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Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

_______________
- fundamental subunit of polypeptides/proteins

A

Amino acid
(AA)

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2
Q

There are ____ amino acids that are coded for by the DNA & there are ____ essential amino acids and ____ nonessential amino acids

A

20
9
11

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3
Q

Amino Acid Structure includes :
____________ bonded to a hydrogen
____________ group
____________ group
____________ group

A

Central a-carbon bonded to a hydrogen
Amine group (-NH2)
Carboxyl group (-COOH)
Variable functional group (R-group)

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4
Q

All amino acids are chiral except ____________

A

Glycine

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5
Q

_______________
- 4 different distinct groups bound to an α-Carbon resulting in non-superimposable mirror-images
- a form of isomer with different configuration around a chiral center (forms 2 isomers)

A

Enantiomers

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6
Q

Amino acids form __________ at low pH
Amino acids form __________ at high pH
Amino acids form __________ at intermediate pH

A

Cations
Anions
Neutral zwitterions (contains both positive and negative electrical charges, but the net charge on the molecule is zero COO- & NH3+)

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7
Q

R-group chemical properties :
____________ - aliphatic or aromatic
____________ - pH neutral, acidic, alkaline, 3 with sulfur, or selenium

A

Non-polar
Polar

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8
Q

____________
- amino acids form peptide bonds by dehydration synthesis between the amino group of 1 amino acid & the carboxyl group of another amino acid

A

Polypeptide synthesis

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9
Q

Polypeptide synthesis is facilitated by ribosomes during ____________ of mRNA

A

translation

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10
Q

Proteins are composed of 1 or more long ____________ molecules

A

polypeptide

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11
Q

Other bonds formed in the synthesis & activation of proteins include __________ linkages between cysteine R-groups and __________ bonds between polar R-groups

A

Disulfide linkages
Hydrogen Bonds

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12
Q

In protein digestion, the protease or peptidase enzymes break peptide bonds via ____________

A

Hydrolysis

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13
Q

____________ structure
- actual sequence of amino acids in the protein due to peptide bonds

A

Primary structure

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14
Q

____________ structure
- 2 common configurations
- a-helix & B-pleated sheet are due to Hydrogen bonds between amine hydrogens and carbonyl oxygen of amino acids
- especially prevalent in fibrous structural proteins

A

Secondary structure

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15
Q

____________ structure
- 3D shape of entire polypeptide due to interaction among hydrophobic R-groups & hydrophilic R-groups, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, & disulfide bridges between cysteine R-groups

A

Tertiary structure

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16
Q

Structural proteins usually have ________ tertiary structures

A

Fibrous

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17
Q

Enzymes usually have ________ tertiary structures

A

Globular

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18
Q

____________ structures
- 2 or more polypeptides combine to form a functional protein or incorporation of ligands
- ex : Fe containing heme groups of hemoglobin

A

Quaternary structures

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19
Q

Long sequences of (non-polar OR polar) amino acids are found in membrane-bound proteins or membrane-embedded proteins & attach protein to lipid bilayer or folded into the interior to stabilize the 3D structure of proteins dissolved in water

A

Non-polar

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20
Q

____________
- disruption of protein/polypeptide folding & activity by changes in pH, Temperature, or presence of hydrophobic solvents

A

Denaturation

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21
Q

____________
- correct refolding of denatured protein

A

Renaturation

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22
Q

____________
- dissolved proteins are surrounded by water molecules oriented according to the charges of the amino acids in that particular surface of the folded protein
- have properties key to binding of substrates to protein active sites

A

Solvation layer

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23
Q

____________
- proteins are forced by electric current to pass through a medium that sorts molecules by size, charge, and/or other chemical properties

A

Electrophoresis

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24
Q

__________________
- proteins have unique combinations of R-groups charged positive or negative
- at a specific pH then a particular protein acquires neutral charge (therefore stops moving due to no electromagnetic field force)
- proteins then separated along a pH gradient gel with cathode & anode charges at either end

A

Isoelectric focusing

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25
Q

____________ chromatography
- mixtures of proteins dissolved in a solvent pass by gravity or under pressure through a medium that binds with varied affinity to substances in the mixture
- more soluble (lower binding affinity) molecules pass through the column fastest & others lag behind so each can be collected as it passes through the column

