BIOCHEM - Lecture 4 - Macromolecule Characterization Flashcards

1
Q

DNA gels:

DNA fragments can be separated easily based on _____ (bc ___ is constant) using an _____ gel electrophoresis

A

mass (bc m/z is constant) using an agarose gel electrophoresis

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2
Q

DNA gels:

DNA bands are visualized by staining with ___ ___

A

ethidium bromide

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3
Q

doxorubin is an ___-____ agent

it ____ into ____, disrupting its ____ and ____

A

anti-cancer agent

intercalates into DNA, disrupting its structure and function

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4
Q

mechanism of doxorubicin-DNA complex:

  1. doxorubicin forms a ____ bond with ____ on one strand of DNA through a _____-mediated reaction
  2. ____ bonds ____ its interaction with the ____ strand
A
  1. covalent bond with guanine on one strand of DNA through a formaldehyde-mediated reaction
  2. hydrogen bonds stabilize its interaction with the opposing strand
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5
Q

mechanism of doxorubicin-DNA complex:

doxorubicin ____ into DNA and pushes apart the flanking ___ ___ with the ___ ____ sitting in the ____ groove

A

intercalates into DNA and pushes apart the flanking base pairs with the sugar moiety sitting in the minor groove

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6
Q

mechanism of doxorubicin-DNA complex:

cancer cells often exhibit higher rates of ____

they ____ more rapidly than normal cells, and DOX-induced damage is more lethal to ___ ____ cells

A

proliferation

divide more rapidly than normal cells, and DOX-induced damage is more lethal to rapidly dividing cells

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7
Q

mechanism of doxorubicin-DNA complex:

cancer cells have compromised ___ ___ ____, making them more susceptible to DNA ____ caused by DOX

A

DNA repair mechanisms, making them more susceptible to DNA damage caused by DOX

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8
Q

DNA restriction endonucleases:

endonucleases are enzymes that recognize specific ____ ____ through ___ ___-____, and ___ the DNA at those sites

A

DNA sequences through side-chain H-bonds, and cleave the DNA at those sites

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9
Q

DNA restriction endonucleases:

restriction enzymes cut at ____ ____, which ensures cuts from ____ ____

A

palindromic sequences, which ensures cuts from both directions

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10
Q

DNA restriction endonucleases:

some enzymes cleave the DNA to produce ____ ____ (___ cuts), and others generate ___ ___ (___ cuts)

A

sticky ends (staggered cuts), and others generate blunt ends (straight cuts)

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11
Q

DNA restriction endonucleases:

EcoRI alpha-helix inserts into DNA ___ ____

A

major groove

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12
Q

DNA restriction endonucleases:

endonucleases cut their specific sequence through a ____ ____ cleavage mechanism

restriction enzymes ____ a ____ ____ transition state

this facilitates ____ by a ___ molecule, breaking the DNA ____ ___

____ ___ and ____ ___ in the enzyme’s ____ site assist in catalysis

A

phosphodiester bond cleavage mechanism

stabilize a pentavalent phosphate transition state

cleavage by a water molecule, breaking the DNA phosphate backbone

magnesium ions and aspartate residues in the enzyme’s active site assist in catalysis

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13
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

cloning involves the insertion of ___ ___ into ____, which are then introduced into ___ ____ (like E. coli)

A

DNA fragments into plasmids, which are then introduced into bacterial cells (like E. coli)

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14
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

____ and ___ ___ can be used to ___ and ____ DNA ____ into _____

A

endonucleases and DNA ligase can be used to cut and paste DNA sequences into plasmids

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15
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

plasmids can be ____ in ____ and then ____ to obtain milligrams of ___ per liter of ____

A

amplified in E. coli and then purified to obtain milligrams of DNA per liter of culture

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16
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

  1. chromosomal DNA contains the ___ of interest

___ different ___ ____ are used

one cuts at a palindromic sequence, producing ____ ends

the other cuts at a different sequence, producing ___ ends

the plasmid ___ ___ is also cut with the same enzymes to allow for the ____ of the DNA fragment

A
  1. gene of interest

2 different restriction enzymes are used

sticky ends

blunt ends

cloning vector is also cut with the same enzymes to allow for the insertion of the DNA fragment

17
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

  1. the cut DNA fragment is inserted into the ____ ____, which has:

a ___ ___ (so it can ___ in bacteria)

an ___ ___ ___ (used for selection)

DNA ____ joins the DNA fragment and the plasmid tg

A

plasmid vector, which has:

replication origin (so it can replicate in bacteria)

ampicillin resistance gene (used for selection)

ligase joins the DNA fragment and the plasmid tg

18
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

the ____ plasmid is introduced into E. coli cells via ____

bacteria that take up the plasmid will have the ___ ___ ___

A

recombinant plasmid is introduced into E. coli cells via transformation

bacteria that take up the plasmid will have the ampicillin resistance gene

19
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

the bacteria are grown on an ____-containing plate

only bacteria that successfully incorporated the plasmid will ____, forming colonies

