Biology

Question 1

Semi conservative replication

Answer 1

2 DNA strands unzip and each are a template for complementary nucleotides to form new strands ( 2 identical chromosomes)

Question 2

Topoisomerases

Answer 2

Relax supercoiling

Question 3

Helicase

Answer 3

Disrupts H-bonds between bases which unzips DNA

Question 4

DNA primase

Answer 4

Forms short RNA primer which initiates binding of DNA polymerase to parent strands

Question 5

DNA polymerase

Answer 5

Binds to parent strand and travels 5’ to 3’

Question 6

Parent strands are antiparallel which means?

Answer 6

DNA polymerases want to go in opposite directions

Question 7

Leading strand is synthesized __________?

Answer 7

Continuously

Question 8

Lagging strand is synthesized in ___________?

Answer 8

Okazaki fragments ( 200-2000 base pairs separated by 50 base pair gaps )

Question 9

Ligase fills gaps between __________?

Answer 9

Okazaki fragments

Question 10

_______________ replaces RNA primer with DNA nucleotides

Answer 10

Another DNA polymerase

Question 11

DNA

Answer 11

Single origin of replication and 2 replication forks move in opposite directions around chromosome

Question 12

Eukaryotic DNA

Answer 12

Multiple linear chromosomes sopercoiled around histone proteins, multiple origins of replication

Question 13

Telomeres

Answer 13

Numerous at ends of eukaryotic chromosomes and prevent damage to coding regions

Question 14

________ lost from ends of chromosomes with each replication

Answer 14

1

Question 15

When the last telomere is lost, more replication causes chromosome damage which is associated with?

Answer 15

Aging

Question 16

Centromere

Answer 16

Area of a eukaryotic chromosome with repeating bases

Question 17

__________ remain connected at the centromere until disjunction in mitosis or meiosis

Answer 17

2 sister chromatids

Question 18

Okazaki fragments are much shorter in eukaryotes because of differences in ______?

Answer 18

Polymerases

Question 19

Transcription ______ to ______?

Answer 19

DNA to RNA

Question 20

Translation ______ to __________?

Answer 20

RNA to amino acids sequence of proteins

Question 21

______ of genome transcribed

Answer 21

Only a fraction

Question 22

Transcribed section of genome?

Answer 22

Gene

Question 23

Adjacent genes expressed together? (name)

Answer 23

Operon

Question 24

3 steps of Transcription?

Answer 24

Initiation, Elongation, and Termination

Question 25

Transcription: Initiation

Answer 25

Transcription factors bind to the promoter site (TATA box) at start of gene

Question 26

___________ binds to a protein initiation factor to be activated

Answer 26

RNA polymerase

Question 27

Transcription: elongation

Answer 27

Helicase unwinds gene from nucleosome (histones) and unzips

Question 28

RNA polymerase disrupts __________ between base pairs

Answer 28

H- bonds

Question 29

RNA polymerase travels

Answer 29

3’ to 5’

Question 30

Transcription: termination

Answer 30

RNA polymerase reaches terminator poly-A sequence, releases primary mRNA transcript

Question 31

Prokaryotes: mRNA translated to ________ by____________ in__________ ?

Answer 31

Protein Ribosomes Cytoplasm

Question 32

Eukaryotes: mRNA posttranscriptionally modified by________?

Answer 32

miRNA

Question 33

5' ___________ added to 5’ end of the _________________ Poly-A tail added to __________end

Answer 33

Guanine cap. Primary transcript 3’

Question 34

snRNPs “snurps”

Answer 34

Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins 

Question 35

miRNA

Answer 35

microRNA

Question 36

Spliceosomes

Answer 36

Large ribonucle o protein complexes with RNA loops, assembled from snRNPs and proteins

Question 37

Introns

Answer 37

X

Question 38

Exons

Answer 38

X

Question 39

98% of human genome is _________________

Answer 39

Noncoding sequences

Question 40

Noncoding sequences: __________, __________, and __________

Answer 40

Regulate gene expression Are transposons (jumping genes) Have no known function

Question 41

tRNA, rRNA, and other small regulatory or catalytic RNAs are NOT ________________

Answer 41

Translated

Question 42

Every 3 nucleotides in mRNA

Answer 42

Codon

Question 43

Each codon codes for an __________?

Answer 43

Amino acid

Question 44

Short RNAs, form 3 loop Cloverleaf structure and at the end of the middle loop is an anti-codon

Answer 44

tRNA

Question 45

Determines amino acid attachment to tRNA, and complementary to mRNA codon

Answer 45

Anti-codon

Question 46

tRNA is transported to___________?

Answer 46

Cytoplasm

Question 47

Enzymes attach specific__________________ to each tRNA

Answer 47

Amino acid

Question 48

Complex protein/RNA structures that catalyze translation of the nucleotide sequence of mRNA into amino acid sequence of proteins

Answer 48

Ribosomes

Question 49

Composed of two subunits, one large and one small, made of RNA and proteins (Subunits transcribed and assembled in nucleus and then exported to ER or cytoplasm)

Answer 49

Ribosomes

Question 50

Ribosomes: small subunit binds to ________________?

Answer 50

mRNA

Question 51

Ribosomes: large subunit, 3 active sites ?

Answer 51

A : binds to 1st Aminoacyl tRNA P : binds to 2nd tRNA by peptide binds E : where 1st tRNA exits

Question 52

Translation: 3 steps - ___________ ,__________, & ___________

Answer 52

Initiation Elongation Termination

Question 53

____________ : small ribosomal subunit binds 5' end of mRNA -> initiator tRNA binds to AUG mRNA start codon -> large ribosomal subunit binds to small subunit, with initiator tRNA in the "P" site of the ribosome

Answer 53

Initiation

Question 54

__________ : new tRNA (complementary to 2nd codon) binds in "A" site of ribosome -> ribosome shifts 3 base pairs toward 3' end of mRNA -> "P" site tRNA is ejected and a peptide bond forms between the 1st and 2nd amino acids -> 2nd tRNA is now in "P" site with a dipeptide attached -> new tRNA binds to "A" site -> elongation repeats itself

Answer 54

Elongation

Question 55

__________ : ribosome reaches stop codon -> protein release factors bind to codon and release polypeptide -> ribosome disassemble

Answer 55

Termination

Question 56

__________ : cleave initiator methionine ; cleave preproteins into polypeptides or add ligands (glycosylation, methylation, phosphorylation)

Answer 56

Posttranslation protein modification

Question 57

_____________ - "words" in DNA/RNA language - translated into amino acids, the protein language - 3 nucleotides long with 4 bases - 4^3 or 64 possibilities

Answer 57

Codons

Question 58

________________ - complementary to DNA codons (except U replaces T)

Answer 58

mRNA codons

Question 59

The 3 stop codons ________, ________, & ________. - trigger end of translation and ribosomal separation - do not bind to amino acids

Answer 59

UAA UAG UGA

Question 60

______ (#) tRNAs bind specifically to one of 20 amino acids

Answer 60

61

Question 61

________________ - evolution favors genetic code in which changes in 3rd base position do no result in a change in amino acid sequence (protects from nearly 1/3 of possible mutations) - example GAU, GAC, GAG, & GAA all code for alanine

Answer 61

Redundancy in genetic code

Question 62

________________ single base deletions/insertions can cause transcription frame shift -> entire gene past the mutation no longer codes for the correct protein

Answer 62

Reading frame mutations

Question 63

Genes are regulated through ________ feedback (activation or induction) or ________ feedback (repression)

Answer 63

Positive Negative

Question 64

Switching __________ on/off is key to development and differentiation

Answer 64

Genes

Question 65

____________ is a sequence of DNA containing a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter - gene regulation in prokaryotes - promoter region, operator region, and several genes related to a particular pathway

Answer 65

Operon

Question 66

__________ is binding site for RNA polymerase in Operon

Answer 66

Promoter

Question 67

__________ is on/off switch in Operon

Answer 67

Operator

Question 68

______ operon (E.coli lactose digestion positive feedback repressor protein binds to operator -> lactose binds repressor protein, altering its shape -> releasing protein from operator -> RNA polymerase transcribes lac operon genes -> when lactose is gone, repressor rebinds to operator halting expression

Answer 68

lac

Question 69

________ operon (enzymes to synthesize tryptophan) negative feedback repressor protein binds to operator when it combines with tryptophan (when tryptophan is abundant)

Answer 69

trp

Question 70

Acetylation of histones in nucleosome cause DNA to _________ - genes can be expressed

Answer 70

Uncoil

Question 71

Deacetylation/Methylation os histones causes DNA to __________ - stop genes expression

Answer 71

Supercoil

Question 72

____________ - proteins bind to promoter to start transcription

Answer 72

Transcription factors

Question 73

____________ - DNA sequences that interact with promoter to allow expression

Answer 73

Control elements

Question 74

Groups of control elements are called __________

Answer 74

enhancers

Question 75

____________ bind enhancers and transcription factors which form initiation complex with RNA polymerase at promoter

Answer 75

Mediator proteins

Question 76

____________ bind near the promoter, preventing the initiation complex or RNA polymerase binding

Answer 76

Repressor proteins

Question 77

____________ - increases gene expression - plays critical role in evolution because one version can remain intact while the other changes (genetic drift)

Answer 77

Gene duplication

Question 78

____________ can interfere with transcription or mRNA to stop translation

Answer 78

small noncoding RNAs

Question 79

____________ a DNA molecule coiled around histone proteins (chromatin)

Answer 79

Eukaryotic chromosome

Question 80

Human chromosome has about ____________ million base pairs (bp)

Answer 80

50 - 250 million

Question 81

____________ about 200 base pairs wrapped around each histone

Answer 81

Nucleosome

Question 82

____________ - uncoiled areas of a chromosome - active gene expression - light colored in stained microscope images

Answer 82

Euchromatin

Question 83

____________ - DNA tightly supercoiled - darkly stained (microscope images)

Answer 83

Heterochromatin

Question 84

____________ - repetitive noncoding DNA at ends of each chromosome - protect coding regions from damage over time

Answer 84

Telomeres

Question 85

____________ - DNA sequences - stay connected after replication - hold 2 sister chromatids together until disjunction in mitosis or meiosis

Answer 85

Centromere

Question 86

____________ - fibers attach to the chromatids at the centromere

Answer 86

Kinetichore

Question 87

______________________ - alteration of naturally occurring genomes in organisms for medical, pharmaceutical, agricultural, environmental, or general research purposes - genes isolated from one species or novel genes used to transform another species - human insulin gene was inserted into E.coli to create insulin-producing bacteria

Answer 87

Recombinant DNA technology (biotechnology, genetic engineering or modification)

Question 88

____________ - inserting foreign DNA into a plasmid (extrachromosomal DNA) or bacteriophage virus -> transforms the bacteria - genes of interest linked to a marker (ex: antibiotic resistance, phosphorescence) -inserting foreign DNA into the plasmid or viral genome uses restriction enzymes which cleave DNA at specific sequences where the ends of segments are offset by several bases -> projecting bases (sticky ends) reanneal with foreign DNA in the plasmid or viral DNA

Answer 88

Bacterial transformation

Question 89

____________ - use different restriction enzymes to cut genomes into segments -> separated by electrophoresis -> used to locate/isolate specific genes

Answer 89

DNA libraries

Question 90

____________ - made using reverse transcriptase & DNA polymerase to make DNA from mRNA - a specific cDNA library reflects proteins synthesized by a cell at that stage in the cell cycle, a step in proteomic research or to isolate specific genes

Answer 90

cDNA

Question 91

____________ - used to clone/amplify DNA sequences - requires primers (complementary to 3' ends of target strands - primers facilitate polymerization - DNA is heated, polymerized, reheated, and repolymerized, doubling the DNA each time

Answer 91

PCR

Question 92

____________ - spliced next to a promoter region to assure their expression in host cells

Answer 92

cloned genes

Question 93

____________ - having 2 copies of the genome - zygotes - somatic cells

Answer 93

diploid

Question 94

____________ - having one copy of the genome - gametes

Answer 94

haploid

Question 95

____________ - unit of heredity - sequence of DNA - codes for protein or nontranslated RNA

Answer 95

Gene

Question 96

____________ - one of several variants of a gene - results from inherited mutations of a gene

Answer 96

Allele

Question 97

____________ - outward expression of a trait - morphological, physiological, or behavioral

Answer 97

Phenotype

Question 98

____________ - the actual combination of possible alleles of a gene

Answer 98

genotype

Question 99

____________ - having 2 identical alleles of a gene

Answer 99

homozygous

Question 100

____________ - having 2 different alleles of a gene

Answer 100

heterozygous

Question 101

____________ - position of a gene on a chromosome

Answer 101

locus

Question 102

____________ - all the genes in an individual of a species

Answer 102

genome

Question 103

____________ - all the alleles of a gene or set of genes in a population

Answer 103

gene pool

Question 104

____________ - shows in phenotype when homozygous or heterozygous

Answer 104

dominant

Question 105

____________ - expressed only if there are 2 of the recessive alleles

Answer 105

recessive

Question 106

____________ - heterozygotes show distinct or intermediate phenotype

Answer 106

Incomplete dominance

Question 107

____________ - both alleles expressed - ex: ABO blood groups (AB blood)

Answer 107

Codominance

Question 108

____________ - degree to which genotype is expressed in the phenotype of a fraction of population with that genotype - ex: 50-70% women with BRCA1 mutation develop breast cancer

Answer 108

Penetrance

Question 109

____________ - degree of phenotype variation among individuals with same genotype

Answer 109

Expressivity

Question 110

____________ - a single gene affecting several traits

Answer 110

Pleiotropy

Question 111

____________ - 1 gene influencing the phenotype of another gene

Answer 111

Epistasis

Question 112

____________ - Mendel noticed that results of monohybrid crosses were always a 3:1 dominant:recessive ratio - concluded that each trait was controlled by 2 copies of a gene and gametes randomly receive 1 copy of each gene

Answer 112

Random segregation

Question 113

____________ - 9:3:3:1 phenotypic results of dihybrid crosses involving 2 heterozygous traits - concluded genes on separate chromosomes sort independently

Answer 113

Independent assortment

Question 114

____________ - loci on the same chromosomes that do not sort independently

Answer 114

linked genes

Question 115

____________ - sections of DNA from 1 chromosome crossover to its homologue, altering predicted ratios by changing linkage patterns

Answer 115

Recombination

Question 116

____________ - males inherit X chromosome from mother and Y chromosome from father - males inherit X cannot be heterozygous for sex-linked traits

Answer 116

Sex-linkage

Question 117

____________ - extranuclear inheritance - inherited matrilineally

Answer 117

mitochondrial genes

Question 118

____________ - diploid eukaryotic cell division to produce 4 haploid gametes

Answer 118

meiosis

Question 119

____________ - in diploid cell, replicated homologous pairs unite in synapse -> from tetrads comprised of 4 chromatids, connected by synaptonemal protein complex -> recombination, trading segments of paternal and maternal homologues can occur -> homologous chromosomes separate -> cell divides, forms 2 haploid cells

Answer 119

1st meiotic division

Question 120

____________ - replicated chromosomes line up individually along equator -> chromatids are pulled apart and the resulting cells for 1n gametes

Answer 120

2nd meiotic division

Question 121

____________ - eukaryotic cell divides, forming identical 2n cells - replicated chromosomes line up singly at equator of cell -> chromatids disjoin -> cytokinesis form daughter cells - reproduction in unicellular eukaryotes - growth & repair in multicellular eukaryotes

