BIOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
type of junction that can block movement of fluids between cells and prevents solutes from leaking via a paracellular route
A
tight junctions
2
Q
directly connects cells to allow for movement of small molecules
A
gap junctions
3
Q
junction that binds alike/adjacent cells by anchoring their cytoskeletons
A
desmosomes
4
Q
connect cells to basement membrane
A
hemidesmosomes
5
Q
make up gap junctions which allow for the conduction of action potentials b/t cells, including specialized cells in the heart
A
connexin
6
Q
saturated fatty acids make plasma membrane
A
less fluid
7
Q
unsaturated fatty acids make plasma membrane
A
more fluid
8
Q
4 sphingolipids:
A
ceramide, sphingomyelin, cerebrosides, gangliosides
9
Q
stabilizes membrane in extreme heat
A
cholesterol
10
Q
helps out with membrane fluidity in extreme cold
A
cholesterol
11
Q
made up of long fatty acid chain and long-chain ester
A
waxes
12
Q
examples of transmembrane proteins:
A
aquaporins, Na/K pump, and Cl channels
13
Q
an example of peripheral protein
A
cytochrome c
14
Q
play a role in sending and receiving chemical messages; on outside of cell
A
carbohydrates
15
Q
thermodynamic equation that can be used for transport processes
A
deltaG= deltaH-TdeltaS
16
Q
a +deltaG=
A
nonspontaneous; requires energy; active transport
17
Q
a -deltaG=
A
spontaneous process; doesn’t need energy; depends on entropy
18
Q
water flows towards higher what?
A
higher solute concentration
19
Q
DNA that comes only from your mother
A
mitochondrial DNA
20
Q
has ribosomes and used for protein translation
A
RER
21
Q
used for lipid synthesis and detoxification
A
SER
22
Q
cytoskeleton structure:
A
microfilaments
microtubules
intermediate proteins
23
Q
microfilaments contain:
A
actin- protects cells
24
Q
microtubules contain:
A
tubulin protiens- cilia and flagella
25
intermediate filaments contain:
filamentous protein- keratin
26
mitochondria DNA shape:
circular
27
what breaks down very long-chain fatty acids that can't make it into mitochondria:
peroxisomes
28
prokaryotic plasma membrane characterisitc:
semipermeable
29
deals with gene regulation; turning genes off and on by DNA methylation and acetylation
epigenetics
30
order of embryogenesis
zygote->morula->bastula->gastrula
31
NS dealing with voluntary actions
somatic NS
32
released by parasympathetic NS participating in "rest and digest"
acetylcholine
33
releases insulin/glucagon; controls blood glucose
pancreas
34
hormones that are hydrophilic and act on cell membrane
peptide hormones
35
go through plasma membrane and interact with intracellular receptors; also binds DNA
steroid hormones
36
fast acting and short lived hormone
peptide
37
slower acting and long lived hormone
steroid
38
nucleotide vs. nucleoside difference
phosphate group on nucleotide
39
which position on codon shows degeneracy
3rd (wobble)
40
rRNA is also known as a
ribozyme
41
30S, 50S, 70S
prokaryote
42
40S, 60S, 80S
eukaryote
43
tightly packed DNA (heterochromatin) leads to what kind of transcriptional activity
the least activity
44
what does DNA methylation bind to to inhibit transcription
cytosine and adenine
45
prokaryotic mRNA different than eukaryotic b/c
it is polycistronic
46
Northern blot deals with
RNA
47
Western blot deals with
proteins
48
Southern blot deals with
DNA sequences
49
PCR deals with
amplifying DNA; denaturation, hybridization, and replication
50
after n cycles during PCR, how many daughter strands
2^n
51
gel electrophoresis deals with
length of DNA segment
52
in gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from where towards where
from cathode (-) towards anode (+)
53
ribose structure vs. deoxyribose structure
ribose (OH at position 2 and 3); deoxyribose (OH at position 3, not 2)
54
purine structure:
2 rings; adenine (no carbonyl group)
| guanine (carbonyl group)
55
pyrimidine structure:
1 ring; cytosine (1 carbonyl)
| thymine (2 carbonyls)
56
number of H bonds b/t C and G
3
57
number of H bonds b/t A and T
2
58
hnRNA to mRNA by
post-transcriptional modification
59
what is removed during splicing
introns
60
James-Lange:
bear!->run->fear
61
Cannon-Bard:
bear! and then both fear and run together but independent of each other
62
Schacter-Singer:
bear!->run->fear but then go through cognitive appraisal to figure out what emotion you are experiencing when you have butterflies in stomach for example
63
cells produced from FSH
sertoli cells
64
cells produced from LH
leydig cells
65
secreted from adrenal medulla
epinephrine and noepinephrine
66
secreted from adrenal cortex
sex hormones and cortisol
67
hormones secreted from posterior pituitary
ADH, oxytocin
68
hormones secreted from anterior pituitary
FLAT PEG
69
