Biol/Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

What causes the hemoglobin curve to shift to the right? (Bohr effect)

A

Decreased pH or increased CO2

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2
Q

How is mitochondria passed down?

A

Through the maternal line (non-Mendelian inheritance pattern)

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3
Q

How is mitochondrial DNA different than nuclear DNA?

A

Mitochondrial DNA is circular and not enclosed by a nuclear membrane. Mitochondiral DNA does not have introns or exons

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4
Q

What ion is muscle contraction dependent upon?

A

Ca2+ ions

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5
Q

What does the neural crest derive from?

A

The ectoderm

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6
Q

What does the ectoderm give rise to?

A

Nervous system, epidermis, lens of eye, inner ear

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7
Q

What does endoderm give rise to?

A

Lining of digestive tract, lungs, liver and pancreas (gut)

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8
Q

What does mesoderm give rise to?

A

Muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, gonads, kidney

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9
Q

What do Scwann cells produce?

A

The myelin sheath around neuronal axons

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10
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Process of blastula reorganizing into ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm (gastrula)

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11
Q

How many hydrogen bonds do A-T and C-G bonds forms

A

A-T = 2 hydrogen bondsC-G = 3 hydrogen bonds

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12
Q

Is denaturation endothermic or exothermic?

A

Endothermic because you must provide energy to break down bonds

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13
Q

Centrioles are made up of what?

A

Microtubules

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14
Q

Centrosomes are made up of what?

A

Centrioles

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15
Q

What are centromeres?

A

Where microtubules attach to chromosomes

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16
Q

What is the difference between introns and exons?

A

introns are non-coding regions, exons are encoding regions (expressed regions)

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17
Q

What part of the nephron deals with filtration?

A

The glomerulus deals with filtration

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18
Q

What is blastulation?

A

Formation of a blastula - single layered sphere of cells with a fluid cavity

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19
Q

What bonds exist between glycogen? Cellulose? Chitin?

A

Glycogen/glucose = alpha-1,4 glycosidic linkagesChitin/cellulose = beta-1,4 glycosidic linkages

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20
Q

Explain how blood flows through the circulatory system

A

One artery connected to several arterioles which each connects to thousands of capillaries

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21
Q

Strong acids have _____ conjugate bases

A

Strong acids have weak conjugate bases

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22
Q

What is mutarotation

A

Mutarotation is the change in optical rotation because of change between two anomers

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23
Q

What is the difference between primary active transport and secondary active transport?

A

Primary active transport uses ATP directly

Secondary active transport uses concentration gradients for energy

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24
Q

What is an autosome? How many chromosomes does it have relatively?

A

Autosome is a chromosome that is not a sex chromsomomeIt has double the chromosomes of a sex cell (it is diploid)

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25
Q

Describe commensalism

A

When one species benefits and the other is unaffected

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26
Q

List the 3 stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, & UGA

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27
Q

What is tidal volume

A

Normal volume of air displaced between inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not usedTidal volume can change at higher altitudes!

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28
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure

A

pi = iMRT

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29
Q

Does hemoglobin follow Michealis-Menten kinetics?

A

No because it is allosteric (has sigmoidal plot)

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30
Q

What cells produce insulin?

A

Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

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31
Q

What is induction?

A

Induction is the ability of one cell or tissue to direct the development of neighboring cells or tissues

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32
Q

What are the differences between conjugation, transduction and transformation?

A

Conjugation is the temporary direct contact between two bacterial cells leading to an exchange of genetic material (DNA)Transduction is the transfer of genetic material to a bacteria by a bacteriophageTransformation is when bacteria pick up genetic material from their environment

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33
Q

What does DNA polymerase do?

A

Builds DNA by assembling nucleotides

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34
Q

What does topoisomerase do?

A

Enzymes that regulate the winding or unwinding of DNA

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35
Q

What does primase do?

A

Primase synthesizes short RNA sequences called primers. These primers serve as a starting point for DNA synthesis

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36
Q

What does DNA ligase do?

