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BIO TCM Flashcards

1
Q

the right side of the heart pumps blood to the…

A

lungs

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2
Q

2

menstrual bleeding occurs when..

A

estrogen increases and progesterone decreases

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3
Q

3

the chain of blood pressure regulating hormones is

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

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4
Q

4

what is indicative of right sided heart failure

A

distended jugular vein

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5
Q

5

LH is secreted by..

A

the anterior pituitary

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6
Q

6

in a urinalysis what is present in a possible bacterial infection

A

nitrites

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7
Q

7

the mechanism of vasotec, an ACE inhibitor, is to..

A

inhibits the production of angiotensin II

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8
Q

8

Which cranial nerve is involved in sensing taste

A

CN 9

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9
Q

9

what innervates the palmer aspect of the middle and index finger and distal thumb

A

median nerve

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10
Q

10
a 64 year old female has bells palsy all of the following can confirm diagnosis except:

  1. EMG
  2. physical exam of facial ptosis
  3. MRI with contrast agent of 7th CN
  4. facial biopsy of 7th CN
A
  1. physical exam
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11
Q

11

What tests can confirm hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

TSH, T3, T4

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12
Q

12

Normal shoulder flexion ROM

A

170-180

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13
Q

13

what are the most common side effects of antiarrythmic drus

A

bradycardia and dizziness

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14
Q

14

using a microcentrifuge, Hct measures the precentage of blood volume that is composed of

A

RBCs

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15
Q

15

Schedule 2 drugs are..

A

high risk potential resulting in severe physical and psychological dependence

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16
Q

16

Mxyedema refers to under active

A

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thyroid

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17
Q

17

a blood tests the shows elevated creatinine indicates a disorder of

A

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the kidneys

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18
Q

18

symptoms of Osteoporosis

A

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back pain, fractures in hips, spine, or femur, loss of height, kyphosis

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19
Q

19

what is the medication for Hashimotos

A

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levothyroxine

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20
Q

20

reduced bile production will result in what in the feces

A

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fat

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21
Q

21

which hormone raises body temperature during the luteal phase

A

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progesterone

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22
Q

22
Personnel with HBV vaccine …

  1. need to receive a new vaccine every 3 years
  2. develop immunity with no risk
  3. can still transmit the infection through sex
  4. also develop immunity to HIV
A

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2

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23
Q

23
which of the following is not a tx for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

  1. Suprax
  2. Flomax
  3. Avodart
  4. Proscar
A

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2

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24
Q

24

which dermatome innervates the anterior ankle and foot

A

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L5

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25
Q

25

KUB x ray assesses the Kidneys, Bladder, and

A

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Ureters

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26
Q

26

which form of Hepatitis is the most significant infectious occupational risk int he US

A

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Hep C

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27
Q

27
which of the following is a primary responsibility a health care worker has for his their patients?
1. Assess for colon cancer

  1. Assess for TB
  2. Assess for Hep C
  3. Assess for alcohol and substance abuse
A

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4

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28
Q

28

What is the CD4 count on a HIV infected person to acquire AIDS

A

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<200

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29
Q

29

What as the s/s for Stage 1 endometrial cancer

A

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abdominal bloating, pelvic pain, back pain, cachexia

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30
Q

30

a myelogram provides radiographic visualization of the

A

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spinal cord

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31
Q

31

bouchards nodes occur in the ..

A

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PIP

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32
Q

chloramphenicol, tetracycline

A

decreases protein

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33
Q

2

PET scan

A

parkinson’s, epilepsy, mental illness, heart attack

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34
Q

laproscopy

A

abdomen & pelvis

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35
Q

4

What two things effect metabolism of a pharmaceutical

A

age, immunity

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36
Q 
Pregnancy Categories
A- 
B 
C 
D 
E
A

A- no risk
B- no risk in humans
C- indeterminate risk, benefits may outweigh risk
D- high risk, benefits may outweigh risk
E- contraindicated

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37
Q 
Controlled Substance Schedule
I
II 
III 
IV V
A

I- high abuse, no medical necessity
II- high abuse and dependency (opoids, amphetamines)

III- low abuse may cause dependence (steroids, analgesics, barbiturates, antidiarreal)
IV- low abuse, limited dependence (benzos)
V- low abuse, limited dependence (antitussive, anti diarrheal)

