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BIOLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q

type of junction that can block movement of fluids between cells and prevents solutes from leaking via a paracellular route

A

tight junctions

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2
Q

directly connects cells to allow for movement of small molecules

A

gap junctions

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3
Q

junction that binds alike/adjacent cells by anchoring their cytoskeletons

A

desmosomes

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4
Q

connect cells to basement membrane

A

hemidesmosomes

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5
Q

make up gap junctions which allow for the conduction of action potentials b/t cells, including specialized cells in the heart

A

connexin

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6
Q

saturated fatty acids make plasma membrane

A

less fluid

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7
Q

unsaturated fatty acids make plasma membrane

A

more fluid

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8
Q

4 sphingolipids:

A

ceramide, sphingomyelin, cerebrosides, gangliosides

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9
Q

stabilizes membrane in extreme heat

A

cholesterol

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10
Q

helps out with membrane fluidity in extreme cold

A

cholesterol

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11
Q

made up of long fatty acid chain and long-chain ester

A

waxes

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12
Q

examples of transmembrane proteins:

A

aquaporins, Na/K pump, and Cl channels

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13
Q

an example of peripheral protein

A

cytochrome c

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14
Q

play a role in sending and receiving chemical messages; on outside of cell

A

carbohydrates

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15
Q

thermodynamic equation that can be used for transport processes

A

deltaG= deltaH-TdeltaS

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16
Q

a +deltaG=

A

nonspontaneous; requires energy; active transport

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17
Q

a -deltaG=

A

spontaneous process; doesn’t need energy; depends on entropy

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18
Q

water flows towards higher what?

A

higher solute concentration

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19
Q

DNA that comes only from your mother

A

mitochondrial DNA

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20
Q

has ribosomes and used for protein translation

A

RER

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21
Q

used for lipid synthesis and detoxification

A

SER

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22
Q

cytoskeleton structure:

A

microfilaments
microtubules
intermediate proteins

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23
Q

microfilaments contain:

A

actin- protects cells

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24
Q

microtubules contain:

A

tubulin protiens- cilia and flagella

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25
Q

intermediate filaments contain:

A

filamentous protein- keratin

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26
Q

mitochondria DNA shape:

A

circular

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27
Q

what breaks down very long-chain fatty acids that can’t make it into mitochondria:

A

peroxisomes

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28
Q

prokaryotic plasma membrane characterisitc:

A

semipermeable

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29
Q

deals with gene regulation; turning genes off and on by DNA methylation and acetylation

A

epigenetics

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30
Q

order of embryogenesis

A

zygote->morula->bastula->gastrula

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31
Q

NS dealing with voluntary actions

A

somatic NS

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32
Q

released by parasympathetic NS participating in “rest and digest”

A

acetylcholine

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33
Q

releases insulin/glucagon; controls blood glucose

A

pancreas

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34
Q

hormones that are hydrophilic and act on cell membrane

A

peptide hormones

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35
Q

go through plasma membrane and interact with intracellular receptors; also binds DNA

A

steroid hormones

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36
Q

fast acting and short lived hormone

A

peptide

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37
Q

slower acting and long lived hormone

A

steroid

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38
Q

nucleotide vs. nucleoside difference

A

phosphate group on nucleotide

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39
Q

which position on codon shows degeneracy

A

3rd (wobble)

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40
Q

rRNA is also known as a

A

ribozyme

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41
Q

30S, 50S, 70S

A

prokaryote

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42
Q

40S, 60S, 80S

A

eukaryote

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43
Q

tightly packed DNA (heterochromatin) leads to what kind of transcriptional activity

A

the least activity

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44
Q

what does DNA methylation bind to to inhibit transcription

A

cytosine and adenine

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45
Q

prokaryotic mRNA different than eukaryotic b/c

A

it is polycistronic

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46
Q

Northern blot deals with

A

RNA

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47
Q

Western blot deals with

A

proteins

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48
Q

Southern blot deals with

A

DNA sequences

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49
Q

PCR deals with

A

amplifying DNA; denaturation, hybridization, and replication

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50
Q

after n cycles during PCR, how many daughter strands

A

2^n

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51
Q

gel electrophoresis deals with

A

length of DNA segment

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52
Q

in gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from where towards where