A

Column chromatography

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26
Q

_________________
- different molecules’ mass-to-charge ratios detected by bombarding them with beams of electrons
- magnetic field separates charged molecules by mass & charge

A

Mass spectrometry

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27
Q

X-ray crystallography & computer modeling can help determine _______________

A

3D protein folding

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28
Q

True or False
Protein function is due to conformational strength, stability, & binding specificity

A

True

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29
Q

Functions of ___________
- enzymes, providing structure, facilitating movement, transport, or storage of substances & communication
- membrane bound, dissolved, or suspended in organelles or cytosol or are secreted out of cells

A

proteins

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30
Q

____________ proteins
- collagen (cartilage, bone, tendon)
- keratin (nails, hair, horn)
- histones (DNA supercoiling)
- cytoskeleton
- bacterial/fungal cell walls

A

Structural

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30
Q

____________
- catalysts of biochemical reactions
- suffix : -ase

A

Enzymes

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31
Q

Proteins that help facilitate ____________
- muscle function (actin, myosin, tropomyosin)
- kinesins
- flagella
- cilia

A

Movement

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32
Q

__________ & _________ proteins
- membrane pumps
- membrane channels
- hemoglobin
- myoglobin

A

Transport & Storage proteins

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33
Q

___________ & __________ proteins
- peptide hormones (insulin, adrenalin)
- neurotransmitters
- antigens (surface markers)
- antibodies (target non-self antigens)

A

Communication & Identification proteins

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34
Q

____________
- proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions
- production, activation, & regulation determine the complex biochemical dynamics in living organisms
- not reactants & can catalyze the same reaction repeatedly
- highly substrate specific & enzymes specificity includes stereochemistry
- do not influence the thermodynamics (just kinetic reaction rate)

A

Enzymes

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35
Q

Energy consumed in ____________ enzyme catalyzed reactions are usually obtained when the enzyme activity is coupled with the __________ catalysis of the reaction ATP –> ADP + Pi

A

endergonic
exergonic

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36
Q

Enzyme-catalyzed reactions are linked sequentially to form ________________

A

Biochemical pathways

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37
Q

____________
- series of gradual chemical changes in a reactant to form a particular product

A

Biochemical pathways

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38
Q

____________
- biochemical reactions/pathways break down complex molecules into simpler molecules or release potential chemical energy stored in chemical bonds
- associated with digestion, hydrolysis, oxidation, & exergonic processes

A

Catabolism

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39
Q

____________
- biochemical reactions/pathways that synthesize complex macromolecules from simpler subunits and/or form bonds that help store chemical energy
- associated with polymerization, dehydration synthesis, reduction, & endergonic processes

A

Anabolism

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40
Q

____________ reactions
- anabolic reactions & catabolic reactions together
- dephosphorylation of PEP –> pyruvate coupled with substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP to ATP in glycolysis

A

Coupled reactions

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41
Q

__________ bond with substrates (reactants) at substrate-specific active sites

A

Enzymes

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42
Q

____________
- change conformation to form enzyme-substrate complex (lowers the activation energy of reactions that create or break substrate bonds by several ways)

A

Induced fit

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43
Q

The ____________ lowers activation energy of reactions that create or break substrate bonds by :
- conformationally straining bonds so they break more readily
- placing substrates together in an orientation that causes a chemical reaction
- creating an active site microenvironment that induces a reaction
- forming temporary bonds with the substrate as a step toward formation of the product

A

enzyme-substrate complex

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44
Q

True of false:
Enzymes function within a limited optimal range of temperature & pH conditions

A

True

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45
Q

Apoenzymes may require cofactors (metal ions or organic molecules) to become activated ____________

A

Holoenzymes

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46
Q

Cofactors that are permanently incorporated into the enzyme are called _____________

A

Prosthetic groups

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47
Q

Cofactors that are temporarily bind to enzymes are called ____________

A

Coenzymes
(ATP, NAD+, coenzyme A)

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48
Q

Enzyme catalysis involves 2 steps:
1.
2.