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38
Q

Anthelmintic

A

kills parasites and their eggs

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39
Q

anticholinergic

A

blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses

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40
Q

9

Antidepressants (tricyclic, MAOI, SSRI, SNRI)

A

end in -ine

  • fluoxetine (prozac)
  • sertaline (zoloft)
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41
Q

Common Anticoagulants

A

aspirin, heparin, warfarin (coumadin)

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42
Q

11

Ma huang shouldn’t use used with MAOI because…

A

it intensifies the effect of medication and side effects (stomachache, headache, tremors, hypertension)

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43
Q

12

Ren shen shouldn’t be used with antihyperglycemics, asprin, corticosteroids, digoxin, estrogen, MAOIs, opoids, warfarin

A

Increases hypoglycemia, increases bleeding, increases adverse effects of anti inflammatories, increases digoxin levels, intensify adverse effects of estrogen, can cause headaches, tremors, and manic episodes (MAOIs), reduces the effects of opoids, and increases bleeding

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44
Q 
13
Green Tea (lu cha) should be avoided with which medication
A

warfarin- increases thromboembolism

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45
Q

14

Gan cao should be avoided with digoxin and diuretics because

A

with digoxin it decreases K+, and increases digoxin toxicity

- with diuretics it increases K+, wasting effects and interferes with effectiveness

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46
Q

15
St Johns Wort should be avoided with digoxin, iron supplements, MAOIs, OCPs, protease inhibitors, SSRIs, Tricyclic antidepressants, and warfarin

A

Digoxin- increases toxicity
iron- reduces iron absorption
MAOIs- augments maois, can cause traumatic hypertension
OCPs- increases metabolism of drugs, reduces effectiveness
Protease inhibitors- reduces blood level and efficacy
SSRIs- augments effects of drugs
Tricyclics- augments effects
Warfarin- increases risk of thromboembolism

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47
Q

16

Food-drug interactions- grapefruit

A

inhibits or slows metabolism of drugs

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48
Q

17

Food-drug interactions- tyramine

A

can cause hypertensive crisis if taking MAOI

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49
Q

18

Food-drug interactions- black tea

A

inhibits iron absorption

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50
Q

19

Food-drug interactions- alcohol

A

impairs thiamin, niacin, pyridoxin

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51
Q

20

Drug-mineral interactions: opoids, anticholinergics

A

decreases GI motility, constipation

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52
Q

21

Drug-mineral interactions: diuretics (thiazides, corticosteroids)

A

depletes K+ (can lead to arrhythmia)

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53
Q

22

Drug-mineral interactions: cortisol, aldosterone

A

increases sodium and water retention

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54
Q

23

Drug-mineral interactions: birth control

A

impairs zinc and increases copper levels (can lead to dementia)

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55
Q

24

Drug-mineral interactions: phenytoin, primidone

A

creates Vitamin B9 (folate) deficiency

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56
Q

25

Aminosalicyclic acid, slow release K+ iodide, colchicine, ethanol, OC

A

creates B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

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57
Q

26

High progestin dose

A

can cause depression by reducing tryptophan

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58
Q

27

Orlistat

A

prevents fat absorption

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59
Q

29

adrenal corticosteroids, ethanol

A

increases lipids

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60
Q

30

aspirin, colchicine, glucagon

A

decreases lipids

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61
Q

31

antibiotics, fiber, digoxin

A

decreases appetite

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62
Q

32
Sodium (NA-)

Hypernatremia (elevated Sodium levels)
Causes:

A

Sx: Usually due to dehydration; excess diuretics w/ salt intake; N/V with high salt intake,
Sx: confusion, neuromuscular excitability, hyperflexia, seizures, cerebrovascular damage with subcortical or subarachnoid hemorrhage

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63
Q

33
Sodium (NA-)

Hyponatremia (decreased sodium levels)
Causes:

A

Sx: extrarenal fluid loss; renal fluid loss; diuretics; pancreatitis; rhabdomylosis; opioids, NSAIDS, Addisons disease, hypothyroidism

Sx: lethargy, confusion, altered mental status, stupor, hyperexcitability, hyperreflexia

RED FLAG- refer to ER immediately- saline drip, fluid restriction, removal of diuretics