A

from cathode (-) towards anode (+)

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53
Q

ribose structure vs. deoxyribose structure

A

ribose (OH at position 2 and 3); deoxyribose (OH at position 3, not 2)

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54
Q

purine structure:

A

2 rings; adenine (no carbonyl group)

guanine (carbonyl group)

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55
Q

pyrimidine structure:

A

1 ring; cytosine (1 carbonyl)

thymine (2 carbonyls)

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56
Q

number of H bonds b/t C and G

A

3

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57
Q

number of H bonds b/t A and T

A

2

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58
Q

hnRNA to mRNA by

A

post-transcriptional modification

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59
Q

what is removed during splicing

A

introns

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60
Q

James-Lange:

A

bear!->run->fear

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61
Q

Cannon-Bard:

A

bear! and then both fear and run together but independent of each other

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62
Q

Schacter-Singer:

A

bear!->run->fear but then go through cognitive appraisal to figure out what emotion you are experiencing when you have butterflies in stomach for example

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63
Q

cells produced from FSH

A

sertoli cells

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64
Q

cells produced from LH

A

leydig cells

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65
Q

secreted from adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine and noepinephrine

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66
Q

secreted from adrenal cortex

A

sex hormones and cortisol

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67
Q

hormones secreted from posterior pituitary

A

ADH, oxytocin

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68
Q

hormones secreted from anterior pituitary

A

FLAT PEG

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69
Q

contract one muscle, what happens to the opposing muscle

A

it relaxes and vice versa

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70
Q

what is not found inside a viral particle

A

lipids

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71
Q

what kind of immunity do vaccines cause

A

active immunity

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72
Q

active immunity from vaccines is mediated by what

A

B lymphocytes

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73
Q

produces antibodies and memory B cells would be activated

A

B lymphocytes

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74
Q

attached to basement membrane

A

epithelial tissue

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75
Q

axons carry signals away from what

A

cell body

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76
Q

water is used to split a larger molecule

A

hydrolysis

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77
Q

formation of bonds to a larger molecule

A

condensation

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78
Q

produced in bone marrow

A

B lymphocyte

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79
Q

produced in bone marrow but mature in thymus

A

T lymphocytes

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80
Q

participate in humoral response

A

B lymphocytes

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81
Q

participate in cell-mediated response

A

T lymphocytes

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82
Q

a change in behavior as a result of the knowledge that one is being observed

A

The Hawthorne effect

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83
Q

long bones include

A

hands, feet, arms, legs

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84
Q

multiple alleles of the same gene being expressed

A

codominance

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85
Q

when 2 populations of one species diverge into two species while occupying the same physical environment

A

sympatric speciation

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86
Q

when two populations become physically isolated from one another and then diverge into two species

A

allopatric speciation

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87
Q

a cascade of signaling events during which a cell or tissue signals to another cell or tissue to influence its developmental fate

A

induction

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88
Q

enzyme with primary function in transcription

A

RNA polymerase

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89
Q

this reflex does not involve the brain; just the spinal cord

A

knee jerk reflex

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90
Q

separation of proteins based primarily on size

A

electrophoresis

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91
Q

separation of proteins depending on the charges on the surface of the protein

A

isoelectric focusing

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92
Q

2 parts for Hardy-Weinnberg equation:

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2=1

p + q=1

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93
Q

_____ produce adaptive memory cells in the absence of current infection

A

vaccines

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94
Q

consist of a nucleic acid and a protein capsid; can also be encapsulated by a lipoprotein or glycoprotein coat

A

virus

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95
Q

10^-1

A

0.1

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96
Q

the standard cell potential for a concentration cell is always what

A

zero

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97
Q

what type of reactions need ATP to to proceed

A

non-spontaneous reactions (+deltaG)

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98
Q

technique used to isolate one specific protein among hundreds

A

ELISA

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99
Q

when a fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation, it produces a molecule of acetyl coA, so how many carbon atoms are lost; how many C’s would be left after 3 rounds of beta oxidation