contract one muscle, what happens to the opposing muscle
it relaxes and vice versa
70
what is not found inside a viral particle
lipids
71
what kind of immunity do vaccines cause
active immunity
72
active immunity from vaccines is mediated by what
B lymphocytes
73
produces antibodies and memory B cells would be activated
B lymphocytes
74
attached to basement membrane
epithelial tissue
75
axons carry signals away from what
cell body
76
water is used to split a larger molecule
hydrolysis
77
formation of bonds to a larger molecule
condensation
78
produced in bone marrow
B lymphocyte
79
produced in bone marrow but mature in thymus
T lymphocytes
80
participate in humoral response
B lymphocytes
81
participate in cell-mediated response
T lymphocytes
82
a change in behavior as a result of the knowledge that one is being observed
The Hawthorne effect
83
long bones include
hands, feet, arms, legs
84
multiple alleles of the same gene being expressed
codominance
85
when 2 populations of one species diverge into two species while occupying the same physical environment
sympatric speciation
86
when two populations become physically isolated from one another and then diverge into two species
allopatric speciation
87
a cascade of signaling events during which a cell or tissue signals to another cell or tissue to influence its developmental fate
induction
88
enzyme with primary function in transcription
RNA polymerase
89
this reflex does not involve the brain; just the spinal cord
knee jerk reflex
90
separation of proteins based primarily on size
electrophoresis
91
separation of proteins depending on the charges on the surface of the protein
isoelectric focusing
92
2 parts for Hardy-Weinnberg equation:
p^2 + 2pq + q^2=1
| p + q=1
93
_____ produce adaptive memory cells in the absence of current infection
vaccines
94
consist of a nucleic acid and a protein capsid; can also be encapsulated by a lipoprotein or glycoprotein coat
virus
95
10^-1
0.1
96
the standard cell potential for a concentration cell is always what
zero
97
what type of reactions need ATP to to proceed
non-spontaneous reactions (+deltaG)
98
technique used to isolate one specific protein among hundreds
ELISA
99
when a fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation, it produces a molecule of acetyl coA, so how many carbon atoms are lost; how many C's would be left after 3 rounds of beta oxidation
2; 10 C's left
100
produced by thyroid; reduces calcium levels in blood
calcitonin
101
produced by parathyroid; release of calcium by bones into blood
PTH
102
produced by adrenal cortex:
glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, sex hormones
103
2 glucocorticoids that reduce inflammation
cortisol, cortisone
104
type of mineralcorticoid; deals w/ sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct; increases bp
aldosterone
105
2 sex hormones
androgens, estrogens
106
secretes insulin
Beta cells
107
secretes glucagon
alpha cells
108
secretes somatostatin
delta cells
109
steroid hormones produced by gonads
estrogen, progesterone, testosterone
110
deals with maturation of follicles in ovary
estrogen
111
prepares uterus for implantation
progesterone
112
deals with sperm production
testosterone
113
sex hormone, including testosterone that deals with facial and body hair
androgens
114
provides water channels in collecting duct so water can be reabsorbed into the blood; involved in regulating plasma osmolarity
ADH
115
produced by the kidneys and increases bp
renin
116
released by the liver; increases bp
angiotensinogen
117
used to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
renin
118
used to convert angiotensin I to II
ACE
119
this germ layer differentiates into the neural tissue including the neural crest
ectoderm
120
neural tube defect
anencephaly
121
essential for reducing the risk of neural tube defects
folate
122
these T cells target viruses
CD8+
123
antigen presenting cells
macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells
124
negative selection of T-cells occurs where
thymus
125
occurs when only certain genes are turned on
selective transcription
126
virus can remain dormant in this cycle; but is virulent in the lytic cycle
lysogenic
127
enzyme that converts RNA to DNA, allowing it to reinsert into genome
reverse transcriptase
128
name for embryo as it implants into endometrial lining
blastocyst
129
macrophages and what else come from myeloid stem cell progenitor
neutrophils
130
kidneys and bone are derived from what germ layer
mesoderm
131
which enzyme is produced by eukaryotes, but not by prokaryotes
telomerase (b/c eukaryotes have linear chromosomes)
132
factors that shift oxygen binding curve to the right (less affinity for oxygen):
(seen in muscles, placenta)
1. low pH
2. high temp.