Answer 121

Mitosis

Question 122

Cell Cycle : ________, ________, ________, ________, & ________

Answer 122

Interphase Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase

Question 123

____________ - in breeding experiments, normal traits without induced mutations

Answer 123

Wild type

Question 124

____________ - between 2 individuals heterozygous for a gene - results in 1:2:1 genotypic and 3:1 phenotypic ratios in simple dominance genes - incomplete dominance traits yield a 1:2:1 ratio for both genotype and phenotype

Answer 124

monohybrid cross

Question 125

____________ - parents heterozygous for 2 unlinked genes - 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio

Answer 125

dihybrid cross

Question 126

____________ - a cross between a dominant individual of unknown genotype with a known recessive (if any recessive offspring, dominant parent must be heterozygous

Answer 126

testcross

Question 127

____________ - breeding offspring with parent to retain desirable phenotypes

Answer 127

backcross

Question 128

____________ - rates of recombination determine distances between linked genes - restriction enzyme library hybridization provides more detail - genome sequencing provides most detail

Answer 128

gene mapping

Question 129

____________ - analysis of a trait through multiple generations

Answer 129

pedigree analysis

Question 130

____________ - statistically determines allele frequencies in population

Answer 130

Hardy -Weinberg equilibrium

Question 131

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium conditions include, ________, ________, ________, ________ & ________ (prevent population from evolving) -if 1 or more conditions not met then population undergoes microevolution (change in allele frequencies)

Answer 131

large population random mating no natural selection no mutation no gene flow

Question 132

____________ - biometric statistical methods determine allele frequencies for multiple-allele genes or polygenic traits

Answer 132

quantitative genetics

Question 133

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium p = q = p^2 = 2qp = q^2 = __ + __ = __ + ___ + __ =

Answer 133

p = frequency of dominant allele q = frequency of recessive allele p^2 = frequency of homozygous dominants 2qp = frequency of heterozygotes q^2 = frequency of homozygous recessives p + q = 1 p^2 + 2qp + q^2 = 1

Question 134

____________ - fundamental unit of life capable of carrying out all life functions

Answer 134

Cell

Question 135

____________ - cytoplasm, cell membrane, single circular chromosome, ribosomes - Often cell wall, flagella, or other external structures - Bacteria and Archaea - Unicellular

Answer 135

Prokaryotes

Question 136

____________ - complex cells, numerous internal membrane-bound organelles, multiple complex chromosomes contained inside nucleus - Animals, Plants, & Fungi Unicellular & Multicellular Species

Answer 136

Eukaryotes

Question 137

_______________ - earliest eukaryote engulfed or was invaded by smaller prokaryote which continue to function inside host cell, conferring higher fitness - Explains evolution of eukaryotes, based largely on evidence from mitochondria and chloroplasts, which contain their own DNA and ribosomes similar to those found in prokaryotes

Answer 137

Endosymbiosis

Question 138

_______________ - viscous, intracellular medium - ~70% water - Biochemical/mineral solutes

Answer 138

Cytoplasm

Question 139

_______________ - composed of RNA and protein - sites of proteins synthesis (mRNA translation) - suspended and cytoplasm are embedded in ER or other internal membrane

Answer 139

Ribosomes

Question 140

_______________ - phospholipid bilayer - hydrophilic on both internal and external cell surfaces - hydrophobic in the membrane interior - contains cholesterol & proteins

Answer 140

Plasma membrane

Question 141

_______________ - double membrane - Contains DNA and regulatory proteins

Answer 141

Nucleus

Question 142

_______________ - inside nucleus - site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly

Answer 142

Nucleolus

Question 143

_______________ - aerobic cellular respiration - Double membrane structure - Krebs cycle occurs in matrix - Electron transport chain proteins embedded in inner membrane

Answer 143

Mitochondria

Question 144

_______________ - breakdown cellular waste for export and provide digestive function - Acidic and filled with digestive enzymes (from Golgi body)

Answer 144

Lysosomes

Question 145

_______________ - convoluted membrane network, dotted with ribosomes - New peptide has short amino acid sequence that signals chaperone proteins to move the peptide to destination for folding, modification, activation, & export

Answer 145

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

Question 146

_______________ - lipid and carbohydrate anabolism - Ca2+ balance - detoxification

Answer 146

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

Question 147

_______________ - modifies/packages proteins for export or intracellular delivery

Answer 147

Golgi body

Question 148

_______________ - oxidative enzymes catalyze fats/toxins

Answer 148

Peroxisomes

Question 149

_______________ - proteins provide support, shape, intracellular, transport, so motility, cell adhesion, etc. - Microfilaments (actin) change cell shaped - Intermediate filaments secure the cytoskeleton, help in cell transport and cell adhesion - Microtubules (large hollow protein tubes) parts for motor proteins to transport organelles & rearrange shape for division

Answer 149

Cytoskeleton

Question 150

_______&________ - composed of microtubules attached by basal body - motility

Answer 150

Cilia Flagella

Question 151

_______________ - govern reorganization of cytoskeleton in division - similar to basal bodies

Answer 151

Centrioles

Question 152

_______________ - small unchanged molecules and hydrophobic molecules diffuse through membrane - Ions and larger - Polar molecules cannot penetrate

Answer 152

Semipermeable plasma membrane

Question 153

_______________ - due to random movement of molecules - No energy input

Answer 153

Passive transport

Question 154

_______________ - movement of solutes in fluid from higher to lower concentration

Answer 154

Diffusion

Question 155

_______________ - diffusion of water across membranes from hypotonic to hypertonic

Answer 155

Osmosis

Question 156

_______________ - through transmembrane channel/carrier proteins - by molecules that cannot permeate membranes

Answer 156

Facilitated diffusion

Question 157

_______________ - movement of molecules that requires expenditure of ATP energy

Answer 157

Active transport

Question 158

_______________ - transport substances, through a membrane against a concentration gradient - Na+/K+ pump - Proton pump

Answer 158

Pump proteins

Question 159

_______________ - engulf or expel dissolved substances or particles

Answer 159

Bulk transport (Endocytosis/exocytosis)

Question 160

_______________ - connexon proteins embedded in plasma membranes of cells, conduits between the cytoplasm of each cell - ex: allow cardiac cells to coordinate contraction

Answer 160

Gap junctions

Question 161

_______________ - membrane proteins anchored to Microfilaments cement cells together to form a continuous impermeable surface - ex: blood brain barrier

Answer 161

Tight junctions

Question 162

_______________ - proteins hold cells together, form tissues - interstitial fluid between cells

Answer 162

Desmosomes

Question 163

3 types of cell-to-cell communication _______________ _______________ _______________

Answer 163

Juxtacrine signaling Paracrine signaling Endocrine signaling

Question 164

_______________ - Chemical or charge potential communication - Uses direct cell contact through gap junctions or desmosomes

Answer 164

Juxtacrine signaling

Question 165

_______________ - Chemical signals between cells in close proximity - ex: Neurotransmitters between neurons and effector cells

Answer 165

Paracrine signaling

Question 166

_______________ - Chemical signals via blood - Cells distant from each other

Answer 166

Endocrine signaling

Question 167

_______________ - 40% of all cells - Lines the exterior of body, walls of body openings, body cavities, & glands - regulates passage of materials into or out of the tissue - Lubricates with secretions - Protects from abrasion by rapid regeneration - Secretes basement membrane of lycoprotein/collagen

Answer 167

Epithelial tissue

Question 168

Epithelial tissue: Single layered = __________ Multi layered = __________ Flat = _________ Cubed = __________ Column = _________

Answer 168

Simple Stratified Squamous Cuboidal Columnar

Question 169

_______________ - most abundant tissue type - Forms bones, tendon, ligaments, blood, fat, underlying skin layers, and interstitial matrix (between organs/other structures)

Answer 169

Connective tissue

Question 170

Connective tissue is derived from _______________ - differentiates to cell types of blood cells, fibroblasts, adipocytes, chondrocytes, osteocytes, macrophages, mast cells

Answer 170

Embryonic mesenchyme

Question 171

The connective tissue secretes ___________ made of proteins, polysaccharides, & glycoproteins

Answer 171

Extracellular matrix

Question 172

3 principles of cell theory _______________ _______________ _______________

Answer 172

1. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells. 2. Cells are fundamental living things (viruses/organelles are not considered living) 3. All cells are products of reproduction of pre-existing cells.

Question 173

____________ first recognized cells

Answer 173

'Robert Hooke

Question 174

_______________ observed cellular reproduction, and questioned spontaneous generation of life

Answer 174

Anton von Leeuwenhoek

Question 175

____________ was formulated by Schwann, Schleiden, & Virchow in 1830s although the 3rd principle was not fully accepted until Pasteurs experiments in 1850s

Answer 175

Cell theory

Question 176

_______________ - 2 domains (Archaea & Eubacteria) - all Unicellular - Aerobic or anaerobic environments - Autotrophs or heterotrophs - Mostly pathogenic or symbiotic species

Answer 176

Prokaryotes

Question 177

Prokaryotes Classification : Shape Spherical = __________

Answer 177

Coccus

Question 178

Prokaryotes Classification : Shape Rod = __________

Answer 178

Bacillus

Question 179

Prokaryotes Classification : Shape Spiral = __________

Answer 179

Spirillus

Question 180

Prokaryotes Classification : Grouping Pairs = __________

Answer 180

Diplo

Question 181

Prokaryotes Classification : Grouping Chains = __________

Answer 181

Strepto

Question 182

Prokaryotes Classification : Grouping Branched clusters = ____________

Answer 182

Staphylo

Question 183

Prokaryotes Classification : Cell Wall ____________ have thick peptidoglycan cell walls, & appear stained purple

Answer 183

Gram-positive

Question 184

Prokaryotes Classification : Cell Wall __________ have thin peptidoglycan layer between 2 membranes, and appears stained red/pink (most serious pathogens because lipopolysaccharides on outer membrane’s act as powerful toxins)

Answer 184

Gram-negative

Question 185

Prokaryotes Classification : Metabolism Cannot survive without O2 = ____________

Answer 185

Obligate aerobes

Question 186

Prokaryotes Classification : Metabolism Cannot tolerate O2 = ____________

Answer 186

Obligate anaerobes

Question 187

Prokaryotes Classification : Metabolism Respire with or without O2 = ____________

Answer 187

Facultative anaerobes

Question 188

____________________ - some prokaryotes produce a protective glycoprotein or carbohydrate capsule around their cell walls - In some bacteria this forms an adhesive Biofilm

Answer 188

Glycocalyx

Question 189

____________________ - a thick protein structure protects from adverse conditions

Answer 189

Endospore

Question 190

____________________ - thin protein filament that helps a bacterium attach to a substrate or host cell

Answer 190

Fimbrae

Question 191

____________________ - many move using one or more of the structure - a thin protein filament attached to a spinning base unit - differs in structure in mechanics from eukaryotic type (which whip back and forth) - Bacteria can reverse direction by reversing spinning

Answer 191

Flagella

Question 192

____________________ - mutations that confer resistance

Answer 192

Antibiotic resistance

Question 193

____________________ - prokaryotes that reproduce as quickly as every 20 minutes - The rapid reproduction rate, along with a constant rate of mutation, make bacteria, highly adaptable

Answer 193

Adaptability

Question 194

____________________ - are the most ubiquitous organisms on earth, occupying all possible habitats

Answer 194

Prokaryotes

Question 195

____________________ - prokaryotic DNA, circular molecule attached to plasma membrane in the Nucleoid Region - Transcription and translation occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm

Answer 195

Simple genomes

Question 196

____________________ - small, circular, extragenomic DNA molecules present in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes - Often contain genes that confer antibiotic resistance

Answer 196

Plasmids

Question 197

____________________ - in prokaryotes, plasmids may spliced into or out of the genomic chromosome - this process is mimicked in use of plasmids in biotechnology (recombination)

Answer 197

Transposons

Question 198

____________________ - cell division in prokaryotes, simple and rapid - DNA replicates than the cell divides (starting from a single origin of replication)

Answer 198

Binary fission

Question 199

____________________ - tubular proteins structures protruding from the prokaryotic cell - Function in cell-cell interactions, and as a conduit for transduction (the exchange or transfer of a copy of a plasmid from one bacterium to another)

Answer 199

Pili

Question 200

____________________ - proteins encapsulating a small DNA or RNA chromosome - no metabolic or reproductive processes - take over metabolic, reproductive mechanisms of host cells - evolve in response to changes in hosts - adapt rapidly to immune responses

Answer 200

Viruses

Question 201

Viruses are classified according to __________ , ____________, & ______________ .

Answer 201

Host type (prokaryote, or eukaryote) - host range Capsule composition and structure Nucleic acid type

Question 202

Viruses outside the host are called ____________ .

Answer 202

Virions

Question 203

____________________ - protein capsid surrounding DNA - Complex proteins tail sheath to inject, viral DNA into host bacterium - Tail fibers bond to bacterial cell wall

Answer 203

Bacteriophage virus

Question 204

____________________ - misfolded proteins - enter a host, cause chain reaction of similar proteins misfolding - Creutzfeldt-Jakob & bovine spongiform encephalopathy are diseases

Answer 204

Prions

Question 205

____________________ - tiny circular RNAs that infect plants, but do not contain genes - their presence in a host cell activates RNA silencing mechanisms, halting proteins synthesis

Answer 205

Viroids

Question 206

____________________ - Insert their nucleic acid into host cells, co-opting cells infrastructure to synthesize viral proteins and genomes, which self assemble and exit to infect other cells

Answer 206

Viruses

Question 207

Many viruses alternate between __________cycle & __________ cycle

Answer 207

Lytic cycle Lysogenic cycle

Question 208

____________________ - complete takeover of the host cell transcription and translation process - Rapid production of new viruses - Rupture of host cell releases new viruses

Answer 208

Lytic cycle

Question 209

____________________ - viral DNA splices into host genome - cell continues to function, copying, viral genome (prophage) with each division - Lytic cycle follows

Answer 209

Lysogenic cycle

Question 210

____________________ - prophage causes harmless bacterium to become pathogenic

Answer 210

Lysogenic conversion

Question 211

____________________ - viral RNA is translated on entry into cell

Answer 211

Eukaryotic RNA viruses

Question 212

____________________ - RNA viruses that translate reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that synthesize DNA from RNA - the DNA can then enter a lysogenic cycle

Answer 212

Retroviruses

Question 213

____________________ - A retroviral infection that infects specific cells of the human immune system, and causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) - Infects helper T cells, dendritic cells, & macrophages - Helper T cell numbers decline I - Increase susceptibility to infection & certain cancers

Answer 213

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Question 214

HIV is coated with __________ proteins in lipid membrane remaining from past host cell that fuses with new host cell plasma membrane, allowing viral capsid to enter

Answer 214

Docking

Question 215

HIV inside the host cell (steps) - viral RNA translated by cytoplasmic ____________ - ________________ catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from the viral RNA template - ________________ catalyzing splicing of the viral DNA into host cell DNA - Virus is in __________ phase (hiding) in the host cell genome - Virus enters __________ phase producing billions of new virions, spreading throughout the hosts immune system

Answer 215

Ribosomes Reverse transcriptase Integrase Latent phase Lytic phase

Question 216

____________________ - between and during cell division, cells go through distinct phases - Generation time - Time between divisions - Days in eukaryotes

Answer 216

Cell cycle

Question 217

____________________ - between cell divisions - Contains 3 sub phases

Answer 217

Interphase

Question 218

____________________ - transcription/translation of genes for cell growth/function

Answer 218

G1 phase (1st gap)

Question 219

____________________ - DNA replication - Subphase in interphase

Answer 219

S phase (synthesis)

Question 220

____________________ - similar to G1 but cell division is certain - mitosis follows this phase

Answer 220

G2 phase (2nd gap)

Question 221

In cells that undergo growth arrest, terminal division followed by G1 is followed by __________ (cell continues to function but no more growth or DNA replication)

Answer 221

G0

Question 222

In damaged cells, G2 is followed by ____________

Answer 222

Apoptosis

Question 223

Transition between sub phases is regulated by a series of cell cycle ____________ , proteins that inhibit or prevent synthesis of enzymes that trigger the next phase.