A

2; 10 C’s left

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100
Q

produced by thyroid; reduces calcium levels in blood

A

calcitonin

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101
Q

produced by parathyroid; release of calcium by bones into blood

A

PTH

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102
Q

produced by adrenal cortex:

A

glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, sex hormones

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103
Q

2 glucocorticoids that reduce inflammation

A

cortisol, cortisone

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104
Q

type of mineralcorticoid; deals w/ sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct; increases bp

A

aldosterone

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105
Q

2 sex hormones

A

androgens, estrogens

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106
Q

secretes insulin

A

Beta cells

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107
Q

secretes glucagon

A

alpha cells

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108
Q

secretes somatostatin

A

delta cells

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109
Q

steroid hormones produced by gonads

A

estrogen, progesterone, testosterone

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110
Q

deals with maturation of follicles in ovary

A

estrogen

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111
Q

prepares uterus for implantation

A

progesterone

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112
Q

deals with sperm production

A

testosterone

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113
Q

sex hormone, including testosterone that deals with facial and body hair

A

androgens

114
Q

provides water channels in collecting duct so water can be reabsorbed into the blood; involved in regulating plasma osmolarity

A

ADH

115
Q

produced by the kidneys and increases bp

A

renin

116
Q

released by the liver; increases bp

A

angiotensinogen

117
Q

used to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

renin

118
Q

used to convert angiotensin I to II

A

ACE

119
Q

this germ layer differentiates into the neural tissue including the neural crest

A

ectoderm

120
Q

neural tube defect

A

anencephaly

121
Q

essential for reducing the risk of neural tube defects

A

folate

122
Q

these T cells target viruses

A

CD8+

123
Q

antigen presenting cells

A

macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells

124
Q

negative selection of T-cells occurs where

A

thymus

125
Q

occurs when only certain genes are turned on

A

selective transcription

126
Q

virus can remain dormant in this cycle; but is virulent in the lytic cycle

A

lysogenic

127
Q

enzyme that converts RNA to DNA, allowing it to reinsert into genome

A

reverse transcriptase

128
Q

name for embryo as it implants into endometrial lining

A

blastocyst

129
Q

macrophages and what else come from myeloid stem cell progenitor

A

neutrophils

130
Q

kidneys and bone are derived from what germ layer

A

mesoderm

131
Q

which enzyme is produced by eukaryotes, but not by prokaryotes

A

telomerase (b/c eukaryotes have linear chromosomes)

132
Q

factors that shift oxygen binding curve to the right (less affinity for oxygen):

A

(seen in muscles, placenta)

  1. low pH
  2. high temp.
  3. high pCO2
  4. 2,3- BPG (DPG) (want hemoglobin molecule to give off more oxygen to fetus)
133
Q

factors that shift oxygen binding curve to the left (more affinity for oxygen):

A

(seen in lungs)

  1. high pH
  2. low temp.
  3. low pCO2
  4. HgbF (fetal hemoglobin); sucks up so much oxygen as it comes by placenta
134
Q

osmoregulatory protein in our blood; helps keep fluid in blood

A

albumin

135
Q

removes RBCs

A

spleen

136
Q

do RBCs have nuclei or membrane-bound organelles?

A

no

137
Q

carry oxygen throughout our body (from the lungs to the tissues); on hemoglobin

A

RBCs

138
Q

inactive form of protein

A

zymogen

139
Q

innate granulocytes

A

basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

140
Q

granulocyte that mediates allergic responses

A

basophils

141
Q

granulocyte that mediates allergic responses and respond to parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

142
Q

granulocyte that ingests bacteria, particularly those marked with antibody

A

neutrophils

143
Q

innate agranulocytes

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

144
Q

2 types of monocytes:

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

145
Q

attack cells not presenting MHC molecules

A

NK cells

146
Q

what do our self-cells display so NK cells won’t mistake them as foreign

A

self MHC-I

147
Q

recognize antigen presented by MHC-II on APCs; activates immune response

A

helper T cell; (CD4+)

148
Q

recognize non-self MHC-I antigen such as tumors and infections; trigger apoptosis

A

cytotoxic T cell; (CD8+)

149
Q

antigen binding site on antibody

A

variable region (v region)

