, lots of flexibility

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98
Q

Describe fibrocartilage

A

Collagen fibres cushion between bones, vertebral disks

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99
Q

What are the 2 types of joints?

A

Synovial
Non-synovial

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100
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

Freely mobile, surfaces glide as covered with hyaline
Innervated- nerves detect position + movement

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101
Q

Describe non-synovial joints

A

Slightly moveable joints or immovable joints

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102
Q

What are some examples of connective tissue prominent in the head and neck?

A

Bones of the face, cranium and inner ear, skull,
vertebrae

Cartilage - nose, trachea, epiglottis, ears

Fascia around nerves, muscles and blood vessels

Adipose tissue - cheek fat pads

Tendons, ligaments for movement of the jaw at the
temporomandibular joint

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103
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Keeping the body’s precise internal
conditions within a set range,
despite internal or external
environmental fluctuations, using negative feedback mechanisms

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104
Q

What do vital signs provide?

A

Valuable insight into a patient’s condition
- how they respond to medical treatment
- if they’re deteriorating

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105
Q

What are the 2 ways in which the body maintains homeostasis?

A

Neural control
Endocrine control

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106
Q

What are the 2 structures involved in the neural control to maintain homeostasis?

A

Brainstem
Hypothalamus

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107
Q

What does the brain stem control regarding homeostasis?

A

Vitals
- breathing
- heart rate
- blood pressure
- has sensors for blood O2, CO2, pH

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108
Q

What does the hypothalamus control regarding homeostasis?

A

Temperature
Fluid balance
Overall regulation of many hormones

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109
Q

What are 4 glands and their hormones involved in endocrine control regarding homeostasis?

A

Pituitary gland → growth hormone
Adrenal gland → aldosterone
Pancreas → insulin + glucagon
Thyroid → thyroid hormone + calcitonin

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110
Q

What is a negative feedback loop/system?

A

If the value of the regulated variable is disturbed, system functions to restore it toward set point

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111
Q

What are 4 examples of homeostatic mechanisms?

A

Thermoregulation (maintains body temperature)
Chemoregulation (maintains breathing rate)
Osmoregulation (maintains fluid balance)
Glucoregulation (maintains blood glucose)

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112
Q

What happens in thermoregulation with temperature increase?

A

Activates heat-loss centre in hypothalamus
→ blood vessels dilate sweat glands activates
→ body temp decreases and heat loss centre shuts off

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113
Q

What is the process of chemoregulation?

A
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114
Q

What is the process of osmoregulation?

A
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115
Q

What is the process of glucose regulation?

A
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116
Q

What is a positive feedback loop?

A

Magnifies original response instead of correcting it

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117
Q

What is an example of a positive feedback loop?

A

Childbirth- stretching of the cervix leads to more stretching, not less

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118
Q

What 2 systems does the circulatory system consist of?

A

Cardiovascular system
Lymphatic system

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119
Q

What is the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart and blood vessels transport blood through pulmonary circulation (lungs) and the systemic circulation (head and body)

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120
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph vessels transport excess fluid from body tissues towards heart (only one direction)

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121
Q

What are the 3 main components of the cardiovascular system?

A

Blood
Heart
Blood vessels

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122
Q

On average, how many litres of blood does a person have?

A

5

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123
Q

What are the 4 components of blood?

A

Plasma (55%)
Red blood cells (41%)
White blood cells (4%)
Platelets (0.01%)

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124
Q

What is in the plasma of blood?

A

Water
Plasma proteins (eg: albumin)
Ions, glucose, amino acids, hormones, gases, waste

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125
Q

What is another word for red blood cells?

A

Erythrocytes

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126
Q

What is another word for white blood cells?

A

Leucocytes

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127
Q

What are 5 different types of white blood cells?

A

Neutrophil (most common)
Lymphocyte
Basophil
Eosinophil
Monocyte

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128
Q

What is the structure of red blood cells- why?

A

Concave shape- extra surface area
No nucleus- adapted for extra SA

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129
Q

Where are all blood cells made?

A

Bone marrow

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130
Q

What is the most important function of blood?

A

Transport system
Brain and muscles that facilitate speech need continual supply of oxygen

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131
Q

What are 4 other functions of blood?

A

Clotting
Transports hormones, ions and nutrients
Transports heat around the body, stabilises
temperature
Transports white blood cells to sites of infection

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132
Q

What is the location of the heart?

A

Thoracic cavity
Mediastinal space
Posterior to sternum, between lungs, anterior to vertebral column

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133
Q

What are the 4 chambers of the heart?

A

Right atrium
Right ventricle
Left atrium
Right ventricle

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134
Q

What does the right atrium do?

A

Receives blood from body

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135
Q

What does the right ventricle do?

A

Pumps blood to lungs

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136
Q

What does the left atrium do?

A

Receives blood from the lungs

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137
Q

What does the left ventricle do?

A

Pumps blood to body

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138
Q

What does the septum in the heart do?

A

Separates right and left side?

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139
Q

Why does the left side of the heart have thicker cardiac muscle?

A

Higher pressure needed to pump blood around entire body
Same contractions have bigger effect due to the muscle

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140
Q

Where does the superior and inferior vena cava transport blood?