Answer 223

Checkpoints

Question 224

____________________ - asexual reproduction of unicellular eukaryotes - Development, growth, and repair in multicellular eukaryotes

Answer 224

Mitosis M phase

Question 225

____________________ - Replicated chromosomes supercoil (characteristic X shape of replicated sister chromatids connected at centromere) - Nuclear membrane dissolves - Cytoskeleton rearranges microtubules grow outward from the centrioles to form mitotic spindle

Answer 225

Prophase

Question 226

____________________ - Centrioles migrate to poles - Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of each chromatid - replicated chromosomes lineup individually at equator

Answer 226

Metaphase

Question 227

____________________ - disjunction - Sister chromatids split at centromere and pulled to each pole

Answer 227

Anaphase

Question 228

____________________ - chromosomes uncoil then nuclear membranes form around 2 nuclei

Answer 228

Telophase

Question 229

____________________ - Cell contents divide - Cleavage furrow at equator as plasma membrane pinches into 2 cells

Answer 229

Cytokinesis

Question 230

____________________ - forms gametes (1n) in sexual reproducing eukaryotes

Answer 230

Meiosis

Question 231

____________________ - sperm/ova - haploid (1n)

Answer 231

Gamete

Question 232

____________________ - diploid (2n) - homologous pairs of each chromosome

Answer 232

Zygote & somatic cells

Question 233

A human gamete has _____ chromosomes A human diploid cell has _____ chromosomes

Answer 233

23 46

Question 234

Human cells have _____ autosomes & _____ sex chromosome

Answer 234

22 1

Question 235

____________________ - begins with G2 germ cells in gonads - consists of 2 cell divisions

Answer 235

Meiosis

Question 236

____________________ - replicated chromosomes supercoil - nuclear membrane dissolves - spindle fibers link centrioles to centromeres - homologous pairs form tetrads (4 chromatids) and process of synapsis - recombination (crossing-over) possible at Chiasmata (homologous chromatids intersect) - exchange bits of maternal/paternal chromatids

Answer 236

Prophase I

Question 237

____________________ - synapsis continues - homologous chromosome pairs line up at equator

Answer 237

Metaphase I

Question 238

____________________ - homologous chromosome pairs are split apart toward poles

Answer 238

Anaphase I

Question 239

____________________ - reduction division (chromosome number halved) - cell completes division I - daughter cells haploid, nonidentical (chromosomes still replicated)

Answer 239

Telophase I

Question 240

____________________ - similar to mitosis begins with 2 haploid cells

Answer 240

Meiosis II

Question 241

____________________ - chromosomes supercoil - Nuclear membrane dissolves - Spindle forms

Answer 241

Prophase II

Question 242

____________________ - chromosomes lineup individually across equator

Answer 242

Metaphase II

Question 243

____________________ - chromatids split into separate on replicated chromosomes (disjunction), pulled toward poles

Answer 243

Anaphase II

Question 244

____________________ - chromosomes uncondensed - nuclear membrane forms, followed by cytokinesis - result is 4 non-identical haploid gametes

Answer 244

Telophase II

Question 245

____________________ - Spermatogonia line seminiferous tubules ——> - Testosterone triggers mitosis ——-> - 2n spermatocytes ——-> - Meiosis ——-> - 1n spermatids ——-> - Grow flagellum ——-> - Spermatozoa

Answer 245

Spermatogenesis

Question 246

____________________ - Oogonia in ovarian follicles, outer cortex of ovary ——-> - Primary oocytes stop in metaphase II before birth ——-> - Post puberty, several follicles undergo oogenesis monthly ——-> - 1 forms of ovum - oogenesis divisions unequal, all cytoplasm in each division goes to 1 cell ——-> - Forms 3 polar bodies and 1 secondary oocyte ——-> - Becomes ovum upon fertilization

Answer 246

Oogenesis

Question 247

____________________ - sperm survive up to 5 days in female reproductive tract - oocyte viable for 12-24 hours - many sperm reach ovum and uterine tube ——-> - Enzymes break down corona radiata/zona pellucida around oocyte ——-> - 1st sperm to reach oocyte membrane binds sperm receptors ——-> - Ca2+ release prevents additional sperm entry ——-> - oocyte completes meiosis II ——-> - Nuclei fuse to become 2n zygote

Answer 247

Fertilization

Question 248

____________________ - zygote divides as it passes uterine tube ——-> - Forms blastocyst ——-> - Implants in ovary ——-> - Endometrial capillaries erode ——-> - Exchange nutrients/waste with maternal blood ——-> - Blastocyst hCG causes corpus luteum production of progesterone/estrogen

Answer 248

Implantation

Question 249

____________________ - fetal/maternal capillaries intertwine ——-> - form placenta (fetal chorionic villi grow into endometrium) - allantois forms umbilical cord, & connects embryo to placenta

Answer 249

Placentation

Question 250

True or false: No contact between maternal and fetal blood

Answer 250

True

Question 251

Placenta takes oversecretion of progesterone/estrogen by ________

Answer 251

9 weeks

Question 252

____________________ - ~40 weeks from 1st day of last menstruation - in 1st 9 weeks the zygote develops into embryo with limbs in early organ systems - after 9 weeks the fetal development continues until 37-40 weeks - Earlier birth is pre-term

Answer 252

Gestation (pregnancy)

Question 253

____________________ - Labor, uterine contractions ——-> - Causes cervical dilation ——-> - Baby exits through vagina ——-> - Placenta separates from uterine wall and exits separately

Answer 253

Parturition (birth)

Question 254

____________________ - postfertilization, the zygote divides rapidly (cleavage) by mitosis without G1 & G2 stages into a morula (solid ball of progressively smaller cells)

Answer 254

Morulation

Question 255

____________________ - after 6 - 8 divisions the cells of the Morula flatten, forming a tight sphere of cells (blastula) around a fluid filled cavity (blastocoel) - blastula contains outer layer (trophoblast) and inner cell mass that becomes embryo and amniotic tissue - it’s complete by day 7 when implantation occurs

Answer 255

Blastulation

Question 256

____________________ - ~day 12 the gastrula forms - cells derived from inner cell mass then divide into 3 germ layers (Ectoderm, Mesoderm, & Endoderm) - 1 part of trophoblast forms chorionic villi - 1 part of trophoblast forms archenteron - a groove (blastopore) in the archenteron becomes anus in deutrostomes - a groove (blastopore) in the archenteron becomes mouth in protostomes

Answer 256

Gastrulation

Question 257

____________________ - neural tube development (chordates) - mesoderm/ectoderm cell signaling interactions cause ectoderm to form neural plate ——-> folds to become dorsal nerve cord

Answer 257

Neurulation

Question 258

____________________ - 3 primary germ layers differentiate into distinct tissues and organs

Answer 258

Organogenesis

Question 259

The 3 primary germ layers are : _______________ _______________ _______________

Answer 259

Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm

Question 260

____________________ - Nervous system (also pituitary/pineal glands) - Integumentary system (mucous membranes/outer layer of skin, mouth, pharynx, anus) - Epithelial derived structures (hair, follicles, sweat/memory glands, cornea/lens) - Adrenal medulla - Neural crest cells migrate to become epithelium and portions of jaw, teeth, and heart valves

Answer 260

Ectoderm

Question 261

____________________ - Bones/connective tissue ( cartilage, tendons, ligaments, blood, dermis) - Muscle - Circulatory, Lymphatic, Reproductive, Urinary systems (blood vessels, spleen, reproductive organs, kidneys, bladder, smooth muscle) - Adrenal cortex - along notochord, it forms somites ——-> become vertebral column & muscles of spine & rib cage

Answer 261

Mesoderm

Question 262

____________________ - respiratory system (epithelia of trachea, bronchi, alveoli) - Digestive system (epithelia of esophagus, stomach, intestines) - Liver, Pancreas, Lining of Thymus, Thyroid/Parathyroid - Epithelial lining of urethra, bladder, & reproductive systems

Answer 262

Endoderm

Question 263

Zygote is _______________ (differentiates into every cell type)

Answer 263

Totipotent

Question 264

After 5th division, embryonic morula stem cells are _______________ (into 1 of 3 germ layer tissues)

Answer 264

Pluripotent

Question 265

Cells later reach determined state, which means?

Answer 265

There is no change to different cell types

Question 266

____________________ - process of cell specialization - Determines size, shape, metabolism, membrane, potential, & responsiveness to signals - these types of cells are genetically identical, but different genes are turned on/off at specific times in development

Answer 266

Differentiation

Question 267

____________________ - through gap junctions and desmosomes results in asymmetric cell divisions with different genes expressed in daughter cells - affects gene expression in neighboring cells - effect diminishes with distance

Answer 267

Juxtacrine signaling

Question 268

____________________ - occurs at various developmental stages - cell must detach from its original location and form a protrusion at the leading edge. This protrusion, called a lamellipodium, is formed by the polymerization of actin filaments. The cell then uses this protrusion to push itself forward, while the trailing edge of the cell contracts, pulling the cell forward. - As the cell moves forward, it interacts with its environment through specialized proteins called integrins, which anchor the cell to the extracellular matrix. The cell also secretes enzymes called matrix metalloproteinases, which help to break down the extracellular matrix and create space for the cell to move through. Ex : neutral crest cells migrate from neural tube to peripheral sites ——-> differentiate into distinct tissues

Answer 268

Cell migration

Question 269

____________________ - differentiation of pluripotent stem cells is controlled by regulation of cell cycle, and activation or suppression of specific genes

Answer 269

Embryonic development

Question 270

____________________ - changes in gene expression in 1 cell affect genes in another - sets of regulatory genes direct development and differentiation - growth factors (signaling proteins that cause inductive effects on competent cells) - transcriptional factors (Hox genes are responsible for cephalization, segmentation

Answer 270

Induction

Question 271

____________________ - regrowth of damaged tissue - many differentiated cells cannot normally regenerate (muscle or nerve) - liver, bone, & skin regenerate readily

Answer 271

Regeneration

Question 272

____________________ - failure of normal cells to regenerate - Eventually die

Answer 272

Cellular senescence

Question 273

____________________ - programmed cell death due to cell damage - part of normal fetal development & in the postbirth uterus

Answer 273

Apoptosis

Question 274

____________________ - communication by electrochemical signals - receives sensory info (sensory neurons) -----> - processes info -----> - relays response to muscles, glands, & effector cells

Answer 274

Nervous System

Question 275

Neuron bundles form __________ nerves

Answer 275

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

Question 276

Neurons & Glia form the networks of the _______________

Answer 276

Central Nervous System (CNS)

Question 277

____________________ - combination of sensory & motor nerves - contains Somatic Nervous System & Autonomic Nervous System

Answer 277

Peripheral Nervous System

Question 278

____________________ - conscious sensation and movement - includes reflexes

Answer 278

Somatic nervous system

Question 279

____________________ - unconscious visceral senses such as detection of blood pressure or body temperature & unconscious movement - heart contraction & peristalsis

Answer 279

Autonomic Nervous System

Question 280

____________________ - brain/spinal cord processes, integrates, coordinates sensory info & responses

Answer 280

Central Nervous System

Question 281

____________________ - transmit info to spinal cord/brain (CNS) - afferent/inward

Answer 281

Sensory neurons

Question 282

____________________ - transmit info from CNS to muscles/glands (effectors) - efferent/outward

Answer 282

Motor neurons

Question 283

Processing of information occurs in _____________ of CNS

Answer 283

Gray matter - contains the cell bodies - Appears gray because there is no sheath insulation like axons

Question 284

_______________ transmits info between parts of brain or between CNS & PNS

Answer 284

White matter - axons

Question 285

The autonomic nervous system contains the ____________ & the ____________ .

Answer 285

Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

Question 286

____________________ - fight or flight sudden responses

Answer 286

Sympathetic nervous system

Question 287

____________________ - rest and digest body functions

Answer 287

Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 288

________________ Nervous System - Controls digestive function - Distinct from ANS

Answer 288

Enteric nervous system

Question 289

____________________ - involuntary response to stimuli - bypasses cognitive part of brain - Stimulus info via afferent nerve to spinal cord gray matter (or midbrain for senses above neck) ——-> - Immediate response travels and efferent nerve to an effector - Monosynaptic reflex arc (receptor—> sensory neuron—> motor neuron—> effector) - Polysynaptic reflex arc (receptor—> sensory neuron—> CNS interneuron—> Motor neuron—> effector)

Answer 289

Reflex

Question 290

3 structures of a neuron __________ __________ __________

Answer 290

Soma (cell body containing nucleus & organelles) Dendrites (receive stimulus) Axon (long nerve fiber that branches/terminal buds at the end)

Question 291

____________________ - part of axon at soma - Lets signal pass, only if stimulus is sufficient

Answer 291

Axon hillock

Question 292

____________________ - Gap between axon buds and next neuron - Paracrine signaling conveys info

Answer 292

Synapse

Question 293

____________________ - Signal initiated, propagated by opening ion channel —-> - Changes transmembrane electrochemical potential by letting certain ions in/out

Answer 293

Ion channels

Question 294

____________________ - in dendrites - Received chemical signal, open from outside

Answer 294

Ligand gated ion channels

Question 295

____________________ - in the membrane of soma and axon - Electrochemical signal - Open from inside by voltage change

Answer 295

Voltage gated ion channels

Question 296

____________________ - along axon, bulges of white fatty Lipoprotein secreted by certain glia - Schwann in PNS - Oligodendrocytes in CNS

Answer 296

Myelin sheath (lipoprotein =myelin)

Question 297

____________________ - myelinated nerve impulse is faster, because signal jumps between gaps in myelin

Answer 297

Saltatory propagation

Question 298

____________________ - gaps between myelin

Answer 298

Nodes of Ranvier

Question 299

__________ matter = unmyelinated __________ matter = myelinated

Answer 299

Gray matter White matter

Question 300

____________________ - most abundant cells in nervous system - Nourish, protect, & direct growth of neurons - differentiate into 3 types : astrocytes, microglia, & ependymal cells

Answer 300

Glial cells

Question 301

____________________ - glial cell that supports CNS neurons

Answer 301

Astrocytes

Question 302

____________________ - glial cell that protects CNS from infection

Answer 302

Microglia

Question 303

____________________ - glial cell that lines CNS cavities

Answer 303

Ependymal cells

Question 304

____________________ - junction between 2 neurons or neuron & effector cell

Answer 304

Synapse

Question 305

____________________ - cell conveys signal - synapse

Answer 305

Presynaptic

Question 306

____________________ - cell receives signal - synapse

Answer 306

Postsynaptic

Question 307

2 types of synapses are __________ & __________

Answer 307

Chemical synapse Electrical synapse

Question 308

____________________ - paracrine - terminal buds of presynaptic axon, synaptic cleft filled with interstitial fluid, & a postsynaptic cell (neuron or effector) - axon terminals contain vesicles filled with chemical neurotransmitters - When an action potential arrives at terminal bud, the voltage gated calcium channels open —-> - neurotransmitters cross synapse & bind to postsynaptic cell receptors that trigger continued propagation of the signal —-> - neurotransmitters are digested by enzymes or absorbed by the presynaptic neuron

Answer 308

Chemical synapse

Question 309

____________________ - juxtacrine - nerve impulse is directly transmitted from one cell to the next via connexons (proteins channels at gap junctions between cells)

Answer 309

Electrical synapse

Question 310

____________________ - voltage difference a Crossing Neuroal and Membrane when nerve not transmitting signal - ATP energy to maintain - Typically -70mV - Inside membrane negative relative to outside - is established by action of Na+/K+ pump - ATP used to pump Na+ ions outside cell & K+ into cell (3:2 ratio Na:K)

Answer 310

Resting potential

Question 311

____________________ - dendrites receive stimulus —-> alter membrane potential - magnitude of change depends on strength of stimulus

Answer 311

Graded potential

Question 312

____________________ - Na+ channels open, local membrane potential approaches 0 (depolarization) - Strong enough signal at axon hillock triggers it —-> - Voltage gated Na+ channels, open in sequence down axon —-> - Followed by repolarization due to K+ voltage gated channels opening —-> - Resting potential reestablished by Na+/K+ pumps

Answer 312

Action potential

Question 313

____________________ - takes ~2 milliseconds at any point on axon - resting potential restoration (refractory period) takes 2-3 milliseconds more

Answer 313

Depolarization-Repolarization

Question 314

Nerve impulses elicit either ____________ or ____________ responses in target cells

Answer 314

Excitatory response Inhibitory response

Question 315

____________________ - stimulus causes Na+ channels to open —-> - membrane depolarizes —-> - favors action potential, impulse propagation

Answer 315

Excitatory response

Question 316

____________________ - stimulus opens K+ or Cl- channels —-> - Hyperpolarization —-> - inhibits action potential, prevents signal propagation

Answer 316

Inhibitory response

Question 317

Many neurons are capable of both responses : in brain neurons, GABA finding elicits ____________ responses and Glutamate causes ____________ responses

Answer 317

Excitatory Inhibitory

Question 318

.