A

DNA ligase facilitates the joining of DNA strands by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond

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37
Q

What does the hypothalamus deal with?

A

Homeostasis

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38
Q

What does the sodium potassium pump do?

A

Pumps out 3 Na ionsPumps in 2 K ions

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39
Q

List the stages of action potential and approximate voltages

A

Rest = -70mVDepolarization = +35 mV (Na ions rush into cell)Repolarization = back to -70 mV (K ions are sent out of cell)Hyperpolarization = less than -70 mV

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40
Q

How does aldosterone affect blood pressure?

A

Aldosterone raises blood pressure by promoting the reabsorption of Na+, which leads to water retention

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41
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

LH surge

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42
Q

What is the purpose of a poly-A tail?

A

To protect the mRNA after transcription as it leaves the nucleus

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43
Q

What do gluconeogenesis activated by?

A

Glucagon

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44
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis in regards to chromosome number?

A

Both start as diploids (46 chromosomes)

Meiosis ends with 4 haploid cells (23 chromosomes)

Mitosis ends with 2 diploid cells (46 chromosomes)

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45
Q

What is the difference between euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A

Heterochromatin is dense and not transcriptionally activeEuchromatin is less dense and transcriptionally active

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46
Q

What is glycogenesis activated by?

A

Insulin

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47
Q

What does gluconeogenesis do?

A

Generates glucose when blood sugar is low

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48
Q

What does glycogenesis do?

A

Generates glycogen when blood glucose is high

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49
Q

What organelles do red blood cells possess?

A

Red blood cells lack most organelles

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50
Q

What is the difference between expressivity and penetrance?

A

Expressivity = measure of severity of a disease

Penetrance = measure of number of persons with with allele for a condition that display that condition

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51
Q

What is the difference in function between a peroxisome and a lysosome?

A

Lysosome = have digestive enzymes that break down substances into small molecules

Peroxisome = degrade long chain fatty acids (beta oxidation)

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52
Q

What is the function of dna methylation?

A

Dna methylation acts to repress gene transcription

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53
Q

Which regions of antibodies are involved in antigen binding?

A

The variable region of the light chain and the variable region of the dark chain

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54
Q

How are DNA probes related to specific DNA of interest?

A

DNA probes are complementary to specific DNA strand of interest so they can hybridize (link) with them

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55
Q

What does tRNA do?

A

Serves as the physical link between mRNA and amino acid sequence of proteins

tRNA is non-coding

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56
Q

What is the function of the loop of henle?

A

Reabsorb ions

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57
Q

What is the difference between germ cells and somatic cells?

A

Germ cell = cells responsible for reproduction

Somatic cells = skin, muscle,blood cells (everything not associated with reproduction)

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58
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Lowers blood glucose levels

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59
Q

What is a key difference between meiosis and mitosis?

A

The splitting of centromeres

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60
Q

How does decreased blood pressure affect reabsorption in the loop of henle?

A

Decreased blood pressure leads to decreased glomerular filtration rate which increases reabsorption because blood spends more time in loop of henle

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61
Q

Parathyroid hormone activate osteoclasts. How do osteoclasts affect blood plasma?

A

Calcium in the blood plasma increases

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62
Q

Which organ breaks down glycogen?

A

The liver

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63
Q

How do unsaturated fatty acids affect membrane fluidity?

A

They make membranes more fluid

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64
Q

Why are peptide bonds stable?

A

Resonance

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65
Q

What are examples of a few carboxylic acid derivatives?

A

Amide, ester, acyl chloride, acid anhydride

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66
Q

What is hybridization?

A

Hybridization is binding through complementary nucleotides

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67
Q

What is genetic drift?

What is founder effect?

What is gene flow?

A

Genetic drift = change in allele frequency in a population due to random sampling

Founder effect = loss of genetic diversity when a new population is founded with a small population

Gene flow = movement of alleles between local populations - adds to genetic diversity

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68
Q

What is the difference between single crossovers and double crossover

A

Single crossovers can only affect the ends of chromosome arms while double crossovers can affect segments in the middle of chromosome arms.