3. high pCO2
4. 2,3- BPG (DPG) (want hemoglobin molecule to give off more oxygen to fetus)
133
factors that shift oxygen binding curve to the left (more affinity for oxygen):
(seen in lungs)
1. high pH
2. low temp.
3. low pCO2
4. HgbF (fetal hemoglobin); sucks up so much oxygen as it comes by placenta
134
osmoregulatory protein in our blood; helps keep fluid in blood
albumin
135
removes RBCs
spleen
136
do RBCs have nuclei or membrane-bound organelles?
no
137
carry oxygen throughout our body (from the lungs to the tissues); on hemoglobin
RBCs
138
inactive form of protein
zymogen
139
innate granulocytes
basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils
140
granulocyte that mediates allergic responses
basophils
141
granulocyte that mediates allergic responses and respond to parasitic infections
eosinophils
142
granulocyte that ingests bacteria, particularly those marked with antibody
neutrophils
143
innate agranulocytes
monocytes and lymphocytes
144
2 types of monocytes:
macrophages and dendritic cells
145
attack cells not presenting MHC molecules
NK cells
146
what do our self-cells display so NK cells won't mistake them as foreign
self MHC-I
147
recognize antigen presented by MHC-II on APCs; activates immune response
helper T cell; (CD4+)
148
recognize non-self MHC-I antigen such as tumors and infections; trigger apoptosis
cytotoxic T cell; (CD8+)
149
antigen binding site on antibody
variable region (v region)
150
our body produces these antibodies to be specific for antigens
active antibodies
151
antibodies made by the mother for the placenta
passive antibodies
152
cells that make antibodies during the adaptive immune system
B cells
153
when blood cells rupture and release their contents into the surrounding fluid; caused by blood w/ foreign antigens being introduced
hemolysis
154
Anti-A antibody means what
you do not express A antigen, don't have type A blood
155
B blood type makes what Anti- antibody
Anti-A
156
B blood type has what antigen presented on it
B antigen
157
universal recipient blood type
AB
158
does O blood type produce antigens
no
159
antibodies produced from O blood type
Anti-A and Anti-B
160
when do you have to worry about Rh factor
in a mother's second pregnancy if she had been exposed to antibodies for Rh+ from fetus while she was Rh- for her first baby; the IgG antibodies that were made from first pregnancy will cross placental barrier to fetus and kill baby if baby is Rh+
161
serves to concentrate urine
the loop of henle
162
amount of solutes compared to water in urine
urine osmolality
163
a lot of water in urine, fewer solutes means
low urine osmolality
164
if more water is reabsorbed into blood from kidneys, then what happens to sodium concentration in blood
it decreases b/c the solution will now be more dilute (less solute)
165
2 characteristics of DNA double helix:
1. amount of G equals C
| 2. sugar-phosphate backbone forms exterior
166
highly proliferative epithelial cells
GI epithelial cells
167
targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome
ubiquitination
168
example of posttranslational modification of proteins involving histone
histone acetylation
169
infectious protein
prion
170
where sperm become mature and motile
epididymis
171
is mitochondrial replication coupled with the cell cycle?
no; so it can replicate at any stage, not just DNA replication in S phase
172
mutations that least affect cells
point mutations
173
if a mother has a mitochondrial mutation, will her offspring have it?