Question 319

____________________ - is an all-or-nothing response (threshold) to the combination of excitatory & inhibitory responses at axon hillock - intensity of stimulus does not affect voltage change of the action potential - does increase impulses frequency

Answer 319

Nerve firing

Question 320

____________________ - strength of a nerve signal can increase through multiple nerve impulses - Spatial or Temporal

Answer 320

Summation

Question 321

______________ summation - many neurons at once

Answer 321

Spatial

Question 322

_______________ summation - repeated impulses

Answer 322

Temporal summation

Question 323

Both spatial and temporal summation increase ____________ levels

Answer 323

Neurotransmitter

Question 324

____________________ - contains somatic nervous system & autonomic nervous system - 12 cranial nerve pairs (some sensory, motor, & mixed) - 31 spinal pairs (mixed)

Answer 324

Peripheral nervous system

Question 325

__________ of spinal nerves innervate skin, muscle, & viscera

Answer 325

Rami (branches)

Question 326

________________ nervous system - conscious sensation, voluntary movement, & reflexes

Answer 326

Somatic nervous system

Question 327

________________ nervous system - contains sympathetic nervous system & parasympathetic nervous system - regulates unconscious functions - sensory info from muscles/joints/organs - controls smooth/cardiac muscle & glands

Answer 327

Autonomic nervous system

Question 328

____________________ - neuronal clusters, get signals from CNS - axons —-> effector

Answer 328

Autonomic ganglia

Question 329

____________________ - fighter or flight response prepares for sudden activity, fear, or excitement - increases heart rate, blood pressure, blood sugar, & breathing - Dilate pupils - Decrease blood flow to skin & digestive organs - Norepinephrine is main neurotransmitter

Answer 329

Sympathetic nervous system

Question 330

____________________ - rest and digest - conserve energy, stimulate digestion/excretion, maintain heart rate, & anabolism - Acetylcholine is main neurotransmitter

Answer 330

Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 331

____________________ - consists of forebrain & brainstem

Answer 331

Brain

Question 332

____________________ - consists of cerebrum, limbic system, & diencephalon

Answer 332

Forebrain

Question 333

____________________ (part of brain?) - consciousness - Judgment - Sensory processing - Voluntary motor control

Answer 333

Cerebrum

Question 334

____________________ (part of brain?) - Primitive emotions

Answer 334

Limbic system

Question 335

____________________ (part of brain?) - Thalamus - Hypothalamus - Basal ganglia (information integration) - Autonomic functions

Answer 335

Diencephalon

Question 336

____________________ - consists of the midbrain, & hindbrain

Answer 336

Brainstem

Question 337

_________________ (part of brain?) - auditory & visual reflexes - alertness & arousal - crosses right brain to control left side of body & left brain to control right side of body

Answer 337

Midbrain

Question 338

____________________ (part of brain?) - includes pons - nerve fibers between forebrain, spinal cord, & cerebellum

Answer 338

Hindbrain

Question 339

____________________ (part of brain?) - Upper part of spinal cord - Information from diencephalon regulates autonomic functions

Answer 339

Medulla oblongata

Question 340

____________________ (part of brain?) - controls body position, muscle movement, & balance

Answer 340

Cerebellum

Question 341

____________________ - inside vertebral column - myelinated tracts of white matter surrounding gray matter - afferent neurons enter dorsally & synapse with interneurons —-> - efferent motor neurons exiting ventrally - conveys information to & from brain

Answer 341

Spinal cord

Question 342

____________________ - largest part of brain - divided into hemispheres - sense & control opposite sides of body (contralateral) - cerebral cortex (convoluted outer, gray matter, & divided into 4 lobes) - white matter under cortex controls impulse transmission to & from the cortex

Answer 342

Cerebrum

Question 343

_________________ - functions = voluntary movement, sensory processing, olfaction, language, communication, learning, memory, & association

Answer 343

Cerebral cortex functions

Question 344

2 inner cerebral structures are the _______________ & _______________

Answer 344

Limbic system Hippocampus

Question 345

___________ System - contains amygdala - functions = autobiographical memory, social processing, & emotion

Answer 345

Limbic system

Question 346

__________________ (part of brain?) - functions = long-term memory, spatial memory, & navigation

Answer 346

Hippocampus

Question 347

____________________ - contains the thalamus, basal ganglia, hypothalamus, & epithalamus (pineal gland)

Answer 347

Diencephalon

Question 348

__________&__________ - route sensory info to the cerebral cortex

Answer 348

Thalamus & basal ganglia

Question 349

____________________ - collects homeostatic sensory info & provides nervous & endocrine control of the pituitary

Answer 349

Hypothalamus

Question 350

____________________ - connects limbic system to rest of brain, secretes melatonin, & controls circadian rhythms

Answer 350

Epithalamus (pineal gland)

Question 351

____________________ - information to CNS about internal & external environments - sensory receptors stimulate afferent neurons with excitatory or inhibitory graded potentials - if stimulation is above threshold for depolarization (excitatory) or hyperpolarization (inhibitory) —-> - impulses propagate through peripheral nervous system to central nervous system

Answer 351

Senses

Question 352

____________________ - exteroception - touch, temperature, pain, pressure, taste, smell, site, hearing, balance, & motion - sensory cells stimulate afferent nerves of somatic nervous system

Answer 352

External senses

Question 353

____________________ - interoception - blood sugar, salt, pH, CO2, blood pressure, long extension, gag, reflex, tendon/ligament proprioception, deep pressure, & pain

Answer 353

Internal physiological senses

Question 354

____________________ - A major brain function is to integrate signals from different senses - Ex : kinesthetic awareness is knowing body position by integrating multiple senses (motion sickness is a failure to integrate visual & balance senses)

Answer 354

Multisensory integration

Question 355

____________________ - fluid filled spherical organ - viscous aqueous humor fills the space between lens & cornea - virtuous humor gel fills behind lens - ciliary muscles attached to lens by suspensory ligaments & change lens shape to focus (accommodation)

Answer 355

Eye

Question 356

The fibrous tunic (outer layer) forms the ________ & the _________.

Answer 356

Cornea White sclera

Question 357

The vascular tunic (middle layer) of the eye supplies nutrients/O2 two adjacent layers and forms the _______________ , _______________ , & _____________ .

Answer 357

Choroid Ciliary muscle Iris

Question 358

____________________ - smooth muscle that forms the pupil

Answer 358

Iris

Question 359

The nervous tunic (inner layer) of the eye forms the ____________ .

Answer 359

Retina

Question 360

____________________ - contains photoreceptors (rods/cones) - contains bipolar cells, horizontal cells, & amacrine cells - contains optic nerve ganglionic cells

Answer 360

Retina

Question 361

____________________ - concentrated along margins of retina - detect low light without color

Answer 361

Rods

Question 362

____________________ - concentrated in back of retina - detect color - when exposed to light, pigments reduce inhibitory neurotransmitters, which allows signals to propagate along optic nerve to brain (processed and visual cortex of occipital lobe) - some neurons convey information to the midbrain to control iris & ciliary muscles

Answer 362

Cones

Question 363

____________________ - contains auricle & auditory canal - ending with the tympanum which vibrates in response to air vibrations (sounds)

Answer 363

External ear

Question 364

____________________ - air filled, mucus lined chamber between tympanum & inner ear - 3 tiny bones (ossicles) convey sound to oval window

Answer 364

Middle ear

Question 365

What are the three tiny bones of the middle ear? _____________ _____________ _____________

Answer 365

Maleus Incus Stapes

Question 366

____________________ - vibrations, transmitted to fluid filled vestibule & cochlea —-> - inner hairs on cochlear organ of Corti vibrate with sound frequency —-> - convey signal to cochlear nerve

Answer 366

Inner ear

Question 367

Auditory input travels from cochlear nerve to the ____________ through the ____________ to auditory cortex on the temporal lobe

Answer 367

Medulla Thalamus

Question 368

____________________ - hairs on the inner ear vestibule & semicircular canals detect head position & movement respectively —-> send a signal to cerebellum - Integrated with proprioceptor & visual information in the cerebral cortex

Answer 368

Balance (equilibrium)

Question 369

________ in skin detect pain & temperature

Answer 369

Nerves

Question 370

_______________ sense hair motion

Answer 370

Follicle receptors

Question 371

Cells in _____________ detect touch

Answer 371

Lower epidermis

Question 372

Skin _______/________ detect deep pressure

Answer 372

Meissner/Pacinian corpuscles

Question 373

____________ detect dissolved molecules in olfaction

Answer 373

Chemoreceptors

Question 374

Thousands of distinct receptor proteins on olfactory receptor cells cilia trigger metabolic cascades when activated, which send signals to ______________ neurons, then send info to ______________ and _______________

Answer 374

Olfactory bulb neurons Frontal lobe Limbic system

Question 375

Taste buds on _____________ contain taste cells

Answer 375

Tongue papillae

Question 376

Food chemicals bind to receptor proteins, then neurotransmitters depolarize sensory neurons which send signals to the __________ & __________ .

Answer 376

Medulla Thalamus

Question 377

The 5 primary tastes are __________ , __________ , __________ , __________ , & __________ .

Answer 377

Sweet Salty Sour Bitter Umami (savory taste associated with Glutamate)

Question 378

____________________ - chemicals released by presynaptic cells, trigger response to postsynaptic cells - Include amino acids, peptides, purines, lipids, & inorganic gases such as CO & N2O - Vary in location, duration, & type of elicited stimulus

Answer 378

Neurotransmitters

Question 379

____________________ - specific to a particular neurotransmitter - elicit either inhibitory responses or excitatory responses

Answer 379

Receptors

Question 380

____________________ - opens ligand-gated channels or triggers complex mechanisms

Answer 380

Neurotransmitter/receptor binding

Question 381

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - neuromuscular junctions —-> muscle contraction - Toxins prevent it’s breakdown (tetanus & strychnine)

Answer 381

Acetylcholine (ACh)

Question 382

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - brain —-> learning/memory & reward

Answer 382

Dopamine

Question 383

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - brain —-> alertness & arousal

Answer 383

Norepinephrine

Question 384

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - CNS—-> good mood, appetite, sleep, & learning/memory

Answer 384

Serotonin

Question 385

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - brain —-> learning/memory

Answer 385

Glutamate

Question 386

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - CNS —-> reduce pain, inhibit GABA & increase glutamate - Natural opiate

Answer 386

Endorphins

Question 387

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - senses & brain —-> sleep (caffeine competes) & pain reception (sensory)

Answer 387

Adenosine

Question 388

____________________ (neurotransmitter) - brain —-> inhibitory - alcohol binds to receptors

Answer 388

GABA

Question 389

____________________ - Mental processing/thought - Working memory, language, comprehension & production - Calculation, reasoning, & decisions - Conscious or unconscious - Heredity & epigenetic neural development influence

Answer 389

Cognition

Question 390

____________________ - awareness of cognitive/physical self & environment - Multiple areas of CNS & sensory peripheral nerves

Answer 390

Consciousness

Question 391

____________________ - knowledge, skills, & ideas - Conscious or unconscious - Involves sensation, memory, & habituation (conditioning)

Answer 391

Learning

Question 392

____________________ - primary auditory, but also visual & physical (symbols for encoding & sharing information) - Processing mostly regulated by Broca’s area / Wernicke’s area in frontal & temporal lobes

Answer 392

Language

Question 393

____________________ - interaction of diaphragm, larynx, glottis, sinuses, tongue, mouth, teeth, & lips

Answer 393

Speech

Question 394

____________________ - Encoding : receive, process, & integrate information - Storage : glutamate mediated synaptic patterns record info in a retrievable form - Retrieval : consciously or unconsciously retransmitting stored memory

Answer 394

Memory

Question 395

3 types of memory are, _______________ , _______________ , & _______________ .