A

ampicillin-containing plate

survive, forming colonies

20
Q

cloning DNA in bacteria:

plasmids are ____ from bacterial cultures

the presence of the inserted DNA is confirmed by ___ ____

A

gel electrophoresis

21
Q

DNA synthesis review:

____ ____ are essential for DNA sequencing and ____

A

synthetic oligonucleotides are essential for DNA sequencing and mutagenesis

22
Q

DNA synthesis review:

  1. the first nucleoside is attached to a ___ ___ (___) at the ___ ____ (___) position

the ___ ___ is protected by a _____ group to prevent unwanted reactions

A
  1. solid support (resin) at the 3’ hydroxyl (OH) position

5’ hydroxyl is protected by a DMT group to prevent unwanted reactions

23
Q

DNA synthesis review:

  1. the ___ group is chemically removed, exposing the ___ ____, so that the next ___ can be ____
A

DMT group is chemically removed, exposing the 5’ hydroxyl, so that the next nucleotide can be added

24
Q

DNA synthesis review:

  1. the next nucleotide is ____ at its ___ ___ via a _____ group

a chemical reaction links the incoming nucleotide’s ___ ___ to the previous nucleotide’s ___ ___, forming a ____-like bond

____ is released as a byproduct

A

activated at its 3’ phosphate via a phosphoramidite group

5’ hydroxyl to the previous nucleotide’s 3’ position, forming a phosphodiester-like bond

diisopropylamine is released as a byproduct

25
Q

DNA synthesis review:

  1. the new phosphite linkage is ____ to a stable ___ ____, ensuring a strong backbone
A

oxidized to a stable phosphate triester, ensuring a strong backbone

26
Q

DNA synthesis review:

steps 2-4 are repeated until the ___ ___ ___ is synthesized / all ____ are added

A

full DNA sequence is synthesized / all residues are added

27
Q

DNA synthesis review:

  1. ___ groups on the DNA bases (___ groups for nucleobase nitrogens) are removed
  2. ____ groups on phosphates are removed
  3. ____ ___ is cleaved from the ____ ____, completing synthesis
A

protecting groups on the DNA bases (benzoyl groups for nucleobase nitrogens) are removed

cyanoethyl groups on phosphates are removed

DNA chain is cleaved from the silica support, completing synthesis

28
Q

DNA synthesis review:

DNA primers are typically ___-___ nucleotides long

the ___-___ glycosidic bond in ___ (__ and ___) is ____-sensitive, so (too) strong acids can cause ____, leading to “___” sites (loss of ____)

A

20-40 nucleotides long

C-N glycosidic bond in purines (A and G) is acid-sensitive, so (too) strong acids can cause depurination, leading to “abasic” sites (loss of bases)

29
Q

DNA synthesis review:

a not-shown “step 4b” involves adding __-____ via _____

A

5’-phosphate via phosphoramidite

30
Q

DNA sequencing: dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPS):

primers are elongated by ___ ___ with a nucleotide mixture with ___ ____ ____ (____)

A

DNA polymerase with a nucleotide mixture with 4 fluorescent dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)

31
Q

DNA sequencing: dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPS):

each synthesis terminates with a _____ (lacking ___-___ ___)

the mixture is then separated by ___ ____ and analyzed by ___-____ ____

A

ddNTP (lacking 3’-OH group)

gel electrophoresis and analyzed by laser-excited fluorescence

32
Q

____ DNA sequencing is still the “gold standard”

A

sanger DNA sequencing is still the “gold standard”

33
Q

sanger DNA sequencing:

  1. a short ____ binds to the single-stranded DNA ____ to help DNA ____ start replication

DNA polymerase extends the strand using:
- regular _____ (____)
- fluorescently labeled ____ (____) - these lack a ___-____ group, so when they’re incorporated, DNA synthesis ____ at that position

A

primer binds to the single-stranded DNA template to help DNA polymerase start replication

  • nucleotides (dNTPS)
  • dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) - these lack a 3’-OH group, so when they’re incorporated, DNA synthesis stops at that position
34
Q

sanger DNA sequencing:

  1. since ddNTPs randomly incorporate at different positions, the result is a mixture of DNA fragments that all ____ at ___ ____

each fragment is fluorescently labeled according to the ____ that caused _____

A

end at different nucleotides

ddNTP that caused termination

35
Q

sanger DNA sequencing:

  1. the DNA fragments are ____ (separated from ___ ___; made ___-___) and loaded into a capillary gel for ____

smaller fragments migrate ____, while longer fragments move ___

a ___ ___ detects the ___ as each fragment passes through the detector

A

denatured (separated from template strand; made single-stranded) and loaded into a capillary gel for electrophoresis

faster, while longer fragments move slower

laser beam detects the fluorescence as each fragment passes through the detector

36
Q

sanger DNA sequencing:

  1. computer records the ___ of each detected fragment and aligns them based on ____

each peak on the computer represents a specific ____

the order of peaks reveals the ____ of the ___ ___ ____

A

color of each detected fragment and aligns them based on size

nucleotide

sequence of the original DNA strand