yes 100%; mitochondrial mutations exhibit maternal inheritance
174
this control group is not exposed to the experimental treatment or to any other treatment that is expected to have an effect
negative control group
175
both parents affected; can either have affected or unaffected children for this inheritance; while 2 unaffected parents can only produce unaffected offspring
autosomal dominant
176
2 affected parents; all offspring affected; 2 unaffected parents can still have affected children; skips generation; what mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive
177
an affected mother must have all affected sons; 2 parents affected will produce all affected offspring; unaffected mother can have affected or unaffected sons
X-linked recessive
178
affected male must pass on to all male offspring; no affected females
Y-linked
179
2 proteins can be produced from 1 mRNA that was transcribed
prokaryotes
180
1 protein produced from one mRNA that was transcribed
eukaryotes
181
gene that is expressed in a parent-specific manner
imprinted gene
182
require a transcriptase (reverse transcriptase) to replicate themselves
RNA viruses
183
if a lot of protein is in urine, what was messed up from the nephron
glomerulus
184
what structures can move through membrane by passive diffusion
small, nonpolar hydrophobic structures
185
acts as a buffer in the blood to neutralize acids and prevent decrease in pH
HCO3; bicarbonate
186
3 recombination process for prokaryotes
transformation, conjugation, transduction
187
results from the integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome
transformation
188
bacterial form of mating (sexual reproduction); involves 2 cells forming a conjugation bridge b/t them that facilitates the transfer of genetic material
conjugation
189
during transfer of genetic material in conjugation, info goes from what side to the other
(+) to (-)
190
process that involves a vector; a virus carrying genetic material from one bacterium to another
transduction
191
lack organelles and a nucleus
viruses
192
contains genetic material, protein coat (capsid), and an envelope around of lipids, but on the outside
virus
193
are enveloped or non-enveloped viruses easier to kill
enveloped
194
how do viruses express and replicate genetic info
within a host cell
195
these viruses contain reveres transcriptase that synthesizes DNA from RNA
retroviruses
196
this phase maximizes cell's machinery with little regard for host cell survival; very virulent
lytic phase
197
this phase allows virus to be dormant in the host cell
lysogenic phase
198
small pathogens that infect plants
viroids
199
infectious proteins that cause misfolding of other proteins
prions
200
for le chateliers principle, increasing pressure (which is the same as decreasing volume) would do what?
shift towards side with less moles
201
for le chateliers principle, decreasing pressure (which would increase volume) would do what?
shift toward side with more moles
202
does a membrane get smaller or bigger when vesicle attaches to it?
bigger
203
what selection leads to speciation
disruptive selection
204
during hardy weinburg questions, what is used when it asked for the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant phenotype?
BOTH p^2 and 2pq b/c that would be homozygous dominant and heterozygous which can both be dominantly expressed. NOT just p^2 which would be homozygous dominant genotype
205
does myelin increase or decrease capacitance?
decrease; b/c it insulates axon and only allows conc. of ion channels at the Nodes of Ranvier
206
observational study in which patients are categorized into different groups at the same point in time
cross-sectional study
207
sorting participants into groups based on differences in risk factors and then assesses them at different points in time
cohort study
208
separating a group into 2 randomized groups in order to determine the effects of a certain variable on a sample
experimental study
209
subjects with a certain outcome are assessed for previous risk factors
case-control study
210
junction that controls paracellular transport
tight junction
211
do ependymal cells or astrocytes form the blood-brain barrier
astrocytes
212
larger recombination frequencies indicate what about the distance b/t genes
greater distance
213
if ALL individuals with a mutation have clinical symptoms then what kind of penetrance is that
full penetrance
214
this selection keeps phenotypes in a narrow range, including extremes (averages the phenotypes)
stabilizing selection
215
moves the average phenotype toward one extreme
directional selection
216
moves toward 2 different phenotypes at the extremes and can lead to speciation
disruptive selection
217
the state of not knowing whether there is a difference b/t two interventions
equipoise
218
one group of cells influences the developmental pathway adopted by another group of cells
induction
219
biological aging and lack of further cell division
senescence
220
brain and spinal cord are only derived from what germ layer
ectoderm
221
these molecules serve several diverse roles including acting as inflammatory markers
prostaglandins
222
interfere with development, causing defects or death of developing embryo
teratogen
223
what develops from chorionic villi
placenta
224
what cellular structure is found in ependymal cells?