Answer 395

Sensory memory Short term memory Long-term memory

Question 396

_____________ memory - < 1s - immediate recall - no cognitive control

Answer 396

Sensory memory

Question 397

_____________ memory - < 1 min - transient neuronal patterns

Answer 397

Short term memory

Question 398

_____________ memory - indefinite duration - stable changes in synaptic connections, thresholds, & intensity among >100 billion neurons in many parts of the brain

Answer 398

Long term memory

Question 399

Neural plasticity leads to __________________

Answer 399

Long term potentiation

Question 400

____________________ - consolidates new memories - key to storing/retrieving autobiographical memory (things you’ve done/had)

Answer 400

Hippocampus

Question 401

___________& ___________ - Store working memory (language/sensory associations)

Answer 401

Frontal & Parietal lobes

Question 402

____________________ - emotional memory - Fear in dangerous situation

Answer 402

Amygdala

Question 403

__________/__________ - Store motor skill memory

Answer 403

Basal ganglia / cerebellum

Question 404

Emotional perception and response - mostly in limbic system structures & many of which also process/store memory - __________ : associates memory with emotional importance - __________ : associate sensory stimuli with memories - __________ : response to/affects homeostatic/endocrine/autonomic nervous responses to emotion (heart rate changes, temperature, blushing, adrenaline secretion) - __________ : neurological source of judgment & anticipation of consequences & tempers emotional responses

Answer 404

Amygdala Hippocampus Hypothalamus Prefrontal cortex

Question 405

Stress - physiological / psychological (or both) - similar nervous & endocrine responses to both —-> stimulation of sympathetic nervous system - __________ : processes emotion - __________ : adjusts homeostasis (affects pituitary/adrenal function) - __________ : problem-solving and planning - __________ : mood regulation

Answer 405

Amygdala Hypothalamus Prefrontal cortex Pons

Question 406

____________________ - fail to distinguish reality for unreal perceptions - delusion, hallucination, lack of emotion, impaired ability to communicate/form relationships - linked to limbic system Dopamine overproduction (serotonin/glutamate possibly linked)

Answer 406

Schizophrenia

Question 407

____________________ - mood disorder, low motivation, hopelessness, or sadness, low, self-esteem, irritability, fatigue, self-destructive behavior - may be related to low activity of endorphins, serotonin, dopamine, & norepinephrine

Answer 407

Clinical depression

Question 408

____________________ - Progressive incurable dementia - Onset : short term, memory loss & neural plaques/tangles in brain - Later : confusion & long term memory loss & social withdrawal

Answer 408

Alzheimer’s

Question 409

____________________ - degenerative disease of CNS - Onset : dopamine producing so decline in midbrain substantia nigra & causes muscle control loss & slow movement (shaking) - Later : followed by dementia, depression, other neurological problems, and accumulation of æ-synuclein protein in neurons

Answer 409

Parkinson’s

Question 410

____________________ - Chemical communication via blood - Exerts control at cell, tissue, & organ level - work together with nervous system to maintain homeostasis - Positive feedback loops - Negative feedback loops

Answer 410

Endocrine system

Question 411

Endocrine glands or tissues secrete hormones by __________ & __________ directly into the bloodstream

Answer 411

Diffusion Exocytosis

Question 412

_____________ effects - stimulate or inhibit growth - Control reproductive cycle (development in puberty, pregnancy, birth, & menopause) - induce apoptosis - Regulate metabolism - Maintain homeostasis - Regulate immune physiological response to emergencies, stress, & arousal

Answer 412

Hormone effects

Question 413

Production of ________________ - regulated by blood concentration of ions, nutrients, water, & pH (homeostasis) - Nervous system signals (sensory & emotional control) - Environment (light & temperature) - Other hormones (developmental & positive or negative feedback)

Answer 413

Production of hormones

Question 414

2 types of hormones : ____________ & ____________

Answer 414

Amino acid based (water soluble) Steroid (lipid soluble)

Question 415

____________________ - Single modified amino acids (serotonin, melatonin, histamine, epinephrine, & thyroxine) - Short polypeptides (ADH, calcitonin, & TRH) - Larger proteins (insulin, glucagon, & LH) -Most are hydrophilic & transported dissolved in plasma - Bind to surface proteins - Most initiate a biochemical pathway that triggers intended cellular or molecular changes

Answer 415

Amino acid-based hormones

Question 416

____________________ - sex hormones & adrenocorticoids - Hydrophobic lipid derivatives that are transported in blood, bound to specific globulin proteins - Lipid chemistry allows them to diffuse through the membrane into cell & nucleus (interact with receptors & act directly on gene expression)

Answer 416

Steroid hormones

Question 417

____________________ - causes release of TSH

Answer 417

Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

Question 418

____________________ - causes release of GH

Answer 418

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)

Question 419

____________________ - causes release of FSH & LH

Answer 419

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

Question 420

____________________ - causes release of ACTH

Answer 420

Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)

Question 421

4 hormones of the Hypothalamus are ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 421

TRH GHRH GnRH CRH

Question 422

____________________ - causes release of T3 & T4

Answer 422

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Question 423

____________________ - causes release of corticosteroids

Answer 423

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Question 424

4 hormones of the Anterior Pituitary are ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 424

TSH ACTH FSH LH

Question 425

____________________ - hormones synthesized in Hypothalamus, but secreted from here

Answer 425

Posterior pituitary

Question 426

2 hormones of the Posterior Pituitary are ____________ ____________

Answer 426

ADH GH

Question 427

2 hormones of the Thyroid are ____________ ____________

Answer 427

T3 T4

Question 428

The hormone secreted by the Parathyroid is the ____________

Answer 428

PTH

Question 429

The hormone secreted by the Duodenum is the ____________

Answer 429

CCK

Question 430

____________________ - integrates CNS/endocrine function - part of brain composed of nerve tissue - autonomic sensory info (temperature, blood, osmolarity) - affects appetite, thirst, sex drive, & emotions - neurosecretory cells produce peptide hormone-releasing factors (TRH, GHRH, GnRH, & CRH) via hypophyseal portal capillaries directly to the Anterior Pituitary - neurons to the Posterior Pituitary trigger release of ADH & Oxytocin

Answer 430

Hypothalamus

Question 431

____________________ - under Hypothalamic neuroendocrine control - 2 lobes

Answer 431

Pituitary gland

Question 432

_______ to kidneys to reabsorb water if blood osmolarity is high

Answer 432

ADH

Question 433

__________ affects smooth muscle contraction (birth & lactation)

Answer 433

Oxytocin

Question 434

__________ hormones stimulate other glands

Answer 434

Tropic

Question 435

____________________ - hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to release androgens & corticosteroids

Answer 435

ACTH

Question 436

____________________ - hormone that stimulates the Thyroid to release T3 & T4

Answer 436

TSH

Question 437

____________________ - hormone that stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicle (female) or maturation of sperm (male)

Answer 437

FSH

Question 438

____________________ - hormone that stimulates ovulation & corpus luteum formation (female) or testosterone production (male)

Answer 438

LH

Question 439

____________________ - direct acting hormone - cell growth —-> liver produce growth factors—-> bone growth

Answer 439

GH

Question 440

____________________ - milk production

Answer 440

Prolactin

Question 441

____________________ - 2 lobes around trachea below larynx - produces 3 hormones

Answer 441

Thyroid

Question 442

__________& __________ - amino acid derivatives of Tyrosine (contains iodine) - regulate basal metabolic rates - increase rates of protein synthesis - in children stimulate growth & nervous system development

Answer 442

T3 & T4

Question 443

Which is more active, T3 or T4 ?

Answer 443

T3

Question 444

____________________ - lowers blood Ca2+ concentration & increases deposition of calcium by osteoblasts - decreases Ca2+ absorption by intestine - decreases kidney reuptake of Ca2+

Answer 444

Calcitonin

Question 445

____________________ - 4 small glands in dorsal surface of thyroid - produce PTH

Answer 445

Parathyroid

Question 446

____________________ - causes blood Ca2+ to increase - activated by Vitamin D - enhances kidney reabsorption of Ca2+ - enhances intestinal absorption - increases osteoclasts activity (dissolve bone to raise blood Ca2+)

Answer 446

PTH

Question 447

Calcitonin & PTH exemplify _____________ hormones

Answer 447

antagonistic

Question 448

____________________ - endocrine & exocrine functions - produce testosterone, responsible for sexual differentiation in embryonic development - LH increases —-> testosterone production increases. —-> development of primary & secondary sex characteristics (body hair, increase muscle mass, & bone density)

Answer 448

Testes

Question 449

_____________________ - produce estrogen & progesterone in response to increased LH

Answer 449

Ovaries

Question 450

_____________________ - induce development of female secondary sex characteristics, the reproductive tract, & ovulation - increase bone density, fat deposition, muscle mass, & blood clotting - affects cholesterol, osmoregulation, thyroid function, & emotions

Answer 450

Estrogens

Question 451

_____________________ - causes endometrium buildup before ovulation or pregnancy - suppresses lactation in pregnancy - reduces immune function (prevents miscarriage) - inhibits labor - strengthens myelin, collagen, skin, bone, teeth, ligaments, & thyroid function

Answer 451

Progesterone

Question 452

After ovulation progesterone is produced by _______________

Answer 452

Corpus luteum

Question 453

______________________ - above kidneys - affect fight or flight response - function of the sympathetic nervous system, metabolism, homeostasis, & development

Answer 453

Adrenal glands

Question 454

______________________ - secretes corticosteroids - mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) : water, Na+, & Cl- retention - glucocorticoids (cortisol) : increase gluconeogenesis, blood sugar, & cell permeability - gonadocorticoids (DHEA& estradiol) : sex development

Answer 454

Adrenal cortex

Question 455

______________________ - secretes catecholamines - Epinephrine/norepinephrine (adrenaline/noradrenaline) : fight or fight response —> constrict blood flow in organs/skin, & vasodilate flow to skeletal muscles, brain, & heart

Answer 455

Adrenal medulla

Question 456

______________________ - islets of Langerhans secrete insulin —-> - causes glucose uptake from blood, increases cellular respiration, & promotes protein synthesis - glucagon is antagonist —-> - response to low blood sugar causes liver glycogen hydrolysis & promotes gluconeogenesis from protein/fat - somatostatin —-> inhibits insulin and glucagon

Answer 456

Pancreas

Question 457

______________________ - secreted by pineal gland - Affects sleep & circadian rhythm

Answer 457

Melatonin

Question 458

______________________ - secreted by heart cells in atria when blood pressure or volume is high - Antagonist to aldosterone - Reduces water, Na+ , and fat in blood

Answer 458

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Question 459

_______________ hormones - mostly hydrophilic - variable/cyclical in short term - Cannot diffuse through plasma membranes - Synthesized in rough ER —-> - Transported to Golgi bodies —-> - Packaged in vacuoles —-> - Secreted by exocytosis —-> - Transported in blood to receptors on target cells - (insulin, epinephrine, melatonin, CCK)

Answer 459

Peptide hormones

Question 460

_______________ hormones - hydrophobic (some amino acid hormones) - exit directly through membrane - Mostly insoluble in blood plasma - Carried by hormonal specific globulin proteins in equilibrium with <1% of hormone free in the bloodstream

Answer 460

Steroid hormones

Question 461

__________ hormone molecules can diffuse from capillaries into target cells (as they diffuse into cells, more bound hormones becomes free, maintaining constant blood concentration)

Answer 461

Free

Question 462

Developmental or baseline metabolic hormones include _____ hormones, ____________, _____, & _____

Answer 462

Sex hormones Corticosteroids T3 T4

Question 463

Hormones bind to receptor proteins & initiate a cellular response, where surface receptors are for __________ hormones & intracellular receptors for __________ hormones

Answer 463

Hydrophilic Hydrophobic

Question 464

True or false Some receptors are hormone specific, others respond to several Some cells have multiple receptors that bind to a single hormone

Answer 464

True

Question 465

__________ hormones bind own receptors, disrupt antagonist/receptor binding

Answer 465

Antagonistic hormones

Question 466

Hormone/receptor binding triggers certain _________________ pathways - Phosphorylates or dephosphorylates certain molecules - opens or closes channel proteins - Starts Cascades that increased concentration of second messengers (cAMP) - Activates intracellular communication mechanisms

Answer 466

Signal transduction pathways

Question 467

_______________ - hormone/receptor complex is transported into a nucleus - Interacts with specific gene promoter, inhibitor DNA sequences, or associated proteins - Amplifies or suppresses expression of specific genes

Answer 467

Hydrophobic hormones

Question 468

_______________ - Key role in maintaining stable, optimal internal conditions - Body temperature, blood solute concentration, & blood pressure

Answer 468

Homeostasis

Question 469

_______________ feedback control - the products of hormone function trigger inhibition of production or activity of the hormone - hormone function —> products —> inhibition of hormone function

Answer 469

Negative feedback control

Question 470

_______________ - hormones with opposing affects - Ex : calcitonin (decrease blood Ca2+) & PTH (increase blood Ca2+)

Answer 470

Antagonistic hormones

Question 471

True or false Homeostatic control is often more complex EX : blood sugar balance is affected by insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, Gastrin, epinephrine, norepinephrine, ACTH, and glucocorticoids

Answer 471

True

Question 472

_______________ diseases - over or under production of hormones due to diet, environment, tumors, lesions, or genetic problems - Linked to production of hormones, receptor proteins, or feedback mechanisms

Answer 472

Endocrine diseases

Question 473

_______________ - most common endocrine disorder - Disrupted function of insulin in response to elevated blood sugar - Alters glucose metabolism - Sugar builds up in blood —> kidneys filter excess sugar —> water imbalance as urine becomes hypertonic —> excessive urination, thirst, fatigue, headaches, & blurred vision - Unchecked causes : acute ketoacidosis (ketone bodies), heart, disease, blood pressure, circulatory problems, kidney damage, & stroke - Type 1 : insulin deficiency - Type 2 : insulin receptor or uptake problems

Answer 473

Diabetes mellitus

Question 474

_______________ - secreted by duodenum when chime exits stomach - Triggers the release of pancreatic enzymes & bile - Similar is Gastrin from stomach parietal cells

Answer 474

Cck

Question 475

_______________ - secreted by adipose cells - Decreases appetite & increases metabolism

Answer 475

Leptin

Question 476

_______________ - secreted by seminal vesicles/other tissues - Vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, & smooth muscle control

Answer 476

Prostaglandins

Question 476

_______________ - secreted by seminal vesicles/other tissues - Vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, & smooth muscle control

Answer 476

Prostaglandins

Question 477

_______________ - secreted by liver - Vasoconstriction - Causes aldosterone released by the adrenal cortex

Answer 477

Angiotensin

Question 478

_______________ - secreted by kidney - Stimulates angiotensin production

Answer 478

Renin

Question 479

_______________ - secreted by kidney - A growth factor that stimulates erythrocyte production

Answer 479

Erythropoietin (EPO)

Question 480

____________ receives autonomic sensory homeostatic information - Respond with neurons at end in the posterior pituitary or with hormone secretion to hypophyseal portal capillaries

Answer 480

Hypothalamus

Question 481

_______________ - develops from embryonic nerve tissue - Fight or flight secretions excite sympathetic/inhibit parasympathetic function - Act as neurotransmitters & as hormones on other target organs

Answer 481

Adrenal medulla

Question 482

_______________ - response to nursing - Sensory cells and nipple signal Hypothalamus to release oxytocin from posterior pituitary - Milk released by mammary glands

Answer 482

Lactation

Question 483

_______________ responses - hormones can affect stress, fear, aggression, arousal, & hunger

Answer 483

Emotional

Question 484

True or false Hormones influence behavior but behavior affects hormone levels (correlation between hormones & behavior/emotion)

Answer 484

True

Question 485

Increased _______________ —> increases aggression, sexual arousal, & antisocial behavior

Answer 485

Testosterone

Question 486

_______________ - diurnal shifts in melatonin - Menstrual cycle - Pregnancy - Postpartum - Menopausal changes

Answer 486

Normal hormone fluctuations

Question 487

True or false Abnormal hormone levels affect behavior

Answer 487

True

Question 488

True or false The triggering of behavior directly by the nervous system without mediation of hormones is much faster than hormone mediated behavior

Answer 488

True

Question 489

____________ extend from olfactory bulb into sinuses

Answer 489

Olfactory dendrites

Question 490

_______________ - throat - connects sinuses, mouth, auditory tubes, trachea, & esophagus

Answer 490

Pharynx

Question 491

_______________ - A flap blocking glottis when swallowing

Answer 491

Epiglottis

Question 492

_______________ - rings of cartilage (don’t have back part) - connects pharynx to lungs - lined with cilia (push mucus + particles up to the pharynx & sinuses)