A

From head and body to right atrium

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141
Q

Where does the pulmonary artery transport blood?

A

From right ventricle to lungs

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142
Q

Where does the pulmonary vein transport blood?

A

From lungs to left atrium

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143
Q

Where does the aorta transport blood?

A

From left ventricle to body

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144
Q

What are the names of the 4 valves in the heart?

A

Tricuspid valve
Pulmonary valve
Mitral valve
Aortic valve

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145
Q

What do valves in the heart do?

A

Open and close in response to pressure of the blood as it is moved through the heart
Creates unidirectional blood flow, prevents backflow

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146
Q

What is the name of the natural pacemaker in the heart?

A

Sino-atrial node (SAN)
(bundle of electrically active cardiac cells)

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147
Q

How often does the sino-atrial node cause contractions?

A

Fires at 60-80 beats/min at rest

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148
Q

Where does the sino-atrial node cause contractions?

A

First contraction of the atria, followed by contraction of ventricles

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149
Q

What is the word for contraction / relaxation?

A

Contraction = systole
Relaxation = diastole

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150
Q

What is the process of contractions of the heart?

A
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151
Q

How does the nervous system control the cardiac cycle?

A

Sympathetic NS speeds heart rate
Parasympathetic NS slows heart rate

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152
Q

How long approximately does it take for blood to complete one circuit of pulmonary and systemic circulations?

A

1 minute

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153
Q

What are the 5 different types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins

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154
Q

What is the common 3-layer structure of blood vessels?

A

Tunica intima: smooth layer of squamous epithelial cells on base of collagen
Tunica media: smooth muscle
Tunica externa: protects outside

-> capillaries only have tunica intima

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155
Q

Which blood vessels carry HP blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries (elastic / muscular)
Arterioles

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156
Q

Which blood vessels carry LP blood towards the heart?

A

Veins (contain valves)
Venules

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157
Q

What does the thin wall of capillaries enable?

A

Diffusion of substances across capillary wall
Diameter 7-8µm

158
Q

Label some main upper body arteries

A
159
Q

What are the 4 parts to the aorta?

A

Ascending aorta
Aortic arch
Thoracic aorta
Abdominal aorta (from diaphragm down)

160
Q

How is blood supplied to the brain?

A

R/L common carotid arteries branch into internal carotid arteries

161
Q

How is blood supplied to the face/head/neck?

A

R/L common carotid arteries branch into external carotid arteries

162
Q

How is blood supplied to the posterior of the brain?

A

Subclavian artery branch into vertebral arteries

163
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Pressure that blood exerts on the wall of the blood vessels

164
Q

What is usual blood pressure?

A

90 - 120
60 - 80

165
Q

What are the 2 types of blood pressure?

A

Systolic
Diastolic

166
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

Maximum pressure within the large arteries when the heart contracts

167
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

Lowest pressure within the large arteries during heart muscle relaxation

168
Q

How is blood pressure different in different blood vessels?

A
169
Q

What 2 factors affect blood pressure in arteries?

A

Cardiac output
Peripheral vascular resistance

170
Q

If cardiac output or peripheral vascular resistance increase, what happens to blood pressure?

A

Increases

171
Q

What is cardiac output (CO)?

A

Volume of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute (how effectively the cardiovascular system is working)

172
Q

What does cardiac output depend on?

A

Heart rate
Stroke volume (amount of blood ejected from the LV in one contraction)

CO = HR x SV

173
Q

What is peripheral vascular resistance?

A

Resistance to blood flow in the arterioles

Sympathetic stimulation → vasoconstriction → decreased diameter → increased PVR → higher blood pressure

Reduced sympathetic stimulation → vasodilation → increased diameter → decreased PVR → lower blood pressure

174
Q

What do baroreceptors do?

A

Help maintain blood pressure via homeostasis

175
Q

Where do baroreceptors sense stretch?

A

Carotid arteries
Aorta

176
Q

If stretch in the carotid arteries and aorta are high…

A

BP is high
Baroreceptors sense → brain slows the heart → vasodilation of arterioles

177
Q

If stretch in the carotid arteries and aorta are low…

A

BP is low
Baroreceptors sense → brain speeds heart → vasoconstriction or arterioles

178
Q

What are 5 pathophysiological effects of high blood pressure (hypertension)?

A

Atherosclerotic plaques and blood clots
Left ventricle hypertrophy
Aneurysms
Hypertensive retinopathy
Chronic kidney disease (CKD)

179
Q

How does atherosclerotic plaques + blood clots occur from high blood pressure?

A

Damages endothelial cells lining arteries
Clots block coronary arteries → heart attack
Clots in brain → stroke

180
Q

What are the 3 types of strokes?

A

Ischaemic stroke (85%)
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
Haemorrhagic stroke

181
Q

What is an ischaemic stroke?

A

Blood clot forms on a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque, blocking blood flow to an area of the brain

182
Q

What is transcient ischaemic attack?

A

Mini stroke
Temporary occlusion, the clot dissolves by itself

183
Q

What is a haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Damage to blood vessels, leakage of blood into surrounding brain tissue

184
Q

What is left ventricular hypertrophy?