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64
Q

34
Potassium (K+)

Hyperkalemia (K+) (for muscle and cell contraction)
Causes:

A

Sx: EKG

rhabdomylosis, GI bleed, bleeding ulcers

SX: flaccid paralysis, cardiac tonicity with weakness or paralysis (mostly asymptomatic)
Caution: ACE inhibitors, potassium sparing diuretics, urinary obstruciton, renal failure, heart failure

**EKG: short QT wave which will be tall, peaked T wave

Red Flag: Lithium, NSAIDS, trimethoprim, Heparin, cyclosporine, ace inhibitors, digoxin, beta blocker, adrenal insufficiency, IV insulin or glucose

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65
Q

Potassium (K+)

Hypokalemia (K+)
Causes:

A

Sx: EKG

clay (betonite) ingestion, vomiting, heavy gan cao, chewing tabacco, CUSHINGS,

Sx: muscle weakness, cramping, paralytic ileus, hypoventilation, hypotension, rhabdomylosis

**EKG: depression of T wave, elevated U wave

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66
Q

Calcium (Ca+)

Hypercalcemia (calcium) (note: important for hormone release, blood coagulation, muscle and nerve contraction
Causes:

A

Sx: Causes: pagets, osteoporosis, Vit A & D toxicity, Myxedema, Cushings, Addisons

Sx: constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, pancreatitis

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67
Q

Calcium (Ca+)

Hypocalcemia (calcium)
Causes:

A

Sx:
Causes: hypoparathyroidism, Vit D xu, renal disease, acute pancreatitis, hypoproteinemia

Sx: carpopedal spasm, parasthesia of lips, fingers and feet, general muscle aching, facial spasms, dry scaly skin, brittle nails

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68
Q

38
Hyperphosphatemia (phosphorus = Ph+)
Causes:

A

Sx:Causes: hypoparathyroidism; rhabdomylosis

Sx: hypocalcemia, tetany, soft tissue calcemia

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69
Q

39
Hypophosphatemia (phosphorus = Ph+)
Causes:

A

Sx: Acute alcoholism, undernutrition, hyperparathyroidism, cushings, hypothyroidism, diuretic use, chronic fasting

Sx: anorexia, muscle weakness, osteomalacia, *hemolytic anemia = phosphorus leads to

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70
Q

40
Hypermagnesemia (Magnesium = Mg+)
Causes:

A

Sx: usually uncommon and/or asymptomatic
- respiratory depression, excess antacid use, excess laxative use

Sx: hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest = too much Mg+

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71
Q

41
Hypomagnesemia (magnesium)
Causes:

A

Sx: alcoholism (reduces Mg+0, steatorrhea, preeclampsia, lactation, thyroid hormone sue, ADH use, polyurea

Sx: anorexia, N/V, lethargy, weakness, personality change, tetany, carpopedal spasm

*caffeine can reduce Mg levels when using in excess

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72
Q

42

what can cause right upper quadrant pain

A

cholecystitis and billiary colic; hepatitis, retrocecal appendicitis (rare)

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73
Q

43

what can cause right lower quadrant pain

A

appendicitis, cecal diverticulitis, Meckel’s diverticulitis (Crohns)

74
Q

44

what can cause left lower quadrant pain

A

sigmoid diverticulitis (ulcerative colitis)

75
Q

45

What BMI is considered overweight

76
Q

46

What is a normal pH for saliva and what is it’s function

A

6.5-7.5 - it moistens and lubricates

77
Q

47

what is the pH for bile and what is it’s function

A

digestion of lipids; 7.5-8.8

78
Q

48
A patient comes to you complaining of shoulder issues with limited ROM. They also have extreme thirst, frequent urination, hunger, fatigue, numbness and tingling in the feet and candida. What is your diagnosis?

A

type 1 diabetes

79
Q

49
What is the standard treatment for type 1 diabetes?
What lab tests are done?

A

Tx: insulin (humalog)
Lab: HbA1C

80
Q

50
Patient has dry flushed skin, ketonic breath, nausea and vomiting, cramping, polyuria, blurred vision and foggy head. What is your diagnosis

A

Type 2 Diabetes

81
Q

51
What is the tx for type 2 diabetes?
what is the lab test?

A

tx: insulin replacement- * Metformin
lab: HbA1C

82
Q

52
a patient is sweating, nauseous, warm, has anxiety, palpitations, hunger, and a headache? what is their likely diagnosis?