Answer 492

Trachea

Question 493

_______________ - top of trachea - Contains vocal cords

Answer 493

Larynx

Question 494

_______________ - spongy, elastic, high surface area organs - Gas exchange between air & blood

Answer 494

Lungs

Question 495

_______________ - branch from trachea to bronchioles, and lead to alveoli - lined with cilia

Answer 495

Bronchi

Question 496

_______________ - clusters of expandable air sacs around bronchioles - Surrounded by capillaries

Answer 496

Alveoli

Question 497

_______________ - muscle separating abdominal & thoracic cavity - Causes breathing

Answer 497

Diaphragm

Question 498

_______________ - primary respiratory function - Pulmonary capillaries surround alveoli - Diffusion occurs between alveolar air gases & gases dissolved in blood

Answer 498

Gas exchange

Question 499

_______________ - lower partial pressure than inhaled air —> - O2 diffuses into blood —> - RBC Hemoglobin binds up O2 —> - Lowers O2 partial pressure so more diffuses in

Answer 499

Pulmonary blood O2

Question 500

_______________ - higher partial pressure than air —> - CO2 diffuses into alveoli

Answer 500

Pulmonary blood CO2

Question 501

_______________ - In non-sweating animals, evaporative cooling occurs via water vapor loss from respiratory system

Answer 501

Thermoregulation

Question 502

Physical barriers to infection are an __________ immune response to infection (mucous membranes trap particles)

Answer 502

Innate

Question 503

_______________ - found in the lungs, bronchi, trachea, and sinuses - Bring particles to pharynx to be eliminated

Answer 503

Cilia

Question 504

_______________ - antibody from mucous cells - binds/inactivates pathogens - Adaptive immunity

Answer 504

IgA

Question 505

Gas exchange happens in the lungs through the diffusion between ____________ & ____________

Answer 505

Alveoli Capillaries

Question 506

Lungs: (Huge or small) surface area (Thick or thin) membrane between alveoli (rapid or slow) diffusion in capillaries

Answer 506

Huge Thin Rapid

Question 507

Alveolar cells secrete _____________ which prevents collapse & lowers water surface tension (facilitating diffusion)

Answer 507

Surfactant

Question 508

Diffusion of O2 follows concentration gradient into the bloodstream - Inhaled alveolar air - Diffusion across surfactant layer - Diffusion across alveolar epithelial layers, & adjacent capillary endothelium - diffusion/dissolution into blood plasma - Diffusion into RBCs & cooperative binding of __#__ O2 molecules to the iron atoms in __#__ heme moieties of hemoglobin

Answer 508

4 4

Question 509

_______________ - striated muscle that is posterior to lungs & anterior to liver - controlled by the phrenic nerve - Voluntary signal originates in Cerebral Cortex - Involuntary signal originates in Medulla Oblongata - intercostal muscles between ribs help

Answer 509

Diaphragm

Question 510

Muscle contraction & relaxation of the _____________ cause change in lung volume, change in pressure gradient, & causes breathing

Answer 510

Diaphragm

Question 511

Lung inhalation is caused by a ____________ diaphragm - Flattens & increases thoracic cavity volume which generates negative pulmonary air pressure (draws air into lungs to fill volume)

Answer 511

Contracted

Question 512

Lung exhalation is caused by a ____________ diaphragm - Dome shaped & reduces volume of thoracic cavity which allows elastic resiliency of lungs & intercostal muscles to squeeze air out

Answer 512

Relaxed

Question 513

_______________ - volume of air into and out of the lungs with each normal involuntary breath

Answer 513

Tidal volume Vt

Question 514

The lung is surrounded by 2 membranous __________ with a fluid filled cavity in between

Answer 514

Pleura

Question 515

Intrapleural pressure is (higher or lower) than the alveolar pressure?

Answer 515

Lower

Question 516

_________________ = alveolar lung pressure - intrapleural pressure (always >0 which keeps lungs inflated)

Answer 516

Transpulmonary pressure Ptp

Question 517

Alveolar lung pressure is equal to ________________ pressure

Answer 517

Atmospheric Alveolar lung pressure (Ppul)

Question 518

True or false The pleural cavity of each lung is separate

Answer 518

True

Question 519

_______________ - if one of the pleura is perforated in the lungs - P tp = 0 - The lung will collapse

Answer 519

Pneumothorax

Question 520

_______________ - reserve volume - Even when exhaling forcibly (there always remains about 2 L of air)

Answer 520

Residual air

Question 521

_______________ - Low surface tension inside of alveoli prevents lung tissue from adhering which allows for re-inflation against the collapsing force of resiliency

Answer 521

Surfactant

Question 522

_______________ Law - diffusion & solubility of gas in liquid is proportional to partial pressure of that gas in air adjacent to the liquid - explains normal exchange of gases between blood - alveoli - also explains “ the bends” and deep diving

Answer 522

Henry’s law

Question 523

____________________ - O2 bound to hemoglobin heme groups in RBCs - Transports O2 from lungs - sigmoid curve of pO2 effect on the hemoglobin oxygenation shows cooperativity at low O2 (exponential increase) - leveling effect of saturation of hemoglobin at high O2

Answer 523

Oxyhemoglobin

Question 524

Oxygen released by hemoglobin, increases with ____________ , ____________ , & _____________

Answer 524

Increased CO2 (cause decreased pH - “ the Bohr effect”) DPG (product of glycolysis, which is elevated with energy demand) Temperature (associated with energy demand & exercise)

Question 525

____________________ - catalyzes CO2 to HCO3- for blood transport from tissues to lungs

Answer 525

Carbonic anhydrase

Question 526

Rate of ____________ - involuntary control by medulla oblongata neurons send signals through phrenic nerve to diaphragm - voluntarily influenced by cerebral motor cortex

Answer 526

Ventilation

Question 527

Acid chemoreceptors in _______/__________ can override voluntary control of rate of ventilation

Answer 527

Aorta/Hypothalamus

Question 528

If blood pCO2 concentrations increase the pH decreases & the detection by acid-sensitive chemoreceptors forces the ____________ to trigger inhalation

Answer 528

Medulla (hyperventilation—> drop in blood CO2—> medulla slows breathing rate)

Question 529

_______________ Nervous System causes bronchodilation which opens airways & allows more air exchange

Answer 529

Sympathetic

Question 530

_______________ Nervous System causes bronchoconstriction which limits air exchange (immune response to perceived harmful substances, such as allergens or toxins)

Answer 530

Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 531

____________________ - Muscle that pressurizes blood for efficient flow to tissues for exchange & renal filtration

Answer 531

Heart

Question 532

Blood vessels that carry blood towards the heart are ____________

Answer 532

Veins

Question 533

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are ____________

Answer 533

Arteries

Question 534

_______________ circulation - pulmonary arteries take deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs - Branch to alveolar capillaries - Returns oxygenated blood to the heart via pulmonary veins

Answer 534

Pulmonary circulation

Question 535

________________ circulation - Circuit of arteries from left side of heart - Capillaries and tissues throughout the body - Then to the veins - Returns deoxygenated blood to right side heart

Answer 535

Systemic circulation

Question 536

____________________ - A tissue that is predominantly liquid - Carries, dissolved, nutrients, wastes, & biochemical secretions throughout the body - The cells serve many functions such as transport (O2/CO2), protection (immune), & repair (damaged tissues or organs)

Answer 536

Blood

Question 537

Circulatory cells include ____________ , ____________ , & ____________

Answer 537

Erythrocytes Leukocytes Platelets

Question 538

Nutrients are absorbed from intestines & transported first to the _________, then circulated throughout the body

Answer 538

Liver

Question 539

The circulatory systems internal biochemicals include __________ & __________ which are secreted from source cells/glands to target tissues

Answer 539

Hormones Antibodies

Question 540

The circulatory system transports metabolic wastes such as urea, excess minerals, & water to the __________ where it is filtered and excreted

Answer 540

Kidneys

Question 541

Superficial blood vessels dilate to get rid of excess __________ & constrict to conserve

Answer 541

Heat

Question 542

The heart is CNS controlled by the _______________ (modified by sympathetic & parasympathetic systems)

Answer 542

Medulla oblongata

Question 543

The SA node is found in the ______________ wall

Answer 543

Right atrium

Question 544

Heart neuromuscular tissue ask as pacemaker and causes atria to contract —> send signal to AV node/bundle of His/Purkinje fibers which ________ ventricular contraction until ventricles are full

Answer 544

Delay

Question 545

____________________ - exerted by blood on arterial walls - Maximum (systolic) to minimum (diastolic) - 120/80 is normal - 140/90 is hypertension

Answer 545

Blood pressure

Question 546

Blood flows from arteries to arterioles to capillaries & blood pressure (drops or rises) due to blood viscosity & friction from increased surface area of capillary walls

Answer 546

Drops

Question 547

True or false In the capillaries the drop in velocity facilitates efficient nutrient, gas, & waste exchange

Answer 547

True

Question 548

Blood pressure can be affected by ________________ ________________ ________________ ________________ ________________ ________________

Answer 548

Action of venous valves Gravity against vertical flow Muscle movement/breathing Vasoconstriction or dilation Blood volume Blood viscosity

Question 549

____________________ - High pressure in arteries & renal arterioles - Low pressure in large veins & atria - trigger negative feedback barrow reflex in medulla (maintain constant BP) - affect Renin & Angiotensin secretion by kidney - Raises BP by vasoconstriction in response to low blood volume or high osmolarity

Answer 549

Blood pressure regulation

Question 550

________________________ blood vessels form loops between heart & lungs and other tissues

Answer 550

Closed circulating system

Question 551

________________________ thick walled muscular vessels that carry high pressure blood away from heart & blood pressure drops as system branches

Answer 551

Arterial circulation

Question 552

________________________ - thin porous walls (microscopically narrow) in which RBCs line up singly to pass through - form link between arterioles and venules (except for portal systems) - single endothelium layer

Answer 552

Capillary beds

Question 553

________________________ - thin & not muscular - low pressure - skeletal muscle activity aids in flow - presence of valves

Answer 553

Venous circulation

Question 554

________________________ - arterioles lead to 2 capillary beds in sequence rather than directly from capillaries to venules

Answer 554

Portal systems

Question 555

________________________ - due to thin capillary walls, hydrostatic pressure, osmotic pressure, & vasodilation

Answer 555

Capillary permeability

Question 556

___________________ portal system - capillary bed from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary

Answer 556

Hypophyseal portal system

Question 557

_________________ portal system - capillaries in the /small intestine villi carry blood via portal vein to liver capillaries - enzymes remove toxins & regulate blood sugar

Answer 557

Hepatic portal system

Question 558

_________________ portal system - in each nephron - blood filters via glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule then blood flows to capillary vasa recta where nutrients, water, & ions are reabsorbed back from convoluted tubule and loop of Henle

Answer 558

Renal portal system

Question 559

Blood -> _____% plasma & _____% 45% cellular components

Answer 559

55% plasma 45% cellular components

Question 560

_______________ - water, ions, gases, nutrients, hormones, proteins (albumin, immunoglobulins, fibrinogen, bilirubin), & wastes

Answer 560

Plasma

Question 561

_______________ - produced from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow (fetal spleens) - mature lack nucleus & mitochondria - biconcave disks (high surface area) - filled with hemoglobin - live ~ 3 months

Answer 561

RBCs

Question 562

_______________ - produced by bone marrow hematopoietic cells - immune system cells (Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils)

Answer 562

WBCs

Question 563

_______________ - fragments of megakaryocytes - help in clotting along with proteins (fibrin & collagen)

Answer 563

Platelets

Question 564

_______________ - open circulatory system of vessels, organs, & tissues - primary repository for immune system targeted function - contains most of the WBCs

Answer 564

Lymphatic system

Question 565

_______________ - production of immune cells (macrophages, dendritic, T cells & B cells)

Answer 565

Bone Marrow

Question 566

_______________ - T cell maturation site - secretes hormone Thymosin (stimulates immune system development in juveniles)

Answer 566

Thymus

Question 567

_______________ - largest lymphoid tissue organ - stores & activates immune cells

Answer 567

Spleen

Question 568

_______________ - similar function as spleen - dispersed throughout the body & some specifically associated with digestive, respiratory, & integumentary systems

Answer 568

Lymph Nodes

Question 569

_______________ - transport lymph from lymphatic capillaries through vessels to thoracic duct (recycles lymphatic fluid into the blood)

Answer 569

Lymphatic vessels

Question 570

_______________ - lymphatic capillaries in villi of small intestine & around colon

Answer 570

Lacteals

Question 571

Recovery of lost fluid in capillary filtration of blood - ____% of fluid lost through afferent capillaries is recovered by efferent capillaries - ____% remains flowing interstitially

Answer 571

99% 1%

Question 572

_______________ - collected in lymphatic vessels by pressure gradient - muscular activity & valves aid in flow to thoracic duct then to subclavian veins

Answer 572

Interstitial fluid

Question 573

Absorption of __________ - lacteals are responsible for most lipid absorption - transported to bloodstream or deposited in adipose tissue

Answer 573

Lipids

Question 574

_______________ - lymphocyte T and B cell production - T cell maturation

Answer 574

Thymus & bone marrow

Question 575

_______________ - T cell and B cell storage & proliferation - B cell antibody production (cause of infection)

Answer 575

Lymph nodes, spleen, & tonsils

Question 576

Lymphocytes receive antigens of infectious agents from the __________ cells

Answer 576

dendritic cells

Question 577

_______________ - skin & epithelial layer (blocks infections and limit pathogens) - sweat & sebum ( acidic and antimicrobial) - stomach acid (kills pathogens) - antimicrobial tears (protect cornea)

Answer 577

Physical Barriers

Question 578

Nonspecific phagocytes are __________ & __________ (patrol blood & tissues to engulf pathogens or infected cells)

Answer 578

Neutrophils and Macrophages

Question 579

__________ cells cause apoptosis in infected cells

Answer 579

Natural killer cells

Question 580

__________ proteins secreted by infected cells cause cascade of immune responses

Answer 580

Interferon proteins

Question 581

__________ proteins from the Liver stimulate immune responses and attract & enhance phagocytes

Answer 581

Complement proteins

Question 582

__________ cells and _________ cause inflammation which allow phagocytes, immune proteins, and repair cells to enter injured areas

Answer 582

Mast cells and Basophils

Question 583

_______________ - attraction of immune cells to chemicals secreted by infected cells

Answer 583

Chemotaxis

Question 584

_______________ - hypothalamus causes this increase in temperature - inhibits microbial growth and accelerates immune response

Answer 584

Fever

Question 585

_______________ - specific defenses that recognize antigens of pathogens - cells remain after infection to remember pathogens (respond quicker next time)

Answer 585

Adaptive immune system

Question 586

_______________ - newborns have no immunity - milk delivers IgA antibodies but more effective immune system

Answer 586

Passive Immunity

Question 587

Active Immunity has 2 levels -> _____ & _____

Answer 587

Cellular and Humoral

Question 588

_______________ - defense against infection in tissues - antigen-presenting cells (APCs) detect infection then show antigens to T cells which cause the T cells to proliferate and then destroy infected cells (memory T cells remain after infection for the next time)

Answer 588

Cellular active immunity

Question 589

_______________ - bind foreign antigen to antibodies on B cells then secrete antibodies against specific antigen (memory B cells remain after)

Answer 589

Humoral Active Immunity

Question 590

_______________ - phagocytes to bacteria, fungi, and viruses

Answer 590

Neutrophils

Question 591

_______________ - cytotoxic, degrade toxins, attack parasites, and cause inflammation

Answer 591

Eosinophils

Question 592

_______________ - release Histamine in blood - sensitive to parasites or allergen

Answer 592

Basophils

Question 593

_______________ - release histamine in response to injury, complement protein, or IgE from infection or allergen - found in connective tissue near skin and mucous membranes