150
Q

our body produces these antibodies to be specific for antigens

A

active antibodies

151
Q

antibodies made by the mother for the placenta

A

passive antibodies

152
Q

cells that make antibodies during the adaptive immune system

A

B cells

153
Q

when blood cells rupture and release their contents into the surrounding fluid; caused by blood w/ foreign antigens being introduced

A

hemolysis

154
Q

Anti-A antibody means what

A

you do not express A antigen, don’t have type A blood

155
Q

B blood type makes what Anti- antibody

A

Anti-A

156
Q

B blood type has what antigen presented on it

A

B antigen

157
Q

universal recipient blood type

A

AB

158
Q

does O blood type produce antigens

A

no

159
Q

antibodies produced from O blood type

A

Anti-A and Anti-B

160
Q

when do you have to worry about Rh factor

A

in a mother’s second pregnancy if she had been exposed to antibodies for Rh+ from fetus while she was Rh- for her first baby; the IgG antibodies that were made from first pregnancy will cross placental barrier to fetus and kill baby if baby is Rh+

161
Q

serves to concentrate urine

A

the loop of henle

162
Q

amount of solutes compared to water in urine

A

urine osmolality

163
Q

a lot of water in urine, fewer solutes means

A

low urine osmolality

164
Q

if more water is reabsorbed into blood from kidneys, then what happens to sodium concentration in blood

A

it decreases b/c the solution will now be more dilute (less solute)

165
Q

2 characteristics of DNA double helix:

A
  1. amount of G equals C

2. sugar-phosphate backbone forms exterior

166
Q

highly proliferative epithelial cells

A

GI epithelial cells

167
Q

targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome

A

ubiquitination

168
Q

example of posttranslational modification of proteins involving histone

A

histone acetylation

169
Q

infectious protein

A

prion

170
Q

where sperm become mature and motile

A

epididymis

171
Q

is mitochondrial replication coupled with the cell cycle?

A

no; so it can replicate at any stage, not just DNA replication in S phase

172
Q

mutations that least affect cells

A

point mutations

173
Q

if a mother has a mitochondrial mutation, will her offspring have it?

A

yes 100%; mitochondrial mutations exhibit maternal inheritance

174
Q

this control group is not exposed to the experimental treatment or to any other treatment that is expected to have an effect

A

negative control group

175
Q

both parents affected; can either have affected or unaffected children for this inheritance; while 2 unaffected parents can only produce unaffected offspring

A

autosomal dominant

176
Q

2 affected parents; all offspring affected; 2 unaffected parents can still have affected children; skips generation; what mode of inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

177
Q

an affected mother must have all affected sons; 2 parents affected will produce all affected offspring; unaffected mother can have affected or unaffected sons

A

X-linked recessive

178
Q

affected male must pass on to all male offspring; no affected females

A

Y-linked

179
Q

2 proteins can be produced from 1 mRNA that was transcribed

A

prokaryotes

180
Q

1 protein produced from one mRNA that was transcribed

A

eukaryotes

181
Q

gene that is expressed in a parent-specific manner

A

imprinted gene

182
Q

require a transcriptase (reverse transcriptase) to replicate themselves

A

RNA viruses

183
Q

if a lot of protein is in urine, what was messed up from the nephron

A

glomerulus

184
Q

what structures can move through membrane by passive diffusion

A

small, nonpolar hydrophobic structures

185
Q

acts as a buffer in the blood to neutralize acids and prevent decrease in pH

A

HCO3; bicarbonate

186
Q

3 recombination process for prokaryotes

A

transformation, conjugation, transduction

187
Q

results from the integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome

A

transformation

188
Q

bacterial form of mating (sexual reproduction); involves 2 cells forming a conjugation bridge b/t them that facilitates the transfer of genetic material

A

conjugation

189
Q

during transfer of genetic material in conjugation, info goes from what side to the other

A

(+) to (-)

190
Q

process that involves a vector; a virus carrying genetic material from one bacterium to another

A

transduction

191
Q

lack organelles and a nucleus

A

viruses

192
Q

contains genetic material, protein coat (capsid), and an envelope around of lipids, but on the outside