Both single and double crossovers only affect one arm of each chromosome

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69
Q

The troponin complex functions in contraction of which types of muscle?

A

Skeletal and cardiac

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70
Q

What is the difference between trans and cis fatty acids

A

Trans are straight

Cis are bent

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71
Q

Why do peptide bonds possess partial double bond character?

A

Because of delocalization of electron density from peptide nitrogen through the peptide carbonyl carbon and onto the peptide carbonyl oxygen

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72
Q

What is the general function of insulin (besides lowering blood glucose levels)?

A

Insulin causes the body to build up large molecules to store energy, and stop the body from breaking down large molecules to provide energy

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73
Q

How can you recognize oxidation in a chemical reaction?

A

Adding an oxygen molecule, adding a double bond to an oxygen molecule, and adding a double bond between two carbon atoms

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74
Q

Are fungi eukaryotes or prokaryotes

A

Eukaryotes - therefore they have membrane bound organelles

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75
Q

What is a southern blot used for?

A

Detection of DNA fragments (SNOW DROP)

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76
Q

What is a western blot used for?

A

Amino acid sequences in proteins (SNOW DROP)

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77
Q

What a northern blot used for?

A

RNA (SNOW DROP)

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78
Q

What does a kinase do?

A

Adds a phosphate group with ATP

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79
Q

What does a phosphorylase do?

A

Adds a phosphate group without ATP

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80
Q

What does a phosphatase do?

A

Removes a phosphate group

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81
Q

What does a synthase do?

A

Creates a new molecules without energy input (ATP_

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82
Q

What does a synthesase do?

A

Creates a new molecule with energy input (ATP)

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83
Q

Where does blood flow to during sympathetic activation?

A

Blood flows to the brain and to the skeletal muscles

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84
Q

What is the function of microtubules?

A

Microbtubules are involved in Mitosis and Meiosis (connect kinetochores to chromosomes)

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85
Q

What is the function of microfilaments?

A

Involved with actin [filaments]

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86
Q

What is the function of intermediate filaments?

A

Involved in cytoskeletal components

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87
Q

Which three amino acids are most often phosphorylated?

A

Serine, threonine, tyrosine (all have hydroxyl groups)

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88
Q

What letters denote enantiomers?

Epimers?

A

Enantiomers = R & S

Epimers = alpha & beta

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89
Q

When will a DNA sequence have a noticeable mutation in a southern blot?

A

When a palindrome is disrupted, or a stop codon is created (UAA, UGA, UAG)

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90
Q

What kind of receptor does acetylcholine have?

A

Ligand-gated receptor

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91
Q

How are action potentials triggered in muscle fibers?

A

Influx of Na+ ions across the motor end plate, after Na+ channels bind the ligand acetylcholine

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92
Q

In DNA, what is phosphorous bonded to?

A

Only oxygen!

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93
Q

What is the process of creating a protein from coding DNA?

A

DNA Coding (TCA) –> DNA template (AGT) –> mRNA (UCA) –> protein

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94
Q

What is the process of creating a protein in a retrovirus?

A

RNA –> DNA –> RNA –> viral protein

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95
Q

Glutamate and Aspartate are synonyms for what?

A

Glutamic acid & Aspartic Acid

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96
Q

What is the average molecular weight of an amino acid?

A

110 Da

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97
Q

Reducing SDS page does what?

A

Breaks quaternary structure and disulfide bonds

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98
Q

Can isoforms have different combinations of exons?

A

Yes

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99
Q

Where does most reabsorption take place in the nephron?

A

The proximal convoluted tubule

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100
Q

The descending loop of henle is permeable for what?

A

Water (water is reabsorbed)

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101
Q

The ascending loop of henle is permeable for what?

A

Sodium ions (Na+ is reabsorbed)

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102
Q

What does the hill coefficient deal with?.What does a hill coefficient greater than 1 mean?

A

Cooperativity.

Coefficient greater than 1 means the enzyme exhibits cooperativity

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103
Q

What amino acid contains an amide group?