A
  1. Binding of enzyme to substrate to form E-S complex
  2. formation of product
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49
Q

The ______________________ (aka the Km value) is the substrate concentration
at which the reaction rate
is half of the maximum rate & it is a measure of how well an enzyme binds to its substrate

A

Michaelis-Menten constant

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50
Q

A (low OR high) Km = high affinity for enzyme to substrate & low rate of catalysis

A

Low Km

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51
Q

A (low OR high) Km = low enzyme-substrate affinity & high rate of catalysis

A

High Km

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52
Q

True or false:
The rate of an enzyme reaction or non-enzyme protein binding (antigen/antibody) is a function of substrate concentration [S], Km value, & maximum catalysis rate Vmax

A

True

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53
Q

True or false:
Temperature & pH affect conformational stability of enzymes (ability to bind or catalyze substrate declines)

A

True

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54
Q

Enzyme activity is regulated __________ & __________ control of genes coding for those enzymes

A

transcription
translation

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55
Q

Activation of enzymes by modification of the inactive forms, which are called ____________

A

zymogens

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56
Q

True or false:
The activation of enzymes occurs by change in the environment (secretion into stomach acid), addition of organic or inorganic covalently bonded groups (phosphorylation), & presence of inhibitors or activators

A

True

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57
Q

____________ may be products of enzyme catalysis or products farther down the biochemical pathway, or may be substances not directly related to the enzyme-catalyzed reaction

A

inhibitors

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58
Q

____________ enhance enzyme activity

A

activators

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59
Q

_______________
- in multi-polypeptide enzymes the substrate binding to 1 subunit enhances binding to others

A

Positive cooperativity

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60
Q

_______________
- substrate binding to 1 subunit reduces binding to others

A

Negative cooperativity

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61
Q

______________ inhibition
- inhibitor to substrate that binds to the same active site as the substrate
- formation of enzyme-substrate complex is reduced and therefore Km increases while Vmax stays the same because higher substrate concentration still increases catalysis

A

Competitive inhibition

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62
Q

______________ inhibition
- inhibitor that binds to the enzyme but not at the active site (allosteric change to enzyme conformation)
- prevents enzyme-substrate complex from completing catalysis
- enzyme still binds to substrate so Km stays the same but Vmax decreases

A

Non-competitive inhibition

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63
Q

______________ inhibition
- inhibitor binds to enzyme-substrate complex and prevents enzyme-substrate binding & prevents catalysis
- Km increases and Vmax decreases

A

Uncompetitive inhibition

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64
Q

The inverse of the _______________ rate yields a linear equation that when graphed it clarifies the effects of enzyme inhibitors on Km or Vmax

A

Michaelis-Menten

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65
Q

______________
- subunit of nucleic acids
- contains a phosphate, a 5-Carbon Sugar, & a Nitrogenous base (A, G, C, T, or U)

A

Nucleotide

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66
Q

________ : nitrogenous bases bound to ribose
________ : nitrogenous bases bound to deoxyribose

A

RNA
DNA

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67
Q

The DNA molecule forms a double helix (twisted ladder structure) :
“Rails” are alternating __________ & __________
“Rungs” are the __________

A

deoxyribose & phosphate subunits
base pairs

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68
Q

Bonds between the base pairs in DNA molecules are ___________

A

H bonds

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69
Q

Bonds between alternating deoxyribose & phosphate subunits in DNA molecules are ____________

A

Phosphodiester bonds

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70
Q

In DNA the phosphodiester linkage is highly stable and the helical structure is maintained by ____________ between nonadjacent sugar molecules as the molecule twists

A

H bonds

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71
Q

Base pairing : between a purine & a pyrimidine
A pairs to _____
C pairs to _____

A

A to T
C to G

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72
Q

The base pairing between A & T contains a ________ H bond
The base pairing between C & G contains a ________ H bond

A

Double
Triple

73
Q

______________ rule
- equal concentrations of A & T also same for C & G

A

Chargaff’s rule

74
Q

DNA strands are ____________
- sequence of 1 strand can be known from the other strand

A

complementary

75
Q

DNA strands are ____________
- the 5’ carbon of the sugar molecules & phosphate on 1 strand are in opposite directions on the other complementary strand
- the 3’ carbons of each sugar are opposite the 5’ ends
- because of the orientation of the 2 strands, 1 end of each strand is designated the 5’ end & the other is the 3’ end

A

antiparallel

76
Q

True or False :
In DNA molecules there are thousands to several hundred million base pairs and the hydrogen bonds are weak but the cumulative effect makes the double strand stable

A

True

77
Q

The denaturation of DNA molecules can be caused by Heat, Acid, or Enzymes can disrupt the __________ holding the strands together

A

H bonds

78
Q

DNA _______ denaturation is the first step in a variety of techniques including DNA hybridization & PCR