simple cuboidal cells; since they are epithelial and secrete cerebrospinal fluid
225
what secretes cerebrospinal fluid
ependymal cells
226
postsynaptic neuron requires a high frequency of stimulation events from a single presynaptic neuron in order to fire an action potential
temporal summation (frequency)
227
process that takes place in the neuron cell body
protein synthesis
228
where is the cell body of the affective (afferent) nerve in the reflex arc located
dorsal root ganglia
229
efferent nerve exits spinal cord through what
ventral root (motor root)
230
technique that measures mRNA levels of specific proteins; transcriptional regulation
RT-PCR
231
what does the inactive X chromosome in females mean
it is one of the last chromosomes to replicate
232
the one that is performed in the conditions that are not expected to give positive results
negative control
233
when releasing things into another organ, what will a muscle do and what does a sphincter do
muscle: will contract
| sphincter; will relax
234
fats are broken down by what enzyme
lipase
235
the number of solute particles per 1 L solvent, and the number of solute particles in 1 kg solvent
osmolarity and osmolality
236
if there is a reduced blood volume, how do you maintain cardiac output
by increasing heart rate
237
during exercise what will increase osmolarity of blood
presence of lactate in blood
238
phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain
microglia
239
what is an amber codon
stop codon
240
a method to identify if an organism that shows a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous
test cross; cross dominant phenotype wit recessive phenotype
241
influx of Na+ across motor end plate occurs when Na+ ion channels bind the ligand acetylcholine ;what kind of channel is this an example of?
ligand-gated ion channel
242
a mutation in DNA strand that creates or eliminates a restriction site, which are usually 4 to 6 base pairs long happens in order for what to be successful
southern blot
243
formed through alternative splicing of pre-mRNA; forming mRNA transcripts with different combination of exons generated
isoforms
244
where is bile produced
liver
245
where is bile stored
gall bladder
246
site of gas exchange in the lungs
alveoli
247
serves as the engine for motion for flagella
basal body
248
produced in pineal gland
melatonin
249
hormone involved in osmoregulation and vasodilation
ANP
250
Ca2+ binds to what to cause contraction of muscle
troponin
251
blood travels through 3 portal systems before returning to heart which are:
liver (hepatic), kidney, brain (hypophyseal)
252
gas exchange at alveoli:
inhaled O2 goes into blood and to heart, CO2 goes into lungs and is exhaled out
253
gas exchange for fetus occurs where
across placenta
254
bacteria that grows in oxygen-rich environment
obligate aerobe
255
bacteria that grows in oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments
facultative anaerobe
256
do mitosis and meiosis use the same cytoskeletal apparatus?
yes; the spindle apparatus made from microtubules
257
for this specific type of gene, you expect to see a higher portion of parental phenotypes than recombinant phenotypes
linked genes
258
if 9:3:3:1 is not found, the genes are not independent and their recombination frequency is what
less than 50%
259
deficiency of vitamin D means low what
low calcium absorption
260
heart and bones are derived from what germ layer
mesoderm
261
the lungs are derived from what germ layer
endoderm
262
do stem cells continue to divide and if so, what enzyme allows that
yes; telomerase
263
final location of hematopoietic stem cells
bone marrow
264
hair and skin come from what germ layer
ectoderm
265
during anaphase, how many chromosomes are in the 2 sets that are on opposite ends
46 chromosomes
266
fill gaps in CNS and prevent further damage; part of scarring process
astrocytes
267
bone breakdown raises blood calcium levels by an increase in what activity
osteoclast
268
in order to be excreted in the urine, a substance must be what
water-soluble
269
what disorder is caused from malfunctioning microtubules (due to nondisjunction)
Down Syndrome
270
what disease is caused by a single nucleotide mutation that causes change in hemoglobin structure
sickle cell disease
271
when does hCG start getting produced
after an egg is fertilized
272
after implantation, what secretes hCG to maintain corpus luteum during 1st trimester
placenta
273
what female structure produces estrogen
ovaries
274
what female structure produces progesterone
corpus luteum
275
how many electrons does cytochrome c carry during oxidative phosphorylation
1
276
what makes a good primer for PCR
high GC content
277
levels of RBCs in arteries vs veins
the same
278
what germ layer is the mouth originally derived from
ectoderm
279
what immune cell gravitates towards inflammation
leukocytes
280
2 examples of extracellular fluid
blood plasma and lymph
281
where is hemoglobin usually found; where is it not usually found
on RBCs; not found in the plasma unless something unusual happened