A

Heart has to contract more to push blood through a high pressure system
Thicker walls = less blood

185
Q

What are aneurysms?

A

Thinning and bulging of arteries

186
Q

What is capillary exchange?

A

The exchange of substances between the blood and tissues in the capillaries

187
Q

How does capillary exchange occur at the arteriole end?

A

Hydrostatic pressure: blood pressure forces fluid out containing nutrients + oxygen

188
Q

How does capillary exchange occur at the venous end?

A

Oncotic pressure: fluid carrying CO2 is drawn back into capillary by osmosis (bcos higher concentration of protein solute (albumin))

189
Q

What is the end result of capillary exchange?

A

Small net gain of tissue fluid/ extracellular fluid near cells
Extra fluid taken up by the lymphatic system -> returned to heart

190
Q

How is excess tissue fluid removed by the lymphatic system?

A

Taken up into lymph vessel, taken back to veins near heart (superior vena cava), thus added back into blood circulation

191
Q

What does lymph contain?

A

Tissue fluid (water, ions, urea)
Lymphocytes
Lipids from digestion

192
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

Filters lymph on the way to the heart to detect any pathogens

193
Q

What are the 2 primary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus: site of T-lymphocyte maturation + release
Bone marrow: site of B-lymphocyte development + maturation

194
Q

What are the 3 secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Tonsils: made mostly of lymphocytes, detects virus/ bacteria entering via mouth

Lymph nodes: made mostly of lymphocytes, detects virus/ bacteria in the lymph as it flows through

Spleen: made of red + white pulp, red filters out old red blood cells, white (made of lymphocytes) filters virus/bacteria from blood

195
Q

What is the medical name for swollen lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy

196
Q

What is the medical name for painful swollen lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenitis

197
Q

Why does lymphadenopathy occur?

A

Local infections
Upper respiratory infections
1% from cancer

198
Q

What causes inflammation?

A

Damage to tissues

199
Q

What is the vascular response to inflammation?

A

Vasodilation -> increases blood
flow, brings immune cells that release signals that activate nearby neurons, causing pain

Endothelial cell layer becomes leaky
and ‘sticky’ (so immune cells adhere)

200
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation? Why do they occur?

A

Heat: extra blood arriving

Swelling: more fluid moving out into
tissues by hydrostatic pressure,
carrying immune cells

Redness: extra blood flow

Pain: stimulation of nearby neurons

201
Q

What is a 5th cardinal sign of inflammation?

A

Immobility: due to swelling + pain

202
Q

What are 5 main functions of the respiratory system?

A

Continuous supply of oxygen to cells
Removes waste gas (CO2)
Produces sound
Provides sense of smell
Protects airways from harmful substances + pathogens

203
Q

How can the respiratory tract be divided?

A

Structure: upper respiratory tract + lower respiratory tract
Function: conducting zone + respiratory zone

204
Q

What are the 3 components of the upper respiratory tract?

A

Nasal cavity
Pharynx
Larynx

205
Q

How is the nasal cavity specialised to trap particles?

A

Nasal septum
Vestibule area (nostril) has stratified squamous epithelium (robust surface) + course hairs

206
Q

How is the nasal cavity specialised to humidify/warm air?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium cells (respiratory epithelium) and goblet cells (secretes mucous)
Rich blood supply under surface

207
Q

How is the nasal cavity specialised to purify air?

A

Turbinates (conchae) inside the cavity increase surface area and swirl air, trapping particles of dust/pathogens

208
Q

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

Extension of nasal cavity, linked by bony channels
Air filled cavities in the skill and bones around the nose- lined with columnar ciliated pseudostratified epithelium and goblet cells

209
Q

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Maxillary sinus
Sphenoid sinus

210
Q

What are 3 purposes of paranasal sinuses?

A

Source of moisture (mucus) if nasal cavity is dry
Role in resonance (important for quality + tone of voice), thus why voice changes during a cold (extra mucus)
Makes skull lighter, frontal sinus acts as a crumple zone for cranium

211
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

Muscular tube
Lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium, with goblet cells, (also mucous glands)

212
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx superior to inferior?

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx*
Laryngopharynx*

  • also in gastrointestinal system, as passageway shared for food and air
213
Q

Describe the structure of the larynx

A

Connects pharynx with trachea
Lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Reinforced by cartilage

214
Q

What structures does the larynx contain?

A

Epiglottis: shuts of larynx during swallowing

Vocal folds (covered by stratified squamous epithelium): closes during swallowing, generates sound for speech

215
Q

Describe the structure of the lungs

A

Right has 3 lobes: superior + middle + inferior
Left has 3 lobes: superior + inferior

Cardiac notch allows space for the heart in the mediastinal cavity

Hilum (medial lung surface): bronchi + pulmonary arteries enter, pulmonary veins exit

216
Q

What are the 5 components of the lower respiratory tract?

A

Lungs
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveoli

217
Q

What is the pleura?

A

Double layered membrane surrounding each lung

218
Q

What is the structure of the pleura membranes?

A

Visceral pleura: inner layer attached directly to lung surface
Parietal pleura: outer layer attached to chest wall + diaphragm + mediastinum, lines thoracic cavity
Diaphragmatic pleura: contacts the diaphragm

Pleural cavity: thin space between visceral/parietal pleura, filled with pleural fluid

219
Q

What are the 5 functions of the pleura?