A

virus

193
Q

are enveloped or non-enveloped viruses easier to kill

A

enveloped

194
Q

how do viruses express and replicate genetic info

A

within a host cell

195
Q

these viruses contain reveres transcriptase that synthesizes DNA from RNA

A

retroviruses

196
Q

this phase maximizes cell’s machinery with little regard for host cell survival; very virulent

A

lytic phase

197
Q

this phase allows virus to be dormant in the host cell

A

lysogenic phase

198
Q

small pathogens that infect plants

A

viroids

199
Q

infectious proteins that cause misfolding of other proteins

A

prions

200
Q

for le chateliers principle, increasing pressure (which is the same as decreasing volume) would do what?

A

shift towards side with less moles

201
Q

for le chateliers principle, decreasing pressure (which would increase volume) would do what?

A

shift toward side with more moles

202
Q

does a membrane get smaller or bigger when vesicle attaches to it?

A

bigger

203
Q

what selection leads to speciation

A

disruptive selection

204
Q

during hardy weinburg questions, what is used when it asked for the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant phenotype?

A

BOTH p^2 and 2pq b/c that would be homozygous dominant and heterozygous which can both be dominantly expressed. NOT just p^2 which would be homozygous dominant genotype

205
Q

does myelin increase or decrease capacitance?

A

decrease; b/c it insulates axon and only allows conc. of ion channels at the Nodes of Ranvier

206
Q

observational study in which patients are categorized into different groups at the same point in time

A

cross-sectional study

207
Q

sorting participants into groups based on differences in risk factors and then assesses them at different points in time

A

cohort study

208
Q

separating a group into 2 randomized groups in order to determine the effects of a certain variable on a sample

A

experimental study

209
Q

subjects with a certain outcome are assessed for previous risk factors

A

case-control study

210
Q

junction that controls paracellular transport

A

tight junction

211
Q

do ependymal cells or astrocytes form the blood-brain barrier

A

astrocytes

212
Q

larger recombination frequencies indicate what about the distance b/t genes

A

greater distance

213
Q

if ALL individuals with a mutation have clinical symptoms then what kind of penetrance is that

A

full penetrance

214
Q

this selection keeps phenotypes in a narrow range, including extremes (averages the phenotypes)

A

stabilizing selection

215
Q

moves the average phenotype toward one extreme

A

directional selection

216
Q

moves toward 2 different phenotypes at the extremes and can lead to speciation

A

disruptive selection

217
Q

the state of not knowing whether there is a difference b/t two interventions

A

equipoise

218
Q

one group of cells influences the developmental pathway adopted by another group of cells

A

induction

219
Q

biological aging and lack of further cell division

A

senescence

220
Q

brain and spinal cord are only derived from what germ layer

A

ectoderm

221
Q

these molecules serve several diverse roles including acting as inflammatory markers

A

prostaglandins

222
Q

interfere with development, causing defects or death of developing embryo

A

teratogen

223
Q

what develops from chorionic villi

A

placenta

224
Q

what cellular structure is found in ependymal cells?

A

simple cuboidal cells; since they are epithelial and secrete cerebrospinal fluid

225
Q

what secretes cerebrospinal fluid

A

ependymal cells

226
Q

postsynaptic neuron requires a high frequency of stimulation events from a single presynaptic neuron in order to fire an action potential

A

temporal summation (frequency)

227
Q

process that takes place in the neuron cell body

A

protein synthesis

228
Q

where is the cell body of the affective (afferent) nerve in the reflex arc located

A

dorsal root ganglia

229
Q

efferent nerve exits spinal cord through what

A

ventral root (motor root)

230
Q

technique that measures mRNA levels of specific proteins; transcriptional regulation

A

RT-PCR

231
Q

what does the inactive X chromosome in females mean

A

it is one of the last chromosomes to replicate

232
Q

the one that is performed in the conditions that are not expected to give positive results

A

negative control

233
Q

when releasing things into another organ, what will a muscle do and what does a sphincter do

A

muscle: will contract

sphincter; will relax

234
Q

fats are broken down by what enzyme

A

lipase

235
Q

the number of solute particles per 1 L solvent, and the number of solute particles in 1 kg solvent

A

osmolarity and osmolality

236
Q

if there is a reduced blood volume, how do you maintain cardiac output

A

by increasing heart rate

237
Q

during exercise what will increase osmolarity of blood

A

presence of lactate in blood

238
Q

phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain

A

microglia

239
Q

what is an amber codon

A

stop codon

240
Q

a method to identify if an organism that shows a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous

A

test cross; cross dominant phenotype wit recessive phenotype

241
Q

influx of Na+ across motor end plate occurs when Na+ ion channels bind the ligand acetylcholine ;what kind of channel is this an example of?