A

Heat

79
Q

In DNA heat denaturation the more A-T pairs there are then the (lower OR higher) the temperature required to cause denaturation

A

Lower
- due to A-T only having 2 H bonds than compared to C-G having 3 H bonds

80
Q

DNA ____________
- cooling process after heat denaturation so the DNA strands restore base pairing

A

Annealing

81
Q

DNA ____________
- denatured DNA from different sources are combined and allowed to reanneal (similar sequences bind together)
- used to help locate or mark specific sequences or genes or measure similarity of 2 DNA molecules

A

DNA Hybridization

82
Q

In RNA, the pyrimidine __________ replaces Thymine as the base complementary to Adenine

A

Uracil

83
Q

True or False :
RNA molecules are much smaller and more mobile than to their parent DNA molecules in chromosome

A

True

84
Q

DNA has 2 functions :
____________
____________

A

Heredity
Genes

85
Q

______________
- responsible for carrying traits from 1 generation to the next generation

A

Heredity

86
Q

______________
- information to make protein and RNA

A

Genes

87
Q

______________ RNA
- is a transcribed gene
- prokaryotes : contains all the info to synthesize a single polypeptide
- eukaryotes : primary transcript introns are spliced out to form secondary transcript

A

mRNA
- messenger RNA

88
Q

______________ RNA
- most transfer RNA molecules carry 1 of the 20 amino acids to ribosomes which are creating a polypeptide
- contains a 3-base anticodon which pairs with a mRNA codon

A

tRNA
- transfer RNA

89
Q

______________
- a component of ribosomes in which catalyzes peptide bond formation

A

rRNA
- ribosomal RNA

90
Q

RNA’s that contribute to __________ regulation
- miRNA, siRNA, snRNA, snoRNA, Xist RNA, CRISPR RNA

A

Gene regulation

91
Q

____________ systems are inherently physical & chemical systems

A

Biological systems

92
Q

Gibbs free energy incorporates the 2 components of thermodynamics in chemical systems
____________ & ____________

A

Enthalpy (H) & Entropy (S)

93
Q

In Gibbs free energy, if the G > 0 then the process is ______________

A

Endergonic (consumes energy)

94
Q

In Gibbs free energy, if the G < 0 then the process is _____________

A

Exergonic (releases energy)

95
Q

____________
- biological systems convert light energy into chemical energy

A

Photosynthesis

96
Q

______________
- biological systems convert chemical energy into other forms of chemical energy

A

Cellular respiration

97
Q

____________ affect the rate at which biochemical reactions reach equilibrium but do not affect the final equilibrium concentrations

A

Catalysts

98
Q

Increasing concentration of either of the __________ increases the forward reaction until equilibrium concentrations are reestablished

A

reactants

99
Q

Increasing concentration of either of the __________ increases the reverse reaction until equilibrium is reestablished

A

products

100
Q

______________
- the ribonucleoside Adenosine bound to a trimer of 3 phosphates linked by high-energy phosphodiester bonds

A

ATP

101
Q

ATP & GTP act as __________ in many endergonic enzyme-catalyzed reactions so when the enzyme, motor protein, or membrane pump binds to its substrate then it also binds to an ATP at a different site

A

coenzyme

102
Q

In the ATP molecule, hydrolysis of the phosphodiester bond between the 2nd and 3rd phosphates cause a release of ______ Kcal/mol.

A

7.3 Kcal/mol.

103
Q

Enzyme : ____________
- remove a -COOH group

A

Carboxylases

104
Q

Enzyme : _______/__________
- catalyze oxidation reactions
- use electron carriers (NAD+ & FAD) and other flavonoids as cofactors
- some reactions also decarboxylate the substrate

A

Oxidase / dehydrogenases

105
Q

Enzyme : ____________
- transfer phosphate groups to substrates

A

Kinases

106
Q

Enzyme : ____________
- remove a phosphate

A

Phosphatases

107
Q

Enzyme : ____________
- reconfigure the molecule to an isomer

A

Isomerases

108
Q

Enzyme : ____________
- add an electron (accompanied by an H+ from NADH + H+ or from FADH2)

A

Reductases

109
Q

Enzyme : ________/_________
- responsible for anabolic formation of macromolecules