A

Lubrication: fluid minimises frictions between lung + chest wall, smooth movement during respiration

Surface tensions: maintains lung inflation by keeping 2 pleural layers adhered

Bond: fluid creates bond, so if thorax moves up + out pulls lungs with it to help expansion

Protection: barrier to separate lungs from other structures in thoracic cavity

Pressure regulation: negative pressure essential for lung expansion

220
Q

What is the trachea?

A

Flexible tube 10cm long, 2cm wide
Lined by respiratory epithelium, interspersed by goblet cells
Stack of 16-20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage, open part faces posterior to permit expansion of oesophagus during swallowing

Ends at carina bifurcation (divides to R/L bronchi)

221
Q

What is the structure of bronchioles?

A

Smooth muscle + less cartilage, relies on elastic tissue for support
Epithelium becomes simple ciliated columnar, few mucous glands
Goblet cells replaced by clara/club cells, produces less viscous secretion

222
Q

What is the structure of bronchi?

A

Cartilage + layer of smooth muscle
Lined by respiratory epithelium + goblet cells

Primary bronchi: R/L
Secondary bronchi: 3 in R, 2 in L
Tertiary bronchi: 10 in R, 8-10 in L

223
Q

What are terminal bronchioles?

A

Smallest bronchioles
End of conducting zone
Ciliated simple cuboidal epithelium
Smooth muscle cells
Fewer goblet, more Clara

224
Q

What are respiratory bronchioles?

A

First part of respiratory zone
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Contains small outpouchings (alveoli)

225
Q

How are alveoli adapted for respiration?

A

Thin walls (simple squamous epithelium)- efficient gas exchange via diffusion

150mil alveoli /lung- huge surface area for diffusion

Extensive network of capillaries: covers each alveoli to allow diffusion across a wide area of the lungs

226
Q

What are the different pneumocytes on alveoli?

A

Type I - thin simple squamous epithelium walls
Type II- lipid layer, fluid prevents alveoli collapsing in on itself

227
Q

What is external respiration?

A

Exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveoli and pulmonary capillaries

228
Q

What is internal respiration?

A

Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues

229
Q

What is the equation for cellular respiration?

A

Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + ATP (+ heat)

230
Q

Is ventilation automatic?

A

Yes but can override it by consciously changing breathing pattern
Pattern also changes during speech

231
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Continuous movement of inspiration followed by expiration in a repeating cycle

232
Q

What are the 3 most important structures for ventilation?

A

Diaphragm
Ribs
Intercostal muscles

233
Q

What is the anatomy of the diaphragm?

A

Dome shaped muscle that separates the thoracic region from the abdominal region
Attaches anteriorly to ribcage, posteriorly to vertebral column
Openings to allow for descending aorta + ascending inferior vena cava + oesophagus

234
Q

What does ventilation depend on changes in?

A

Volume and pressure in the thoracic cavity

235
Q

What are the ribs?

A

12 pairs
Fairly mobile, through hinge joints with spinal vertebrae + cartilage joints with sternum
Allows movement up+out for inspiration, down+in for expiration

236
Q

What is the sternum (breastbone)

A

Flat, midline of anterior thorax
Attached to ribs by costal cartilage

237
Q

What is the vertebrae?

A

Spinal column
33, separated by fibrocartilage discs

238
Q

What are the 5 divisions of the vertebrae?

A

Cervical (neck region): C1-C7
Thoracic (thorax): T1-T12
Lumbar: L1-L5
Sacral: S1-S5 fused
Coccygeal (coccyx region): 4 fused

239
Q

How do the ribs attach to the thoracic vertebrae?

A

T1-T10 attach via costovertebral joints
T11-T12 floating ribs attach only to vertabral bodies

240
Q

What is the role of the diaphragm?

A

Primary muscle of inspiration
Contraction = flattens, caused by phrenic nerve

241
Q

How are the intercostal muscles connected to the ribs?

A

Each rib connected to rib below by 1 external intercostal muscle + 1 internal intercostal muscle

242
Q

What does contraction of the external intercostal muscle do?

A

Elevates rib, spreads them apart

243
Q

What does contraction of the internal intercostal muscle do?

A

Depresses ribs, pulls them closer
Used in forced expiration (not quiet breathing)

244
Q

What is the breathing mechanism for inspiration?

A

External intercostal muscles contract
Ribs pulled up + out
Diaphragm pulled down
Lower pressure, higher volume
Air moves in

245
Q

What is the breathing mechanism for expiration?

A

External intercostal muscles relax
Ribs pulled down + in
Diaphragm relaxes up
Higher pressure, lower volume
Air moves out
- pause, then inspiration starts again

246
Q

What are the 3 accessory muscles for inspiration? (used for heavy exercise, shouting etc)

A

Sternocleidomastoid (elevates sternum)
Scalenes group (elevates upper ribs)
Pectorialis minor

247
Q

What is the accessory muscle for expiration?

A

Abdominals

248
Q

What are the 4 lung capacity measurements?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume
Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Residual volume

249
Q

What is the tidal volume?