A

ligand-gated ion channel

242
Q

a mutation in DNA strand that creates or eliminates a restriction site, which are usually 4 to 6 base pairs long happens in order for what to be successful

A

southern blot

243
Q

formed through alternative splicing of pre-mRNA; forming mRNA transcripts with different combination of exons generated

A

isoforms

244
Q

where is bile produced

A

liver

245
Q

where is bile stored

A

gall bladder

246
Q

site of gas exchange in the lungs

A

alveoli

247
Q

serves as the engine for motion for flagella

A

basal body

248
Q

produced in pineal gland

A

melatonin

249
Q

hormone involved in osmoregulation and vasodilation

A

ANP

250
Q

Ca2+ binds to what to cause contraction of muscle

A

troponin

251
Q

blood travels through 3 portal systems before returning to heart which are:

A

liver (hepatic), kidney, brain (hypophyseal)

252
Q

gas exchange at alveoli:

A

inhaled O2 goes into blood and to heart, CO2 goes into lungs and is exhaled out

253
Q

gas exchange for fetus occurs where

A

across placenta

254
Q

bacteria that grows in oxygen-rich environment

A

obligate aerobe

255
Q

bacteria that grows in oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments

A

facultative anaerobe

256
Q

do mitosis and meiosis use the same cytoskeletal apparatus?

A

yes; the spindle apparatus made from microtubules

257
Q

for this specific type of gene, you expect to see a higher portion of parental phenotypes than recombinant phenotypes

A

linked genes

258
Q

if 9:3:3:1 is not found, the genes are not independent and their recombination frequency is what

A

less than 50%

259
Q

deficiency of vitamin D means low what

A

low calcium absorption

260
Q

heart and bones are derived from what germ layer

A

mesoderm

261
Q

the lungs are derived from what germ layer

A

endoderm

262
Q

do stem cells continue to divide and if so, what enzyme allows that

A

yes; telomerase

263
Q

final location of hematopoietic stem cells

A

bone marrow

264
Q

hair and skin come from what germ layer

A

ectoderm

265
Q

during anaphase, how many chromosomes are in the 2 sets that are on opposite ends

A

46 chromosomes

266
Q

fill gaps in CNS and prevent further damage; part of scarring process

A

astrocytes

267
Q

bone breakdown raises blood calcium levels by an increase in what activity

A

osteoclast

268
Q

in order to be excreted in the urine, a substance must be what

A

water-soluble

269
Q

what disorder is caused from malfunctioning microtubules (due to nondisjunction)

A

Down Syndrome

270
Q

what disease is caused by a single nucleotide mutation that causes change in hemoglobin structure

A

sickle cell disease

271
Q

when does hCG start getting produced

A

after an egg is fertilized

272
Q

after implantation, what secretes hCG to maintain corpus luteum during 1st trimester

A

placenta

273
Q

what female structure produces estrogen

A

ovaries

274
Q

what female structure produces progesterone

A

corpus luteum

275
Q

how many electrons does cytochrome c carry during oxidative phosphorylation

A

1

276
Q

what makes a good primer for PCR

A

high GC content

277
Q

levels of RBCs in arteries vs veins

A

the same

278
Q

what germ layer is the mouth originally derived from

A

ectoderm

279
Q

what immune cell gravitates towards inflammation

A

leukocytes

280
Q

2 examples of extracellular fluid

A

blood plasma and lymph

281
Q

where is hemoglobin usually found; where is it not usually found

A

on RBCs; not found in the plasma unless something unusual happened

MCAT (6 decks)

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