A

Glutamine

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104
Q

The posterior pituitary secretes what hormones?

A

Aldosterone (vasopressin) & oxytocin

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105
Q

What is an isoform?

A

Proteins with different (but similar) exons expressed

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106
Q

What is isoelectric focusing based on?

A

Estabishing a pH gradient, so proteins can be separated based on pI (charge is zero)

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107
Q

What kind of cells are ovarian cells?

A

Epithelial cells

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108
Q

How does Ka related to Kd?

A

Higher Ka (affinity) = lower Kd (dissociation)

109
Q

What is the main difference between peptide hormones and steroid hormones?

A

Peptide hormones are hydrophilic, steroid hormones are hydrophobic

110
Q

What do phosphodiester bonds do?

A

Link adjacent nucleotides in DNA

111
Q

What types of bonds contribute to stability of tertiary structure?

A

Salt bridges, disulfide bonds, and hydrogen bonds

112
Q

What is the difference between noncompetitive inhibition and uncompetitive inhibition?

A

Noncompetetive change Vmax, uncompetitive changes Vmax and Km (does not alter slope)

113
Q

How can you increase uncompetitive inhibition?

A

increase inhibitor concentration and increase substrate concentration (uncompetetive inhibitors only bind to E-S complex)

114
Q

What does a competitive inhibitor bind to?

What does an uncompetitive inhibitor bind to?

A

Competitive = E

Uncompetitive = ES complex

115
Q

What is cytochrome c involved in?

A

The electron transport chain

116
Q

What mechanism is neccesary for expression of certain genes?

A

Nuclear factors

117
Q

What biochemical methods separate based on charge?

A

Isoelectric focusing & Ion-exchange chromatography

*SDS-PAGE does NOT separate based on charge

118
Q

What is pi-stacking?

A

pi stacking refers to attractive, noncovalent interactions between AROMATIC rings, since they contain pi bonds.

119
Q

What is an example of a ketohexose?

A

Fructose

120
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinae-1 (PFK-1)

121
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of fermentation?

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

122
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogensis?

A

Glycogen synthase

123
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glyocenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

124
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis?

A

fructose-1,6-biphosphate

125
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of pentose phosphate pathway?

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

126
Q

What are the irreversible steps of glycolysis?

A

How glycolysis pushes poop

Hexokinase
Glucokinase
PFK-1
Pyruvate Kinase

127
Q

Which amino acid causes kinks?

A

Proline (disrupts alpha-helices)

128
Q

What are the steps of the citric acid cycle?

A

can I Keep selling Sex for Money officer?

citrate
Isocitrate
alpha-ketoglutarate
succinyl coA
succinate
fumarate
Maltate
oxaloacetate
129
Q

After what steps are NADH produced?

FADH?

A

NADH is produced after isocitrate, a-ketoglutarate, and maltate

FADH is produced after succinate

130
Q

What is the equation for breathing equilibrium?

What are the acids and bases for the equation?

A

H+ + HCO3- = H2CO3 = CO2 + H2O

CO2 = acid
HCO3- = base!!!
131
Q

When the lung are malfunctioning, creating respiratory alkalosis/acidosis, what organ responds?

A

The kidneys respond

132
Q

What direction is mRNA synthesized?

A

5’ –> 3’

133
Q

What does calcitonin activate?

What does PTH activate?

A

Calcitonin = osteoblasts

PTH = osteoclasts

134
Q

What is the difference between sertoli and leydig cells?

A

Sertoli = pepperoni = nourish sperm

Leydig = secrete testosterone (ladies dig bid larynx & penis)

135
Q

Peptide chains are written in what direction?

A

N-terminus to C-terminus

136
Q

What charge is histidine at pH 7?

A

Histidine is uncharged at pH 7

137
Q

How will hypersecretion of aldosterone influence renine?

A

High aldosterone levels will negatively feedback and inhibit renin production

138
Q

How does aldosterone affect Na+ and K+ concentrations?