A

Polymerases / Synthases

110
Q

Digestive / Catabolic enzymes are named for the substrate they break down :
________ - break down protein
________ - break down lipids
________ - break down lactose
________ - break down maltose
________ - break down nucleic acids

A

Proteases
Lipases
Lactase
Maltase
Nucleases

111
Q

____________
- the 1st step in cellular respiration
- oxidizes food molecules (glucose) and uses energy released to catalyze ADP + Pi –> ATP
- occurs in cytoplasm of all cells

A

Glycolysis

112
Q

Glycolysis summary :
- the 1st 3 reactions consume _____ ATP molecules to convert glucose to fructose biphosphate (the negatively charged phosphates help split the Hexose to form _____ 3-Carbon glyceraldehyde phosphates
- in a series of oxidative reactions, _____ G3P are converted to 2 pyruvate and these steps produce 4 ATP as well as 2 molecules of reduced electron carrier NADH + H+

A

2
2

113
Q

Glycolytic intermediates are precursors for many __________ processes

A

anabolic

114
Q

____________
- anaerobically recycles NAD+ to glycolysis

A

Fermentation

115
Q

____________ fermentation
- anaerobic bacteria & yeast
- 2 pyruvate –> 2 ethanol + 2 CO2
- coupled with NADH + H+ –> NAD+

A

Ethanol fermentation

116
Q

____________ fermentation
- muscle cells that are O2 stressed (anaerobic)
- 2 pyruvate –> 2 lactate
- coupled with NADH + H+ –> NAD+

A

Lactic acid fermentation

117
Q

____________
- synthesizes glucose from simpler molecules including lactate, glycerol, glutamine, & alanine
- these molecules converted to pyruvate which is then reduced to form glucose
- “essentially reverse glycolysis”

A

Gluconeogenesis

118
Q

Gluconeogenesis derives its energy by consuming _____ ATP molecules and _____ GTP molecules

A

4 ATP
2 GTP

119
Q

Gluconeogensis occurs mainly in ________ cells and is regulated by production of glucagon in the pancreas when blood sugar is too low

A

Liver cells

120
Q

____________
- an alternative pathway in which energy from glucose is used to synthesize NADPH (a reduced electron carrier/coenzyme in many anabolic processes
- also used as an antioxidant to reduce cell damage by free radicals
- pathway yields ribose (nucleotide synthesis) & erythrose (aromatic amino acid synthesis)

A

Pentose Phosphate Pathway (PPP)

121
Q

The Pentose Phosphate Pathway takes place predominantly in the __________

A

Liver

122
Q

Aerobic Respiration : 4 steps
1.
2.
3.
4.

A

Glycolysis
Pyruvate Oxidation
Citric Acid Cycle
Oxidative Phosphorylation (ETC)

123
Q

Acetyl-CoA is transported into the _______________

A

Mitochondrial Matrix

124
Q

All 6 carbons from glucose during aerobic respiration are converted to __________

A

CO2

125
Q

True or False :
Intermediate substrates of Citric Acid cycle are involved in other pathways

A

True

126
Q

____________
- final pathway in aerobic respiration
- yields additional 26-28 ATP per glucose
- NADH + H+ & FADH2 in the mitochondrial matrix give their electrons to a series of protein complexes in the inner mitochondrial membrane
- as electrons pass between the protein complexes the H+ are pumped from matrix to intermembrane space

A

Electron transport chain (ETC)

127
Q

In Electron Transport Chain, the accumulation of protons (H+) is called _______________

A

Chemiosmotic Potential

128
Q

True or False:
Protons (H+) pass through ATP synthase complexes embedded in inner membrane, the positive charge helps neutralize repulsion between phosphates, allows new phosphodiester bonds to form, & the protons (H+) passing through ATP synthase and the electrons from the ETC react with O2 to form H2O

A

True

129
Q

Anaerobic respiration net yield of ATP is _____
Aerobic respiration net yield of ATP is _____

A

2 ATP
30-32 ATP

130
Q

Carbohydrate homeostasis combines __________ enzyme control of respiratory pathways with hormonal regulation

A

Allosteric

131
Q

In glycolysis, enzymes that phosphorylate or dephosphorylate substrates act as sites of control :
- high concentration of ______ inhibits phosphofructokinase which stops the production of fructose diphosphate

A

ATP

132
Q

Reactions in the Citric Acid Cycle are :
- inhibited by high concentrations of ____________ & ________
- stimulated by high concentrations of _________