A

Amount of air passing in/out of lungs during each cycle of quiet breathing
~500mL

250
Q

What is the inspiratory reserve volume?

A

Largest volume of air inspired during forced inspiration, after the tidal volume
~3L

251
Q

What is the expiratory reserve volume?

A

Largest volume of air expelled during forced expiration, after the tidal volume
~1.5L

252
Q

What is the residual volume?

A

Volume of air in lungs after forced expiration, never completely empty
~1L

253
Q

What is the inspiratory capacity?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume

254
Q

What is the functional residual capacity?

A

Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

255
Q

What is one’s vital capacity?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume
Measure of lung health

256
Q

Where is the respiratory centre located?

A

Brainstem
- medulla oblongata
- pons

257
Q

What are the 2 regions of the medulla oblongata that controls respiration?

A

Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
- stimulates expiration by stimulating internal intercostal muscles + abdominal muscles when needed
- may also activate inspiration during heavy exercise

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
- stimulates inspiration by activating external intercostals + diaphragm

258
Q

What are the 2 regions of the pons that controls respiration?

A

COntrols rate + depth of breathing…

Apneustic area
- stimulates inspiratory centre, prolonging contraction of inspiratory muscles

Pneumotaxic area
- inhibits inspiratory centre, limiting contraction of inspiratory muscles, prevents lungs overinflating

259
Q

What are the 3 main factors affecting breathing rate?

A

Pulmonary stretch receptors
Peripheral chemoreceptors
Central chemoreceptors

260
Q

How do the pulmonary stretch receptors affect breathing rate?

A

Lungs inflate, receptors detect pressure increase
Communicated to respiratory centre of brain
Inhibits apneustic area of pons
Inhibits inspiratory neurons in DRG
Allows expiration (passive recoil)

261
Q

How do peripheral chemoreceptors affect breathing rate?

A

Aortic bodies in arch of aorta
Carotid bodies in carotid arteries

Detects changes in (low) O2 + (high) CO2 + (low) pH

Nerves end in medulla oblongata, in the tractus solitarius
- activates DRG to increase breathing rate to rid CO2

262
Q

How do central chemoreceptors affect breathing rate?

A

In medulla, detects pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid (due to CO2 fluctuations)

  • activates DRG
  • activates VRG

Together, increased breathing rate to rid CO2

263
Q

What are 5 other factors affecting breathing rate?

A

Emotional stress/anxiety (linked to symp NS)
Pain
Air resistance (eg: asthma)
Fever (increased O2 demand, increased BR)
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

264
Q

What is the endocrine system made up of?

A

All the body’s different endocrine glands, tissues, and hormones

265
Q

What are glands? What are the 2 types?

A

Structures made of epithelial cells that secrete a particular substance
Exocrine
Endocrine

266
Q

Where do exocrine glands secrete fluid/ions/enzymes into?

A

A duct to another organ / outside the body (eg: tear duct)

267
Q

Where do endocrine glands secrete hormones into?

A

The blood

268
Q

What is an example of a gland that is both exocrine and endocrine?

A

Pancreas
Exocrine- pancreatic enzymes secreted into duct to small intestine
Endocrine- insulin into blood

269
Q

What are the 3 types of hormones? Give examples for each

A

Protein: growth hormones, insulin, ADH
Steroid: oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone
Amine: thyroid hormone, adrenaline

270
Q

What are protein hromones?

A

Water soluble (non-steroidal)
Several proteins joined in a polypeptide chain (smaller)

271
Q

What are steroid hormones?

A

Lipid soluble
Synthesised from cholesterol

272
Q

What are amine hormones?

A

Hormones derived from the modification of single amino acids

273
Q

How do hormones work?

A

Carried in the blood to the target cells
- protein/amine bind to receptor on target cell membrane, series of reactions in cell, hormone moves to nucleus
- lipid dissolve, cross cell membrane and bind to receptor inside target cell
Change in genes expressed + activity of cell

274
Q

What are some of the major glands in the endocrine system?

A
275
Q

Which region of the brain is responsible for most endocrine control?

A

Hypothalamus main integrating centre that controls homeostasis of several hormones
ie: (regulating temp + fluid balance)

276
Q

What is the anatomy of the pituitary gland?

A

Located in pituitary fossa in the skull
Connected to hypothalamus by a stalk known as infundibulum
2 lobes
- antieror pituitary (adenohypophysis)
- posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)

277
Q

Why is it important for the lobes of the pituitary gland to have rich blood supply?

A

Needs to release hormones into blood

278
Q

What controls the release of hormones from the pituitary gland?

A

Neurons in the hypothalamus

279
Q

What are the 6 hormones of the anterior pituitary?

A

Growth hormone (GH)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinising hormone (LH)
Prolactin

280
Q

What is growth hormone (GH) essential for?

A

Growth in children
Metabolism regulation in adults
Acts on adipose + bone + muscle

281
Q

What does thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) do?

A

Promotes synthesis of thyroid hormones crucial for metabolism + energy regulation

282
Q

What does follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) do?

A

Gamete production in males and females
Females- stimulates oestrogen secretion, maturation of follicle
Males- sperm maturation

283
Q

What does luteinising hormone (LH) do?