A

Aldosterone increases Na+ concentration (and therefore increasing blood pressure)

Aldosterone decreases K+ concentration

139
Q

What do lysogenic viruses do?

A

Lysogenic viruses alter nuclear DNA (to produce viruses

140
Q

What kind of relationship exists for 1st order reactions?

A

Linear relationships (at low concentrations)

141
Q

What are the steps to the cell cycle?

A

M = mitosis

G1 or G0

G0 = programmed state of arrest

G1=cellular components (not chromosomes are duplicated) checkpoint

S = synthesis of chromosomes

G2 = double check chromosomes, checkpoint

Then back to mitosis

142
Q

How does oxidative phosphorylation produce ATP?

A

ATP synthase using proton gradient

143
Q

In gel electrophoresis, where does molecules migrate to?

A

Molecules migrate to the anode (positive)

144
Q

What kind of solvents do SN1 reaction use?

SN2?

A

SN1 = protic solvents

SN2 = polar aprotic solvents (acetone, DMSO)

145
Q

What is an antisense strand?

A

Antisense strands are complementary to sense strands

i.e DNA coding strand = sense
DNA template strand = antisense

146
Q

How do you ensure that an antisense mRNA strand used to inhibit a sense strand will work?

A

They must be transcribed at the same time. Otherwise the sense mRNA will be translated (because nothing is bound to it)

147
Q

What parts of glucose metabolism are anaerobic?

A

Glycolysis is anaerobic

Fermentation is also anaerobic (obviously)

148
Q

Where are proteins made in a cell?

A

In ribosomes (which are attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum)

Once, translated, proteins are transported by the Golgi apparatus

149
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Something that elicits an immune response

150
Q

Does RNA contain introns?

A

No

151
Q

When are introns removed?

A

Introns are removed right after transcription (formation of mRNA from pre-mRNA)

152
Q

Do bacteria possess introns?

A

No

153
Q

What kind of electron carrier does cytochrome c act as during the ETC?

A

A 1-electron carrier

154
Q

What kinds of kind of base pairs are most suitable for PCR?

A

CG base pairs

155
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis (anaphase I specifically)

156
Q

Are telomeres or centromeres transcriptionally active?

A

No

157
Q

What kind of cells are rods and cones?

Where are they located

A

Rods and cones are photoreceptor cells

They are located in the retina (rods in periphery, cones in fovea)

158
Q

Where does glycolysis take place?

A

The cytoplasm

159
Q

Where does krebs cycle and pyruvate dehydrogenase take place?

A

The mitochondrial matrix

160
Q

Where does the electron transport chain take place?

A

The mitochondrial membrane

161
Q

How many electrons does coenzyme Q carry?

A

Coenzyme q carries 2 electrons

162
Q

How can you tell when something has higher O2 affinity on hemoglobin saturation curve?

A

The curve shift LEFT

163
Q

What is the net reaction of Glycolysis

A

C6H12O6 + 2NAD+ +2pi + 2ADP = 2 pyruvate + 2ATP + 2 NADH + 2H2O +2H+

164
Q

What is the products of pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

Acteyl coA, CO2, and NADH

Pyruvate is the substrate

165
Q

How many times does the Krebs cycle go through?

A

Twice!

166
Q

How does the ETC generate ATP

A

Redox reactions takes place, where NADH & FADH2 are oxidized (O2 is reduced - as it is terminal electron acceptor)

Transport of electrons through ETC creates proton gradient that provides energy for conversion of ADP to ATP

167
Q

Which way are protons pumped out from the proton gradient created during ETC

A

Protons are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix into intermembrane space

168
Q

What is nadph used for?

A

Lipid and nucleic acid synthesis

169
Q

Which amino acids are ionic?

A

Amino acids that are charged (usually at pH 7)

170
Q

Collagen, elastin, kertain, actin and tubulin are all what types of proteins?

A

Structural proteins

171
Q

What are the 3 motor proteins?