A

NADH + H+ & ATP
ADP

133
Q

High or Low glucose stimulates either production or oxidation of __________

A

Lipids
High glucose –> production of lipids
Low glucose –> oxidation of lipids

134
Q

The hormone ____________ causes glycogen formation, gluconeogenesis, and production of gastrin & CCK

A

Glucagon

135
Q

__________ hormones control basal metabolic rates

A

Thyroid

136
Q

____________
- damage to biomolecules/cells/tissues due to reactivity of oxygen-free radicals & peroxides
- reactive oxidizers are necessary to the electron transport chain, immune system function, and cell-signaling mechanisms
- overabundance of reactive oxidizers can trigger cell apoptosis or necrosis at the tissue level
- degenerative, developmental, cardiovascular diseases, & cancer are associated

A

Oxidative stress

137
Q

Apoptosis
- enzyme-controlled cell death that is mediated in part by mitochondrial exposure to oxidative stress then the mitochondria release cytochrome C and several enzyme activators that stimulate activity of ____________ enzymes (trigger the cascade leading to apoptosis

A

Caspase enzymes

138
Q

__________ factors that affect metabolism & body mass regulation
- diet (caloric intake & food type), physical activity, sleep patterns, pollutants/toxins, medications, & cultural/economic factors

A

Environmental factors

139
Q

__________ factors that affect metabolism & body mass regulation
- levels of thyroid hormones, liver function, & specific genetic conditions

A

Genetic factors

140
Q

Gut flora, pathogens, & parasites can influence body mass and __________ uptake

A

Nutrient

141
Q

High body mass creates a positive feedback and hormones that enhance appetite (leptin & CCK) are produced by __________ tissue

A

Adipose (fat)

142
Q

__________
- pathological syndrome associated with increased affluence in developing countries & poverty in developed countries

A

Obesity

143
Q

__________ synthesis
- if ATP demand is low & glucose levels are high then acety-CoA diverts from respiration to FA synthesis
- fatty acid synthases form a growing hydrocarbon chain using NADPH as a reducing agent
- primarily in liver, adipose, & mammary tissue

A

Fatty acid synthesis

144
Q

The energy yield from fat oxidation is ______ kcal/g compared to the energy yield from carbohydrates or proteins of 4 kcal/g

A

9 kcal/g

145
Q

Ingested or stored fats are digested by __________

A

Lipases

146
Q

Fatty acids are transported bound to ____________

A

albumin

147
Q

Inside mitochondria, fatty acids undergo ____________ which cleaves off 2 carbons at a time from the fatty acid and forming acetyl-CoA which enters the Krebs cycle

A

Beta-Oxidation

148
Q

__________ bodies
- are 3 biochemicals when food is not available or energy demands exceeds carbohydrate supply
- 2 can become acetyl-CoA but the 3rd (acetone) is excreted but can reach toxic levels (leading to ketoacidosis)

A

Ketone bodies

149
Q

__________
- breakdown of proteins into its component amino acids

A

Proteolysis

150
Q

__________ synthesis is accomplished by ribosomes

A

Protein synthesis

151
Q

The digestive system has __________ enzymes that catabolize proteins so amino acids can be absorbed and then transported to cells to be used in gene expression/protein synthesis

A

protease enzymes

152
Q

Low carb & low fat causes dietary or cellular __________ to be used as energy sources (broken down in the liver by transamination to alpha-keto acids & converted to acetyl-CoA for oxidation in the Krebs cycle)

A

proteins

153
Q

__________
- causes glycogen to be broken down into glucose to be used as an energy source
- causes fat catabolism to ketone bodies to provide energy to the brain
- causes protein to be catalyzed

A

Starvation

154
Q

__________
- a diverse group of hydrophobic biochemicals with a wide range of functions
- fats, oils (acylglycerols) waxes, steroids, & terpenes

A

Lipids

155
Q

__________ functions
- long-term energy storage, cell membranes (phosphodiglycerides & cholesterol), thermal & electrical insulation, waterproofing (waxes), buoyancy, padding, hormones (steroids), plant defenses (terpenes), and communication (pheromones)

A

lipid functions

156
Q

Fats & oils are a glycerol with ________ bonds to 1-3 fatty acids (termed -glycerides)