A

Triggers ovulation + secretion of progesterone in females
Triggers testes for testosterone production in males

284
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

Stimulates milk production in lactating females + affects reproductive functions

285
Q

What are the 2 hormones of the posterior pituitary?

A

Oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) / vasopressin

286
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

Crucial role in childbirth + lactation
Stimulates urine contractions + milk ejections
Also: love/bonding hormone kept through evolution

287
Q

What does ADH / vasopressin do?

A

Regulates water retention in the kidneys (constricts blood vessels, thus controls BP + fluid balance)

288
Q

What is the anatomy of the thyroid gland?

A

Neck regin
Highly vascularised (good blood supply)
Follicular cells secrete thyroxine
Parafollicular/C-cells secrete calcitonin (if blood calcium high)

289
Q

What are the 2 forms of thyroid hormones?

A

T4 (thyroxine) -inactive
T3 (triiodothyronine) -active

  • all T4 converted into T3
290
Q

How does T3 act on all cells of the body?

A

Increasing metabolic rate + heat production

291
Q

What is thyroid hormone essential for?

A

Normal growth and development
Healthy brain function

292
Q

How does thyroid hormone (TH) levels fluctuate daily?

A

Highest after waking up (starts metabolism + E production for the day)
Decreases during the day, falls at night

293
Q

What is the negative feedback for when thyroid hormone (TH) falls at night?

A

Hypothalamus detects ↓ TH
Hypothalamus releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
TRH signals pituitary to release TSH
TSH acts on thyroid to ↑ TH

294
Q

What can surgery on the thyroid gland affect?

A

Vocal cords, as close to larynx

295
Q

What are the 2 thyroid disorders that can affect speech?

A

Hyperthyroidism (high TH)
Hypothyroidism (low TH)

296
Q

How does hyperthyroidism affect speech/swallowing?

A

Higher metabolic rate
- high pitched, tremulous, uneven intonation, vocal fatigue
- swelling of thyroid can compress trachea -> dysphagia

297
Q

How does hypothyroidism affect speech/swallowing?

A

Lower metabolic rate
- retarded laryngeal development + muscle atrophy -> weak voice
- oedema (fluid retention) in vocal tract may prevent complete closure of larynx during phonation + poor articulation from tongue/lip swelling
- swelling of thyroid can compress trachea -> dysphagia

298
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

2 glands (4 total) on posterior thyroid lobes

299
Q

What hormone do the parathyroid glands secrete?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) when blood calcium (Ca2+) low
PTH stimulates osteoclasts (bone cells) to release calcium from bones to blood

300
Q

What is the anatomy of the adrenal glands?

A

Located on top of each kidney
Adrenal cortex + adrenal medulla + connective protective capsule

301
Q

What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis?

A

ACTH from anterior pituitary stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol)
- increases glucose + protein + lipid availability in stressful situations (more nutrients for energy)
When cortisol rises, hypothalamus inhibits ACTH from pituitary

302
Q

What hormones does the adrenal medulla release?

A

Adrenaline (epinephrine)
Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

303
Q

Which part of the brain controls the adrenal medulla?

A

Neural control form hypothalamus- doesn’t involve other hormones so released in seconds

304
Q

What does adrenaline do?

A

Releases a short burst of ATP in muscle cells
- increases cardiac activity
- increases skeletal muscle activity

305
Q

What does noradrenaline do?

A

Increase blood pressure

306
Q

What is the short term stress response?

A

Heartbeat and BP increase
Blood glucose level rises
Muscles become energised

307
Q

What are the specialised cells in the pancreas?

A

Alpha cells and beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans

308
Q

How do beta cells help glucose regulation?

A

Secrete insulin when blood glucose high
- uptake of glucose in muscle + liver + fat cells
- liver + muscles store glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis)
Lowers blood glucose

309
Q

How do alpha cells help glucose regulation?

A

Secrete glucagon when blood glucose low
- stimulates liver to convert glycogen back to glucose (glycogenesis)
- promotes glucode production from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis)
Increases blood glucose

310
Q

What is the negative feedback control of LH and FSH called?

A

Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis

311
Q

How does testosterone affect the male voice?

A

Increased size of the thyroid cartilage of the larynx
Adam’s apple prominent
Vocal folds elongated -> lower pitch + deeper voice

312
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the nervous system?

A

Processing info and communication- receives sensory input from in/external environment, integrating system so formulates + executes appropriate responses using effectors

Significant role in homeostasis

Involved in higher processes

313
Q

What is the organisation/divisions of the nervous system?

A
314
Q

What does the brain do?

A

Receives and processes info
Initiates responses, stores memories, generates thoughts + emotions

315
Q

What does the spinal cord do?

A

Conducts signals (nerve impulses) to/from brain
Transmits nerve impulses to/from body
Controls reflex actions

316
Q

What does the peripheral nervous system consist of?

A

All nerves outside the brain, connecting CNS to limbs + organs

317
Q

What does the somatic nervous system consist of?

A

Spinal nerves: 31 pairs
- emerge from spinal cord- transmits sensory + motor signals b/w CNS and rest of body

Cranial nerves- 12 pairs
- emerge from brain + brainstem- transmits sensory + motor signals b/w CNS and head&neck, and automatic functions

318
Q

What does the somatic nervous system do?