A

Dynein, myosin, kinesin

172
Q

What do Cell adhesion molecules do? (CAM)

A

Cell adhesion molecules bind cells to other cells or surfaces

i.e cadherins, integrins, selectins

173
Q

What kind of bonds to telomeres contain, and why?

A

Telomeres contain lots of CG bonds to prevent DNA unraveling

174
Q

What do centromeres do? What kind of bonds do they have?

A

Centromeres hold sister chromatids together until they are separated in mitosis

They have lots of CG bonds

175
Q

What does helicase do?

A

Helicase unwinds DNA double helix

176
Q

What does it mean when is is said that DNA replication is semiconservative?

A

This means that one old parents strand and one new daughter strand are incorporated into two new DNA molecules

177
Q

What direction is DNA synthesized in?

A

5’ to 3’

178
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

Combining different exons to generate different gene products (post-transcriptional modification)

179
Q

What do chaperones do?

A

Fold proteins

180
Q

Phosphorlyation, carboxylation, glycosylation are examples of what kind of modification?

A

Post-translational modification

181
Q

What is the difference between promoters and enhancers in regards to operons?

A

Promoters are within 25 base pairs of transcription start site

Enhancers are more than 25 base pairs away from transcription start site

182
Q

What is the difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

A

Simple diffusion = no transporter (small, nonpolar molecules)

Facilitated diffusion = uses a transporter to move impermeable solutes across cell membrane (i.e glucose)

183
Q

What is the difference between symport and antiport?

A

Symport is when ion gradient goes in same direction as transport is secondary active transport

Antiport is when ion gradient goes in opposite direction as transport in secondary active transport

184
Q

What is a histone?

A

A histone is a protein around which DNA is coiled (to form nucleosomes which are used to form chromatin and subsequently chromosomes)

185
Q

Branching enzyme and debranching enzyme are associated with which processes?

A

Branching enzyme = glycogenesis = connects glucose as a branch using alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkage

Debranching enzyme = glycogenolysis = conncets glucose as a chain using alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkage

186
Q

When one is well-fed (not starving) what increases?

A

Insulin secretion increases (because it is involved in storage)

187
Q

When one is in a starving state what increases?

A

Glucagon and catecholamine secretion increases, most tissues will rely on fatty acids

188
Q

Do pulmonary arteries/veins carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

Do systemic arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood

Systemic arteries carry oxygenated blood

189
Q

How are tissues different from bacteria?

A

Tissues are not capable of extended independent life

190
Q

What is the head of a fatty acid?

A

Carboxyl group

tail is hydrocarbon chain

191
Q

What kinds of arteries/veins contain high levels of CO2?

A

Pulmonary artery

Systemic vein

192
Q

What is the benefit of RBCs passing through the lung capillaries in a single file fashion?

A

Increases the surface area for gas exchange

193
Q

What are the steps of normal cell trafficking?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum –> Golgi –> vesicle –> extracellular matrix

194
Q

What does ribonuclease do?

A

Catalyzes the degradation of RNA into smaller components

195
Q

What is a nuclease?

A

Nuclease = enzyme that cleaves chains of nucleotides into smaller components

196
Q

What is an exonuclease?

A

Exonucleases are enzymes that work by cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end (exo) of a polynucleotide chain

Cleaves phosphodiester bonds

197
Q

What is an endonuclease?

A

Cuts DNA at or near specific recognition nucleotide sequences known as restriction sites

Also known as restriction enzyme

198
Q

Why do hydrophobic amino acids at surface exposed site have high entropic penalities?

A

Because the exposed hydrophobic amino acid will be exposed to water (hydrophilic)

199
Q

Linear glycogen has what kind of bonds?

What about branched gylcogen?

A

Linear = 1,4 glycosidic linkages

Branched = 1,6 glycosidic linkages

200
Q

What two enzymes do glycogenesis use?

A

Glycogen synthase

Branching enzyme (1,4 –> 1,6)

201
Q

What two enzymes do glyocgenolysis use?

A

Glycogen phoshphorylase

Debranching enzyme (1,6 –> 1,4)

202
Q

Where does post-translational modification occur?