Answer 593

Mast Cells

Question 594

_______________ - develop into dendritic cells and macrophages

Answer 594

Monocytes

Question 595

_______________ - antigen presenting cells (APCs) - migrate to and reside in different tissues - after activated they travel to lymph nodes and activate T cells

Answer 595

Dendritic Cells

Question 596

_______________ - patrol bloodstream and tissues - phagocytic and antigen presenting

Answer 596

Macrophages

Question 597

_______________ - B cells and T cells - B cells from Bone marrow - T cells from Thymus

Answer 597

Lymphocytes

Question 598

_______________ - APCs present antigens to inactive T cells then T cell clonal selection then proliferation of effector & memory T cells with receptor antibodies specific to the antigen presented

Answer 598

T cell activation

Question 599

4 classes of effector T cells ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 599

Cytotoxic T cells Helper T cells Supressor T cells (regulatory T cells) Natural Killer T Cells

Question 600

_______________ - encounters a virus, fungus, or cancer cell with antigens corresponding to its receptor antibodies - binds to and kills pathogen with Perforins (damage membrane) and Granzymes (destroy proteins) - travels blood & lymph

Answer 600

Cytotoxic T cells

Question 601

_______________ - activate T cells and B cells - secrete lymphokines and interleukins

Answer 601

Helper T cells

Question 602

_______________ - use Negative Feedback to turn off cell-mediated immune response after infection has been eliminated to prevent autoimmune responses

Answer 602

Supressor T cells

Question 603

_______________ - combine functions like Helper T cells and Cytotoxic T cells

Answer 603

Natural Killer T cells

Question 604

_______________ - B cells produce antibodies (Immunoglobulins or Ig) - Ig binds to viruses, bacteria, and toxins (inactivate and target them for destruction)

Answer 604

Humoral Immunity

Question 605

_______________ - proteins or polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria, viruses, tissue grafts, allergens - elicit responses

Answer 605

Antigens

Question 606

_______________ - proteins with specific antigen-binding sites - composed of 5 polypeptide chains in a Y shape with variable antigen-binding sites - stimulate complement system

Answer 606

Antibodies

Question 607

5 types of immunoglobulins __________ __________ __________ __________ __________

Answer 607

IgG IgA IgM IgE IgD "GAMED"

Question 608

Immunoglobulins _____ & _____ protect against blood/lymph pathogens and activate complement system

Answer 608

IgM and IgG

Question 609

Immunoglobulin _____ protects against pathogen entry in mucous membranes

Answer 609

IgA

Question 610

Immunoglobulins _____ & _____ act as antigen receptors on B cells

Answer 610

IgD and IgM

Question 611

Immunoglobulin _____ binds to mast cells & basophils to release histamine (inflammation/Allergies)

Answer 611

IgE

Question 612

_______________ - after specific antigen exposure the B cells make antigen-specific antibodies then clone themselves (plasma cells and some memory cells)

Answer 612

B lymphocyte clonal selection

Question 613

_______________ - self cell antigens recognized by immune cells are ignored - no 2 people have the same MHC (except identical twins)

Answer 613

MHC major histocompatibility complex

Question 614

Nonself cells lack matching ______ markers

Answer 614

MHC

Question 615

____________ system functions - intake essential nutrients, food, and water - catabolize complex biochemicals into simple monomers (depolymerization and hydrolysis) - absorption into bloodstream for use throughout body - excretion of indigestible material

Answer 615

Digestive

Question 616

4 steps of digestive system ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 616

Ingestion Digestion Absorption Excretion

Question 617

_______________ - breaks down large pieces into smaller ones - increases surface are of food particles for more enzymatic molecule action

Answer 617

Mechanical digestion

Question 618

_______________ - enzymes break down molecules - amylase breaks down starch to maltose - lipase hydrolyzes lipids into fatty acids & glycerol

Answer 618

Chemical digestion (enzymatic)

Question 619

Stomach pH is about ______ pH

Answer 619

2 pH

Question 620

_______________ - folds in flexible stomach wall when empty - allow expansion up to 2 liters

Answer 620

Rugae

Question 621

_______________ - strong muscular rings

Answer 621

sphincters

Question 622

Stomach 4 special cell types ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 622

Chief cells (zymogenic) Parietal cells (oxyntic) Mucous cells Enteroendocrine

Question 623

_______________ - secrete pepsinogen which is then activated by HCl to form pepsin (protease)

Answer 623

Chief Cells

Question 624

_______________ - secrete HCl - acidify by pumping protons/Cl- into stomach cavity

Answer 624

Parietal cells

Question 625

_______________ - secrete much mucus to prevent damage to stomach lining by acid and protease enzymes

Answer 625

Mucous cells

Question 626

_______________ - release gastrin and CCK into bloodstream (stimulates secretions of digestive enzymes when stomach receives food - influences feeling hungry

Answer 626

Enteroendocrine cells

Question 628

__________ digestive function - secretes bile salts (emulsifies lipids so lipase enzymes can hydrolyze the smaller lipids)

Answer 628

Liver

Question 629

_______________ - Liver stores glycogen

Answer 629

Glycogenesis

Question 630

_______________ - hydrolysis of glycogen

Answer 630

Glycogenolysis

Question 631

_______________ - Liver makes glucose from lipids/amino acids

Answer 631

Gluconeogenesis

Question 632

_______________ -

Question 633

_________ circulating function - disposes dead RBCs - produces blood proteins (albumin & clotting factors) - synthesizes amino acids & stores vitamins - coverts ammonia to urea for excretion - breaks down toxins

Answer 633

Liver

Question 634

Pancreas secretes __________ to neutralize chyme & activate zymogens

Answer 634

NaHCO3 Sodium bicarbonate

Question 635

_______________ - internal small intestine surface covered with finger like projections (each covered with smaller projections) - maximizes digestive & absorptive surface area

Answer 635

Villi & microvilli

Question 636

_______________ - 1st section of small intestine - most digestion occurs here - stomach squeezes chyme through pyloric sphincter then pancreatic enzymes are secreted through ducts

Answer 636

Duodenum

Question 637

_______ & ________ - majority of absorptive area - amino acids, sugars, minerals, & water absorbed directly into mesentery capillaries to hepatic portal vein to liver - epithelial cells absorbed fats (form lipoprotein chylomicrons) then transfer to lymphatic lacteals

Answer 637

Jejunum & Ileum

Question 638

_______________ - cecum, appendix, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum, anus

Answer 638

Large intestine

Question 639

_______________ - outer letter of kidney - where filtration of blood occurs into the nephrons

Answer 639

Renal cortex

Question 640

_______________ - layer of kidney that forms renal pyramids - contains 2nd set of capillaries that recover nutrients & minerals

Answer 640

Renal Medulla

Question 641

_______________ - collects urine before it flows to bladder

Answer 641

Renal pelvis

Question 642

_______________ - functional unit of the kidney - About 1 million per kidney

Answer 642

Nephron

Question 643

_______________ - tight ball of capillaries - receives high pressure blood from afferent arterial - releases remaining blood into efferent arterial to vasa recta

Answer 643

Glomerulus

Question 644

_______________ - spiracle chamber surrounding the glomerulus - sends filtrate to proximal convoluted tubule

Answer 644

Bowmans capsule

Question 645

_______________ - re-absorbs, nutrients, minerals, water into 2nd set of capillaries (vasa recta) - Blood components reabsorbed or wastes removed in 3 sections

Answer 645

Convoluted tubule’s

Question 646

Is the loop of Henle convoluted?

Answer 646

No

Question 647

_______________ - The capillaries surrounding the convoluted, tubule‘s and loop of Henle - flow to renal vein

Answer 647

Vasa recta

Question 648

_______________ - drains filtrate from each nephron into the renal pelvis

Answer 648

Collecting duct

Question 649

_______________ - Ultrafiltrate from pressure of blood entering these permeable capillaries and forced into Bowman’s Capsule

Answer 649

Glomerulus

Question 650

_______________ - filtrate from Bowmans capsule moves through - water, glucose, amino acids, and ions reabsorbed by vasa recta

Answer 650

Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 651

_______________ - extension of the tubule into renal medulla - 1st part reabsorbs water into interstitial fluid - 2nd part is impermeable to water & pumps Na+ into interstitial fluid which helps maintain gradient for absorbing water in 1st part

Answer 651

Loop of Henle

Question 652

_______________ - Endocrine controlled - Active transport recovers filtered Ca2+ & secretes PO4^3- due to PTH - Aldosterone causes Na+ recovery & loss of K+

Answer 652

Distal convoluted tubule

Question 653

_______________ - Nephrons merge into collecting ducts - Adjust permeability to water in response to changes in ADH, ANP, & aldosterone concentrations

Answer 653

Collecting Duct

Question 654

When there is low blood osmolarity, osmosensors cause secretion of ____________ (travels to DCT where Na/K pumps excrete K & reabsorb Na/Cl and water) and cause secretion of ____________ (increases water reabsorption from collecting ducts)

Answer 654

Aldosterone ADH

Question 655

True or false : angiotensin stimulates aldosterone and has similar effects

Answer 655

True

Question 656

Parathyroid hormone increases blood _____________

Answer 656

Ca2+

Question 657

If high blood volume/pressure and low salinity then ____________ raises filtrate volume by preventing Na+ reabsorption

Answer 657

Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH)

Question 658

Baroreceptors for high pressure are found in __________ & __________

Answer 658

Aorta Juxtaglomerular apparatus in kidney

Question 659

Baroreceptors for low pressure are found in __________ & __________

Answer 659

Atria Venae Cavae

Question 660

______ BP caused by low blood volume, vasodilation, or low viscosity causes release of renin by kidney, activates liver to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin, increases sympathetic nervous system, increases secretion of aldosterone and ADH, and increases vasoconstriction

Answer 660

Low

Question 661

_______ BP reduces renin secretion, reduces ATH & aldosterone secretion, stimulates parasympathetic nervous system, increases vasodilation, and increases ANH secretion by atrial neurosecretory cells

Answer 661

High

Question 662

The __________ main function is to lower the temperature for a sperm development

Answer 662

Scrotum

Question 663

_______________ - coiled inside testes - Site of sperm formation

Answer 663

Seminiferous tubules

Question 664

____________ cells help support developing sperm

Answer 664

Sertoli cells

Question 665

____________ cells secrete testosterone (causes sperm formation and puberty)

Answer 665

Leydig cells

Question 666

_______________ - smooth muscled ducts on surface of testes - Site of sperm maturation & storage

Answer 666

Epididymis

Question 667

_______________ - smooth muscle ducts from testes into abdominal cavity - Merge into ejaculatory duct through prostate gland into urethra inferior to urinary bladder

Answer 667

Vas deferens

Question 668

_______________ - secrete components of semen (alkaline fluid in which sperm are ejaculated with nutrients, enzymes, & prostaglandins)

Answer 668

Seminal vesicles & Bulbourethral/prostate gland

Question 669

_______________ - Common outlet for Reproductive and urinary tract

Answer 669

Urethra

Question 670

_______________ - male genital (copulatory organ) - Paired corpus cavernosae along dorsal side of penis filled with blood causing erection

Answer 670

Penis

Question 671

_______________ - produce ova & hormones regulating development/reproduction

Answer 671

Ovaries

Question 672

_______________ - clusters of cells with oocyte in center - Some follicles stimulated temperature each month - One ovary releases ovum then maturing follicle secretes estradiol then pituitary spike in LH then causes ovulation and ruptured follicle to become corpus luteum then secretes progesterone and estrogen to stimulate endometrial growth

Answer 672

Ovarian follicles

Question 673

_______________ - fimbrae at distal end of uterine tubes guide ovum into oviduct then cilia propel ovum to uterus

Answer 673

Uterine tubes

Question 674

_______________ - muscular elastic organ in which fetus develops - Inner lining (endometrium) thickens each month anticipating implantation then lining shed if no pregnancy occurs

Answer 674

Uterus

Question 675

_______________ - narrow posterior channel from uterus to vagina

Answer 675

Cervix

Question 676

_______________ - mucus channel from vulva to cervix - Receives sperm, passes menstrual fluid, and is birth canal

Answer 676

Vagina

Question 677

Sperm formation Spermatogonia proliferate on margins of seminiferous tubules & at puberty FSH & LH secretion increases by AP _______ triggers, testosterone secretion, then secondary sex characteristics and mitosis of Spermatogonia into primary spermatocytes then which migrate to lumen of tubules, then undergo meiosis 1 then form 1n secondary spermatocytes, then undergo meiosis 2 then form for spermatids per germ cell ______ causes sperm to mature and grow flagella in the epididymis

Answer 677

LH FSH

Question 678

_______________ - secreted by Sertoli cells and testes when sperm count is high - it decreases production of LH and FSH - If there is a low sperm count, then its production stops, which let LH and FSH levels to rise

Answer 678

inhibin

Question 679

_______________ - body and facial hair, lots of scalp hair, enlargement of larynx, deepening of voice, increased height, increased bone in muscle mass, widening of shoulders, increased sweat and oil secretions by skin

Answer 679

Secondary sex characteristics

Question 680

Ovarian reproductive cycle (Average: 28 days) (Range: 21-35 days) _______________ (1-14 day) - FSH causes several follicles to mature then estradiol levels rise then suppress LH (various hormonal signals cause one follicle to develop ovum) _______________ (14 day) - Rising estrogen levels, then LH spike so follicle releases mature ovum, which is swept by cilia down ovarian tube and lives ~ 1 day in fallopian tube, then disintegrates _______________ (14-28 day) - LH spike at ovulation changes follicle to corpus luteum then secretes, progesterone and endometrial buildup and FSH & LH suppression - Absent fertilization causes corpus luteum to dissolve and menstruation begins as endometrium breaks down

Answer 680

Follicular phase Ovulation Luteal phase

Question 681

_______________ (~12 yrs old) - 1st reproductive cycle begins as a Hypothalamic GnRH causes FSH & LH production by anterior pituitary, then increases progesterone/estrogen

Answer 681

Menarche

Question 682

3 phases of uterine reproductive cycle _______________ _______________ _______________

Answer 682

Menses (1-7 day) Proliferative phase (7-14 day) Secretory phase (14-28 day)

Question 683

_______________ - discharge of tissue, mucus, blood from breakdown of endometrial tissue built up in uterus over previous 2 weeks - Indicates no pregnancy

Answer 683

Menses

Question 684

_______________ - FSH causes ovarian follicles to grow, secreting estradiol and estrogen - promote formation of a new endometrial wall in the uterus

Answer 684

Proliferative phase

Question 685

Menses and proliferative phase is coincide with _______________ phase

Answer 685

Ovarian follicular phase

Question 686

_______________ - spike in LH & FSH then increase progesterone at ovulation - Triggers rapid thickening and increased blood flow into uterine endometrium in preparation for implantation of a blastocyst

Answer 686

Secretory phase

Question 687

The secretory phase coincides with the __________ phase in the ovarian cycle

Answer 687

luteal phase

Question 688

After fertilization, the zygote moves through the uterine tube at _______ days

Answer 688

6-7 days

Question 689

_______________ - reaches uterus as blastocyst - Attaches to endometrium and erodes uterine capillaries, then get surrounded by maternal capillaries - Secretes hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) - Keeps corpus latuem producing estrogen and progesterone - Maintains uterine lining and prevents menstruation or ovulation