A

Sensory input: transmits sensory info from skin/muscles/joints to CNS -> we perceive touch/pain/temperature/body position

Motor output: controls voluntary movements by connecting CNS to skeletal muscles

319
Q

What does the sympathetic branch of the ANS do?

A

Reaches virtually all body parts
Innervates both sides of the spinal cord
Fight or flight responses in organs + tissues

320
Q

What does the parasympathetic branch of the ANS do?

A

More localised to certain organs + glands
Innervates both sides of the spinal cord
Rest and digest responses in organs + tissues

321
Q

How does the sympNS and parasympNS work together?

A

Like a dial, one more prominent than the other

322
Q

What are the 3 main brain regions?

A

Cerebrum
Brainstem
Cerebellum

also…
forebrain: cerebrum
midbrain: midbrain (superior brainstem)
hindbrain: pons, medulla, cerebellum

323
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

324
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Coordinates movement of all muscle groups

325
Q

What is the cerebral cortex?

A

Outermost layer of the cerebrum
Dense layer of interconnected neurons (grey matter) which process & respond to info

326
Q

What are the 5 lobes of the cerebrum?

A

Frontal lobe
parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe
Insula lobe

  • all pairs
327
Q

What are the 5 functions of the frontal lobe?

A

Executive functions
Emotional regulation (impulse control)
Motor function
Speech
Moral judgement

328
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

A

Integrates sensory info (touch, temp, pressure, pain)

329
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

Major visual processing centre

330
Q

What are the 3 functions of the temporal lobe?

A

Hearing
Recognising language
Forming memories

331
Q

Where does the insula lobe lie?

A

Under the fissure between the frontal and temporal lobes

332
Q

What are the 3 functions of the insula lobe?

A

Regulating desires/emotion/mood/behaviour
Sensory processing
Planning + execution of speech movements

333
Q

How is the surface of the brain described? What does it have on it?

A

Convoluted (not smooth)

Gyrus- raised area
Sulcus- groove
Fissure- deep groove

334
Q

What are 2 notable gyri?

A

Pre-central gyrus (motor cortex)
Post-central gyrus (sensory cortex)

335
Q

What is a notable fissure?

A

Longitudinal fissure: divides brain into R/L hemispheres

336
Q

What are 3 notable sulci?

A

Central sulcus: between frontal and parietal lobes
Lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissue): between frontal and parietal, and temporal lobes
Parieto-occipital sulcus: between parietal and occipital lobes)

337
Q

What are 6 major regions on the cerebral cortex?

A

Primary motor cortex (frontal)
Primary somatosensory cortex (parietal)
Visual cortex (occipital)
Auditory cortex (temporal)
Olfactory cortex (temporal)
Gustatory cortex (insula)

338
Q

What does the primary motor cortex do?

A

Executes motor functions for skeletal muscle

339
Q

What does the primary somatosensory cortex do?

A

Receives sensory info from the somatic NS (pain temperature, pressure, vibration, joint location)

340
Q

What are the 2 areas of the brain responsible for speech and language?

A

Broca’s area: left frontal lobe
Wernicke’s area: left temporal lobe

note: dotted lines = associated areas, not specifically there
note: close together as they act together

341
Q

What is Broca’s area for?

A

Linguistic encoding: thoughts / ideas/ sensory experiences converted into language for communication
Production of speech / written language

342
Q

What is Wernicke’s area for?

A

Spoken / written language comprehension
Monitoring of speech production

343
Q

What are Brodmann areas?

A

52 regions of cerebral cortex mapped + defined based on unique cellular structures and organisation

344
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

Thick bundle of neurons that connects R+L hemispheres
Enables transfer of info (sensory/motor/cognitive) between R+L hemispheres

345
Q

What does the arcuate fasciculus do?

A

Connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s

346
Q

What can damage to the areas of the brain responsible for language (Broca / Wernicke) result in?

A

Broca’s aphasia
Wernicke’s aphasia

347
Q

What can damage to the arcuate fasciculus lead to?

A

Conduction aphasia: affects communication between areas

348
Q

Where is the medulla oblongata located?

A

Continuous with spinal cord through foremen magnum (hole in base of school)
Superiorly, its continuous with pons

349
Q

What are the 5 distinguishing anatomical features of the medulla?

A

Cardiovascular + respiratory centres
Pyramidal tract (motor) decussation
Dorsal column (sensory) decussation
Medullary olives
Reticular formation

350
Q

How is brainstem anatomy viewed?

A

Transverse planes
Each part then further divided to look at features of dif levels: eg medulla…

351
Q

Where is rostral?

A
352
Q

How does the respiratory centre in the medulla work?

A

DRG and VRG controls muscles of respiratory system to stimulate ventilation

353
Q

How does the cardiovascular centre in the medulla work?

A

Receives info about BP: increases / decreases heart rate and peripheral vascular resistance

354
Q

What are the medullary pyramids?

A

2 large bundles of nerves travelling from motor cortex to spinal cord

First pass through midbrain + pons
Travel down + medially to anterior of medulla as 2 ridges

355
Q

What is the pyramidal decussation?