A

Golgi apparatus

203
Q

Is the aorta an artery or vein?

A

Artery

204
Q

What is beta oxidation?

Where does it occur?

A

Beta-oxidation is the breakdown of fatty acids to form acetyl coA used in the Krebs cycle

B-oxidation occurs in the mitochondria

205
Q

When does ketogenesis occur?

A

When ketone bodies are formed from a prolonged glucose starvation (buildup of acetyl coA from b-oxidation) (acetyl coA is broken down into ketone bodies)

Causes blood acidosis

Think: KETO DIET

206
Q

What is ketolysis?

A

Ketolysis is the regeneration of acetyl coA for use as an energy source

207
Q

What is recombination?

How does location of chromosome affect recombination?

A

Recombination = production of offspring with combination of traits from both parents

Close location = low recombinant frequency

208
Q

What are the Hardy-Weinberg equations?

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p+q=1

209
Q

Cocci are what shape?

Bacilli

A

Cocci = round

Bacilli = rod

210
Q

What occurs during the follicular stage in menustration?

Ovulation stage?

A

Follicular = FSH causes growth of follicle

Ovulation = LH surge causes release of egg

211
Q

How does progesterone act as a contraceptive?

A

Secretion of progesterone occurs in pregnant women, if a women is given progesterone, her body will think it is pregnant - inhibiting another pregnancy

212
Q

What is the difference between the foramen ovale and the ductus ateriosus?

A

Foramen ovale = connects right and left atria in fetuses (closes at birth)

Ductus arteriosus = connects pulmonary artery to aorta, shunts blood away from lungs (closes at birth)

213
Q

What vitamin is important in blood clotting?

A

Vitamin K

214
Q

How is the pancreas involved in digestion?

A

Enzymes/digestive juices produced by the pancreas are secreted into small intestine to aid in digestion

215
Q

What do maltose, sucrose,and lactose break down into?

A
Maltose = 2 glucose
Sucrose = glucose and fructose
Lactose = glucose and galactose
216
Q

What is the difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

A

Active = self makes antibodies

Passive = antibodies are acquired from another organism

217
Q

What kind of amino acids are present at dimer interfaces?

A

Hydrophobic amino acids

218
Q

What kind of cells create antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

219
Q

What is a dimer interface?

A

Where two amino acids connect to each other (hydrophobic because water would interfere with hydrophilic connections)

220
Q

What amino acids are involved in beta turns?

A

Glycine and proline

221
Q

What is synthesized in the nucleolus?

A

rRNA

222
Q

What are intermediate filaments involves in?

A

Cell-cell adhesion, cytoskeleton maintenance

I.e keratin and desmin

223
Q

What is stroma?

A

Suppose structure

224
Q

What are episomes?

A

Plasmids that integrate into the genome

225
Q

What are transponons?

A

Genetic elements that insert or remove themselves from the genome

226
Q

What do viroids infect?

A

Plants

227
Q

What do cyclins and CDKs (cyclin-dependent kinases) do in regards to the cell cycle?

A

Activate transcription factors

228
Q

What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent?

A

Totipotent = able to differentiate into all cell types (germ layer and placentals structure)

Pluripotent = able to differentiate into all 3 germ layers

Multipotent = able to differentiate into cell of only one germ layer

229
Q

What is a morula?

A

Solid mass of cells in early development

230
Q

What does it mean if a gene is WT?

A

WT = wild-type, not mutated!

231
Q

What do chaperones do?

A

Fold proteins

232
Q

Where are splice acceptor sites usually located?

A

Introns, as they are non-coding and get spliced out (not in mRNA)

233
Q

Where are promoters and enhancers found?

A

In DNA

234
Q

What does a nuclear localization signal do?

A

Allows proteins to enter the nucleus

235
Q

What does a signal sequence do?

A

Facilitates docking of transmembrane proteins at rough ER

236
Q

Where is the medullary and cortical portion of the collecting duct?