A

ester bonds

157
Q

__________
- a carboxyl group & a long hydrocarbon polymer

A

Fatty acids

158
Q

__________ fatty acids
- single bonds between pair of carbons

A

Saturated fatty acids

159
Q

__________ fatty acids
- 1 or more double bonds between carbons in the hydrocarbon chain

A

Unsaturated fatty acids

160
Q

True or False:
Fats & oils vary in the number of fatty acids, fatty acid hydrocarbon chain length, & if the fatty acids are saturated or unsaturated

A

True

161
Q

Short-chain fatty acids contain _______ carbons
Medium-chain fatty acids contain _______ carbons
Long-chain fatty acids contain _______ or more carbons

A

4-6
8-12
14-40

162
Q

Short chain fatty acids are (less OR more) hydrophobic than longer chain fatty acids

A

Less

163
Q

__________ unsaturated fatty acids
- contain double bonds between 1 or more carbons
- are straight

A

trans-unsaturated fatty acids

164
Q

__________ unsaturated fatty acids
- contain double bonds between 1 or more carbons
- have bends in them that reduce hydrophobicity

A

cis-unsaturated fatty acids

165
Q

__________
- synthesized from fatty acids but rearranged to form 4 hydrocarbon rings

A

Steroids

166
Q

Carotenoids & Lipophilic vitamins are derived from __________

A

fatty acids

167
Q

__________
- phospholipid bilayer
- stable : insoluble in cell’s aqueous environment
- selectively permeable : retains vital ions & biochemicals inside the cell
- fluid : flexible, grow and engulf/discharge substances
- complex mosaic : proteins, sterols, other biochemicals (complex are embedded in, penetrating, or extending from membrane)

A

Plasma membrane

168
Q

__________
- contain C, H, & O
- basic formula : (CH2O)n

A

Carbohydrates

169
Q

Monosaccharides
________ : 3-C sugars such as glyceraldehydes
________ : 5-C sugars such as ribose & deoxyribose
________ : 6-C sugars such as glucose, fructose, etc.

A

Trioses
Pentoses
Hexoses

170
Q

__________
- contain 2 or more monosaccharides connected via dehydration synthesis to form a glycosidic linkage

A

Disaccharides

171
Q

__________
- composed of many sugar monomers connected by glycosidic linkages

A

Polysaccharides

172
Q

__________
- short term easily transported energy sources
- enter glycolysis as glucose or an intermediate further down the pathway

A

Monosaccharides

173
Q

Disaccharides are __________ in the digestive tract before absorption

A

hydrolyzed

174
Q

__________
- intermediate length
- often cell surface molecules involved in communication, transport, & recognition
- glycolipids or glycoproteins

A

Oligosaccharides

175
Q

__________
- structural (cellulose) or for longer-term energy storage (starches or glycogen)

A

Polysaccharides

176
Q

__________ constitutes dietary fiber and is indigestible by animals

A

Cellulose

177
Q

__________
- certain genes that when activated & expressed may promote or cause cancer
- may be triggered by mutation, chromosomal translocations, carcinogens, or viruses
- may cause cancer if there is a loss of gene regulation, duplication of the gene, or translocation of the oncogene to a region of higher transcription promotion
- many function by disrupting apoptosis, cause accumulation of a certain type of cell which would normally undergo stable turnover, new cells form to replace old ones that self-destruct via apoptosis
- form proteins that disrupt normal cell differentiation or increase rates of cell proliferation

A

Oncogenes

178
Q

True of False:
Many chemotherapy drugs target the oncoprotein products of oncogenes, binding them or allosterically competing with them

A

True

179
Q

__________
- complex transmembrane proteins
- when stimulated by membrane voltage potential depolarization or by ligand binding, open & passively facilitate diffusion of a particular ion along a concentration or charge gradient

A

Gated ion channel

180
Q

__________
- transmembrane proteins that when activated by binding of an external ligand then catalyze a reaction on the inner membrane surface, often initiating a pathway involved in cell growth or other cell activity

A

Receptor enzymes

181
Q

__________
- large complex transmembrane proteins
- receptor component on the cell surface binds to a ligand such as a hormone or neurotransmitter or to a sensory stimulus then a conformational change in the receptor occurs which stimulates a G protein on the interior membrane surface
- uses energy from hydrolysis of GTP where the G protein initiates a cAMP cascade by stimulating adenylate cyclase or comparable pathway to trigger cell specific functions

A

G protein-coupled receptors

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