Answer 689

Implantation

Question 690

_______________ - part of blastocyst forms Chorion with villi, with maternal/fetal capillaries in uterine wall - Forms placenta, where nutrients/waste exchange between mother & fetus

Answer 690

Placentation

Question 691

Embryonic ___________ forms, umbilical cord from placenta to fetus - >9 weeks placenta, secretes, progesterone/estrogen (other placental hormones are immunosuppressive)

Answer 691

Allantois

Question 692

_______________ - progesterone/estrogen increase until birth - Promote fetal growth, memory development, & prevent labor - After ~ 40 weeks the pituitary releases oxytocin, which causes labor contractions, prostaglandins to soften cervix, and lactation

Answer 692

Parturition

Question 693

________________ - transverse light & dark bands due to sarcomere protein pattern - long striated fibers, multinucleated, bundled to form a muscle

Answer 693

Skeletal muscle (voluntary & striated)

Question 694

________________ - movement of hollow organs - 2 layers (longitudinal - shortening/dilation) (circular - elongation/constriction)

Answer 694

Smooth muscle (involuntary & nonstriated)

Question 695

________________ - branching cells connected via gap junctions/desmosomes that propagate signals rapidly for uniform contraction - uninucleated

Answer 695

Cardiac muscle (involuntary & striated)

Question 696

Sarcolemma is covered with invaginations called ____________ that carries membrane depolarization into the muscle fiber

Answer 696

T tubules

Question 697

________________ - along muscle fiber like wires (thousands of repeating sarcomeres)

Answer 697

Myofibrils

Question 698

________________ - modified ER surrounds each myofibril & adjacent to T tubules - contain Ca2+ needed to convey action potential to sarcomeres

Answer 698

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 699

________________ - arrangement of cytoskeleton proteins - facilitates contraction

Answer 699

Sarcomere

Question 700

________________ - only in heart - single nucleus & each with T tubules - gap junctions & desmosomes form intercalated disks to transmit signal from SA Node to AV Node (arterial cells contract together then ventricular cells contract)

Answer 700

Cardiac muscle cells

Question 701

_______________ - spindle shaped cells, arranged in sheets or layers - I moved with gradual sustained contraction simultaneous movement in all fibers of a muscle

Answer 701

Smooth muscle

Question 702

_______________ - lack sarcomeres, sarcoplasmic reticulum, or T tubules - actin & myosin filaments spiral within the cell - contain calmodulin, triggers contraction when Ca2+ binds to it

Answer 702

Smooth muscle cells

Question 703

Smooth muscle contraction is triggered by ______________ neurons

Answer 703

Autonomic

Question 704

2 key contractile proteins in sarcomeres are __________ (thick filaments) and __________ (thin filaments)

Answer 704

Myosin Actin

Question 705

______ band - where myosin and actin overlap (it stays the same width even if the sarcomere is contracted or not)

Answer 705

A band

Question 706

_____ band - unbound actin filaments (shorten as Actin is pulled by myosin toward the center of sarcomere)

Answer 706

I band

Question 707

______ zone - center of the sarcomere - Contains roots of myosin thick filaments, and the M line (this cross-links myosin in each myofibril)

Answer 707

H zone

Question 708

______ lines - proteins that anchor the entire sarcomere contractile mechanism

Answer 708

Z lines

Question 709

_______________ - AP travels to axon terminals of motor neurons, then release acetylcholine, which binds to ACh receptors on the sarcolemma then the AP travels into T tubules where depolarization reaches sarcoplasmic reticulum causing voltage gated channels to open and release Ca2+ ions into each myofibril

Answer 709

Motor neuron signal reception

Question 710

_______________ - Ca2+ binds to troponins monomers along tropomyosin Molecules surrounding the actin fibers (prevents myosin-actin bonding) then Ca2+-Troponin alters the tropomyosin allosterically so now exposes myosin binding sites on actin which myosin heads form cross bridges that move along actin fibers and pulls attached Z disks on end of each sarcomere closer together (muscle contraction)

Answer 710

Sarcomere contraction

Question 711

_______________ - when the motor nerve signal ends the Ca2+ pumps activate so force Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum - ATP hydrolyzes to ADP and binds to myosin so weakening the myosin-actin bonds - without Ca2+ tropomyosin blocks myosin-actin binding

Answer 711

Muscle relaxation

Question 712

_______________ - Control a particular movement (squatting and rising)

Answer 712

Agonist muscles

Question 713

_______________ - paired with agonist and control opposite motions

Answer 713

Antagonist muscles

Question 714

_______________ - move toward the medial plane

Answer 714

Adductors

Question 715

_______________ - Move away from the medial plane

Answer 715

Abductors

Question 716

_______________ - Closes a joint

Answer 716

Flexor

Question 717

_______________ - opens a joint

Answer 717

Extensor

Question 718

_______________ - white muscle - Type IIa : oxidative & intermediate - Type IIb : glycolytic & strong anaerobic bursts - fatigue quickly & less blood supply, mitochondria, & myoglobin

Answer 718

Fast twitch muscle

Question 719

_______________ - Red muscle - Type I : sustained aerobic activity & less force - Dense, capillaries and more mitochondria & myoglobin

Answer 719

Slow twitch muscle

Question 720

_________ affect contraction by varying stimulus frequency or intensity

Answer 720

Nerves

Question 721

Stimulus __________ affects force of individual muscle fiber contraction. ____________ affects number of fibers contracting at once.

Answer 721

Frequency Intensity

Question 722

_______________ - all or nothing response - single nerve impulse causes a single muscle fiber contraction - may be quick or prolonged (fast or slow) depending on muscle fiber type

Answer 722

Muscle twitch

Question 723

_______________ - entire muscle contraction depends on many fibers contracting - strength of contraction depends on the stimulus frequency - if stimulus repeated before 1st contraction ends then contractions combine (wave summation) - if repeated result is incomplete tetanus & muscle contracts for prolonged period of time but not at full strength - frequent stimulus causes muscle at complete tetanus (max force) but rapidly fatigues

Answer 723

Graded response

Question 724

_______________ - low/moderate movement - abundant blood O2 to mitochondria recycled ATP by aerobic respiration - energy source is blood glucose

Answer 724

Aerobic muscle activity

Question 725

_______________ - intense movement - if ATP demand exceeds O2 supply then muscle cells have 2 alternative systems (phosphocreatine & glycolysis/lactic acid fermentation)

Answer 725

Anaerobic muscle activity

Question 726

_______________ - stored in muscle & rapidly supplies ATP anaerobically by Creatine Kinase which transfers phosphate from Creatine to ADP - reversed when O2 supply rises

Answer 726

Phosphocreatine

Question 727

_______________ - after a few seconds of O2 limited exertion the muscle fibers use glycolysis to generate ATP until O2 rises - To maintain this process NAD+ must be recycled by fermentation, yielding Lactic Acid which can be used as an energy source in the liver, kidneys, and heart - Requires more O2 to oxidize lactic acid (resulting in oxygen debt)

Answer 727

Glycolysis/Lactic Acid Fermentation

Question 728

_______________ - dense, mineralized, living connective tissue - Hydroxyapatite crystals Ca5 (PO4)3(OH) and collagen - innervate & supplied with blood through Haversian and Volkmann’s canals

Answer 728

Bones

Question 729

2 bones types __________ __________

Answer 729

Compact Spongy

Question 730

_______________ - contact points between bones - Some are fixed and others articulate

Answer 730

Joints

Question 731

___________ skeleton - skull, vertebral column, & rib cage

Answer 731

Axial

Question 732

___________ skeleton - limbs, extremities, & pelvis

Answer 732

Appendicular

Question 733

_______________ - points of connection between bones

Answer 733

Joints

Question 734

_______________ - immovable dense, connective tissue

Answer 734

Fibrous joint

Question 735

_______________ - rigid limited movement - Cartilage as support between bones

Answer 735

Cartilaginous joint

Question 736

_______________ - movable, synovial fluid filled cavity inside synovial membrane - Knee, elbow, wrist …

Answer 736

Synovial joint

Question 737

_______________ - bone cells within solid mineral matrix - Rigid support

Answer 737

Compact bone

Question 738

_______________ - structural subunit of compact bone - Central canal with blood vessels & concentric circles called lamellae - Osteocytes occupy space is in lamellar matrix

Answer 738

Osteon

Question 739

_______________ (cancellous) - porous lightweight - in epiphyses of long bones & interior of others

Answer 739

Spongy bone

Question 740

_____________ (arches) - strong light cavities with marrow

Answer 740

Trabecullae

Question 741

Osteoclasts are stimulated by _________ to secrete HCl & proteases to digest old bone (osteolysis)

Answer 741

PTH

Question 742

Osteoblasts are stimulated by __________ to store Ca2+

Answer 742

Calcitonin

Question 743

_______________ - older trapped osteoblasts that are a part of the living bone matrix and secrete growth hormones

Answer 743

Osteocytes

Question 744

_______________ - dense, connective tissue, collagen, lack nerves and blood supply, but nourished by perichondrium membrane

Answer 744

Cartilage

Question 745

_______________ - dense fibrous connective tissue - connects bones to other bones

Answer 745

Ligament

Question 746

_______________ - tough fibrous connective tissue at the origin & terminal of muscles - Cross joints to attach muscle to bone (facilitate or limit movement)

Answer 746

Tendons

Question 747

_______________ - 4-5 layers of different types of epithelial cells - avascular (O2 diffuses from dermis) - Keratinocytes secrete intermediate filaments of tough keratin - New cells by mitosis in lower layers push older cells up, which bind together and fill with hydrophobic glycolipids & keratin and die (forming outer layers) - melanocytes (pigment), Langerhans cells (immune), Merkel cells (light touch)

Answer 747

Epidermis

Question 748

_______________ - thick layer of connective tissue that nourishes epidermis and has a high capillary density - Supports nerves, glands, smooth muscle, and production of hair & nails

Answer 748

Dermis

Question 749

_______________ - mostly adipose cells - fat layer insulates against heat loss

Answer 749

Hypodermis

Question 750

_______________ - muscles attached to each hair follicle

Answer 750

Arrector pili

Question 751

Integumentary exocrine glands are __________ & ____________

Answer 751

Sebaceous Sudoriferous (sweat)

Question 752

_______________ - skin interacts with circulatory system under sympathetic nerves/endocrine control to constrict or dilate dermis capillaries which shunt excess heat to skin or conserve it under Hypodermis insulating fat layer

Answer 752

Thermoregulation by vasodilation/vasoconstriction

Question 753

_______________ - dissipates heat by evaporative cooling

Answer 753

Sweating

Question 754

_______________ - cause hairs to stand up which creates an air boundary layer that prevents heat loss

Answer 754

Arrector pili

Question 755

Sweat has a (minor or major) role excreting salts, urea, & waste metabolites

Answer 755

Minor

Question 756

______ radiation helps in the synthesis of vitamin D (via Ca2+ metabolism)

Answer 756

UVB radiation

Question 757

UV is absorbed by & stimulates further production of _________

Answer 757

Melanin

Question 758

The skin displays immune protection by preventing infection by pathogens via secreting ________________

Answer 758

Anti-bacterial sebum

Question 759

_______________ - there is no single sense of touch - Different types of sensory neuron receptors, detect different types of tactile stimuli - Free nerve endings, Merkel receptors, Hair receptors, Meisner’s corpuscle’s, Pancinian corpuscles, Ruffini’s corpuscles, & Krause’s bulb

Answer 759

Tactile sensory receptors

Question 760

_______________ - detect pain in the epidermidis

Answer 760

Free nerve endings

Question 761

_______________ - Detect light touch or distinguish shapes & textures in the epidermidis

Answer 761

Merkel receptors

Question 762

_______________ - free nerve endings wrapped around hair follicles that detect pressure or movement against hairs

Answer 762

Hair receptors

Question 763

_______________ - detect light touch in upper dermis

Answer 763

Meisner’s corpuscles

Question 764

_______________ - detect deep pressure at the base of the dermis

Answer 764

Pacinian corpuscles

Question 765

_______________ - sense warmth _______________ - detect cold

Answer 765

Ruffini’s corpuscles Krause’s bulbs

Question 766

3 kinds of causes for small scale mutations ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 766

Substitution Insertion Deletion

Question 767

____________ - mutation where 1 base replaces another - could be a transition (purine for a purine) or transversion (pyrimidine for a pyrimidine)

Answer 767

Substitution

Question 768

A substitution where a purine base replaces a different purine base is called a ____________

Answer 768

Transition

Question 769

A substitution where a purine base replaces a pyrimidine base is called a ____________

Answer 769

Transversion

Question 770

3 kinds of substitution mutations ____________ ____________ ____________

Answer 770

Silent Missense Nonsense

Question 771

____________ - a substitution mutation that does not alter amino acid sequence

Answer 771

Silent mutation

Question 772

____________ - a substitution mutation that does alter amino acid sequence

Answer 772

Missense mutation

Question 773

____________ - A substitution mutation that causes early stop codon - Results in a non-functional protein

Answer 773

Nonsense mutation

Question 774

__________ or _________ - can result in a frameshift mutation and completely altering a protein

Answer 774

Insertion or deletion

Question 775

____________ - jumping genes - can splice new genetic material into different loci in the genome - Altering proteins, creating frameshifts, or altering gene regulation

Answer 775

Transposons

Question 776

____________ - can insert new genetic material into genomes - Act like a transposons

Answer 776

Viruses

Question 777

____________ - induce mutations - UV, ionizing radiation, free radicals, viruses, & transposons

Answer 777

Mutagens

Question 778

____________ - provides a measure of evolutionary time by comparing accumulated DNA mutations or changes in amino acid sequences of proteins among species

Answer 778

Molecular clock

Question 779

____________ - Heritable changes over time in populations

Answer 779

Evolution

Question 780

____________ - due to sexual reproduction, recombination, & mutations

Answer 780

Genetic variation

Question 781

____________ - Exchange of genes among populations - Increases variation within populations and decreases reproductive isolation of populations necessary for speciation

Answer 781

Gene flow

Question 782

____________ - Random divergence in gene pools when populations are isolated

Answer 782

Genetic drift

Question 783

____________ - in small populations, minor changes in allele frequencies have large affects on later generations (founder effect)

Answer 783

Evolutionary bottleneck

Question 784

____________ - fittest individuals in a population with traits that aid survival and reproduction contribute more to gene pools of later generations - May be directional, stabilizing, or disruptive - Occurs at level of jeans, individuals, kin groups, or populations

Answer 784

Natural selection

Question 785

____________ - nonrandom mating - mate choice based on phenotypic characteristics

Answer 785

Sexual selection

Question 786

____________ - crossing of 2 related species - Viability : ability of offspring to reproduce - Leakage : movement of genes among different species (due to hybridization between species or transfer through a viral vector, which causes a horizontal gene transfer in evolution)

Answer 786

Hybridization

Question 787

____________ - The change in traits that increase in organisms fitness Occurs at the level of population or species (not individuals)

Answer 787

Adaptation

Question 788

____________ - The role in organism plays in its ecosystem (habitat, diet, reproductive strategies, migration …) - Successful adaptations make the organism better suited for this

Answer 788

Niche

Question 789

____________ - A group of naturally interbreeding organisms that produce new individuals of the same kind

Answer 789

Species

Question 790

____________ - The development of new species through the evolution of a population of an existing species that is reproductively isolated from the original species

Answer 790

Speciation

Question 791

A persons temperament is influenced in part by genes - Certain alleles of dopamine receptor _____ are associated with risk taking behavior and others with emotional stress resistance

Answer 791

D4