A

Medullary = deeper

Cortical = cortex = closer to the surface = not as deep

237
Q

What does ATPase do?

A

ATPase is an enzyme that catalyzes the decomposition of ATP into ADP and pi

238
Q

What does the Na+K+ ATPase do in regards to action potentials?

A

Na+K+ ATPase funcitons to restore the resting membrane potential by moving ions across concentrations gradients (IT IS A PUMP)

239
Q

What do transcription factors bind to?

A

DNA!

240
Q

How do hydrophobic molecules (regardless of size) cross membranes?

A

Simple diffusion

241
Q

Where are pumps located in cells?

A

On membranes - need to move ions across both sides - otherwise the pump would not work

242
Q

What is a lipid raft?

A

Area of high concentration of cholesterol and glycosphingolipids on the plasma membrane

243
Q

Why does the initial step of filtration work?

A

Because of passive flow due to pressure differences

244
Q

What does -ase denote?

A

An enzyme

245
Q

If a specific gene is highly expressed, what is altered?

A

mRNA is altered - because more of the proteins are being made

246
Q

What is a key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

A

Prokaryotic is circular and has no telomeres

247
Q

What does a phosphodiester connect?

A

Connects adjacent nucleotides

Sugar base connects to phosphate group

3’phosphate
5’sugar

248
Q

What does the endomembrane system include?

A

ER, golgi apparatuus, lysomomes, vesicles, endosomes

249
Q

Where does post-translation modification of proteins occur?

A

Golgi apparatus

250
Q

What is the difference between homologous chromosomes and sister chromosomes

A

Sister chromatids are 2 chromatids, homologous chromosomes are 4 chromatids. Nondisjunction deals with homologous chromosomes

251
Q

What is the difference between centromeres, centrosomes and centrioles?

A

Centromere = where sister chromatids are connected

Centrosomes contain centrioles.

Centrosomes are microtubule organizing centers

252
Q

What is a glycoside?

A

A glycoside is a molecule where a sugar is bound to another functional group via a glycosidic linkage

253
Q

What is the intermediate of mutarotation?

A

Straight chain form

254
Q

What is the terminal electron accept for fermentation?

A

Pyruvate

255
Q

Which is quicker, diffusion or active transport?

A

Active transport is quicker

256
Q

What is meant by upregulation?

A

Increase

257
Q

What is meant by upstream in molecular biology?

A

Occurs before

258
Q

When Keq = 1, what does G =?

A

G = O, therefore no ATP is involved

259
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative sense RNA?

A

Positive = can be directly converted into mRNA

Negative = cannot code for their enzymes and must carry enzymes with them

260
Q

What does proline affect in regards to secondary structure?

A

Disrupts alpha-helices by causing kinks

261
Q

How does insulin affect blood sugar?

A

Insulin lowers blood sugar

262
Q

What is a point mutation?

What are the 4 types of point mutations

A

A point mutation is a mutation that affects one or few nucleotides

  1. Silent = no change in codon
  2. Nonsense = produces codon that causes premature stop
  3. Missense = produces codon that codes for different amino acid
  4. Frameshift = addition or deletion that changes subsequent reading of codons
263
Q

What is an autosome?

A

A chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

264
Q

How does transcription and translation differ in eukaryote vs prokaryote?

A

In prokaryotes, transcription and translation occur at the same time

Therefore there is no post-transcriptional modificaiton (like splicing)

265
Q

Do prokaryotes have introns?

Does mitochondrial DNA have introns?

A

No prokaryotes do not have introns

Some mitochondiral dna have introns

266
Q

What is the intermediate from DNA to mRNA

A

pre-mRNA (where splicing occcurs)

267
Q

What kind of amino acids are used by the body, what kind of sugars?

A

L- amino acids (D amino acids are deadly)

D- sugars (delicious)

268
Q

How are proteins denatured?

A

Heat

269
Q

Thermodynamic controlled reaction is reversible or irreversible?

Kinetic controlled reaction is reversible or irreversible?

A

Thermo = reversible

Kinetic = irreversible