A

Lower part of medulla oblongata
Pyramids (motor fibre bundles) cross (decussate) to opposite side posteriorly and laterally
Motor neurons control opposite side of body (contralateral)

356
Q

What are the dorsal columns?

A

Bring somatosensory info from spinal cord to medulla
At medulla level: 4 dorsal column nuclei

357
Q

What happens at the dorsal column nuclei?

A

Synapse where neurons travel anteriorly and decussate at medial lemniscus, up to thalamus via medial lemniscus tract

358
Q

Where are the medullary olives located?

A

Upper part of medulla
2 oval-shaped nucleus (group of neurons) on each side

359
Q

What do the medullary olives play a crucial role in?

A

Coordination + learning by transmitting signals to cerebellum
Particularly for fine tuning motor skills

360
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

Network of nerve fibres + nuclei spread throughout brainstem (and sensory + motor system)

361
Q

What is a function of the reticular formation?

A

Coordinate reflexes + posture by interacting with motor pathways, assisting in balance + movement

362
Q

What does the pons do?

A

Acts as a bridge between cerebral cortex and cerebellum

363
Q

What are the 2 important pathways in the pons?

A

Motor tracts descending from motor cortex
Sensory tracts travelling up from spinal cord, some connect with reticular formation

364
Q

What are the 4 anatomical features of the midbrain?

A

Cerebral peduncles
Tectum
- these areas separated by cerebral aqueduct
Red nuclei
Substantia nigra

365
Q

What is the cerebral aqueduct?

A

Central spinal fluid channel

366
Q

What are the cerebral peduncles?

A

Large bundle or motor exams traveling down from cortex to spinal cord (will form pyramids)

367
Q

What are the 2 parts of the tectum?

A

Superior colliculi
Inferior colliculi

368
Q

What does the superior colliculi do (tectum)?

A

Coordinates eye + head movements to follow objects in visual fields

369
Q

What does the inferior colliculi do (tectum)?

A

Coordinates auditory reflexes: turns head towards a sound source

370
Q

What does the red nuclei do?

A

Grey matter connecting cerebellum with descending motor pathways

371
Q

What are the substantia nigra?

A

Grey matter part of the basal nuclei/ganglia, involved in movement control

372
Q

What is the cerebellum involved in?

A

Control of motor activity
Learning motor skills
Balance

  • by controlling rate + range + force of muscular activity
373
Q

What are the cerebellar peduncles?

A

Bundle of nerves connecting to brainstem

374
Q

What do each of the 3 cerebellar peduncles connect the cerebellum to?

A

Superior cerebellar peduncles: cerebral hemispheres
Middle cerebellar peduncles: pons
Inferior cerebellar peduncles: medulla oblongata

375
Q

What are the 3 lobes in the cerebellum?

A

Vestibulocerebellum
Spinocerebellum
Cerebrocerebellum

376
Q

What is the vestibulocerebellum?

A

Connected to brainstem via inferior cerebellar peduncles: involved in balance (links to info from ears)

377
Q

What is the spinocerebellum?

A

Connected to brainstem via superior cerebellar peduncles: influences muscle tone + posture

378
Q

What is the cerebrocerebellum?

A

Connected to brainstem by superior + middle cerebellar peduncles: helps plan + coordinate precise, smooth movements

379
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

System of nuclei located deep in each cerebral hemisphere + midbrain

380
Q

Whata are the 3 parts of the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus
Lentiform nucleus
- globus pallidus
- putamen
Substantia nigra

381
Q

What does the basal ganglia do? Mention 2 disorders that can be affected if the basal ganglia doesn’t work properly

A

Coordinating smooth + steady movements: slows & coordinates
if too slow… Parkinson’s
if too jerky… Huntington’s

382
Q

What is the spinal cord protected by?

A

Vertebrae bones of the spine and vertebral discs (fibrous cartilage)

383
Q

What are the 5 spinal cord regions?

A

Cervical: C!-C8
Thoracic: T1-T12
Lumbar: L1-L5
Sacral: S1-S5
(Coccygeal- 1 pair)

384
Q

How do you determine how severe a spinal injury is?

A

Lower down = less parts of the body affected = less severe

note: can hit spine just one side

385
Q

How can a spinal injury in the thoracic region affect speech?

A

Affects intercostal muscles: hard to build pressure needed for speech

386
Q

What is quadriplegia?

A

Cervical injury: paralysis from neck down

387
Q

What is paraplegia?

A

Thoracic injury: paralysis from trunk down

388
Q

What are the spinal nerves?

A

31 pairs connected to spinal cord
Facilitates communication between brain and body

389
Q

What are the 4 main spinal nerve plexuses?

A

Cervical
Brachial
Lumbar
Sacral
- each give rise to other peripheral nerves

390
Q

What do nerve plexuses do?

A

Form intricate networks that innervate specific regions of the body, allows communication between these regions & brain

391
Q

What are some of the main features in a spinal cord transverse plane?

A

White and grey matter
Ventral and dorsal horns
Paired spinal nerves
* Sensory enters dorsally
* Motor nerves exit ventrally

392
Q

What is the white matter of the spinal cord divided into?

A

Motor/sensory tracts

Speech and Language Therapy Y1 (3 decks)

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