A

Hypoglycemia

83
Q

53

What is the treatment for hypoglycemia

84
Q

54

What disease is common in hispanic and african americans and is due to H. Pylori weakening the stomach lining

A

Peptic Ulcer

85
Q

55

NSAIDS and Ethanol can cause pain, nausea, fullness, and bleeding – what disease is this

86
Q

56

long term asprin use can lead to bleeding ulcers and need to be refered to a physician ASAP- what kind of ulcer is this

A

Gastric Ulcer

87
Q

57

This disorder is caused by H Pylori (mostly) and causes consistent pain which usually awakens a patient at night

A

Duodenal ulcer

88
Q

58

what does melena stand for

A

black tarry stools due to long term stomach or duodenum bleeding

89
Q

59

Amoxil, Cipro, and Levaquin are what kind of common medication?

A

Antibiotics

90
Q

60

what disease is a bacterial diarrhea due to undercooked poultry, milk, eggs or contact with reptiles

A

Salmonella

91
Q

61

what disease is the 3rd most common bacterial diarrhea in the US transmitted person to person

A

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Shigella

92
Q

62
What disease has bloody diarrhea from undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk, juices; can also have watery diarrea, found commonly in nurseries

A

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E. Coli

93
Q

63

which bacterial disease is from undercooked seafood

A

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Vibrio

94
Q

64

Which bacteria disease is food born and usually found in cheese

A

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listeria

95
Q

65
What disease has sx of upper abdominal distention with postprandial fullness that is gnawing or burning; epigastric pain with nausea and vomiting.
What is the treatment?

A

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Dyspepsia
Tx: H2 blockers; PPIs

96
Q

66

what is the route of transmission for Hep A

A

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fecal-oral

97
Q

67

what is the route of transmission for Hep B

A

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blood

98
Q

68

what is the route of transmission for Hep C

A

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blood

99
Q

69

what is the route of transmission for Hep D

A

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needle

100
Q

70

what is the route of transmission for Hep E

A

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water (seen in africa)

101
Q

71

What is the most common type of hepatitis in the medical field?

A

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Hep B

102
Q

72

What is the most common hepatitis in the world?

A

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Hep A

103
Q

73

What is the deadliest type of hepatitis

A

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Hep C

104
Q

74
What is your diagnosis for a patient with fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, dark urine, CLAY COLORED STOOLS, joint pain, jaundice

A

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Hep B

105
Q 
75
Crohn's
- area involved
- sx location 
- S/S 
- Imaging
A

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Area: SI (in 80%)
Location: usually right sided
S/S: 75-85% can have rectal bleeding; fistula; 25-35% have perianal lesions
Imaging: asymmetrical and segmental (skip areas) on X Ray/ Barium Swallow

106
Q 
76
Ulcerative Colitis- area involved
- area involved
- sx location 
- S/S 
- Imaging
A

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area: LI- descending section
Location: left sided
S/S: rectal bleeding; no fistulas, no perianal lesions
Imaging: symmetrical and uninterrupted bowel wall

107
Q

77

What physical assessment test would you use to rule in/out appendicitis

A

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McBurney’s Point/Roving’s sign

108
Q

78
this disorder is usually due to stress however etiology unknown; gas bloating, cramping, bowel changes, constipation and diarrhea- seen most in females

A

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IBS

109
Q

79

This virus is most common causes of diarrhea in children and day care workers in america

A

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Rotavirus

110
Q

80
This disorder is very common in day care centers, international travelers, hikers and can be from consumption from unfiltered/treated water; spreads community wide. Its a parasite

A

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Giardia

111
Q

81

this parasite is water borne and resistant to chlorine (pool water)

A

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Cryptosporidium

112
Q

82
this type of worm/parasite is highly common in the US and causes loss of appetite, loss of weight, abdominal distention, anemia and intestinal bleeding

A

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Hookworm

113
Q

83

This worm/parasite is common in schools and day cares and can cause an itchy perineum

A

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pinworms

114
Q

84

this worm/parasite causes weight loss, abdominal distention, pain, diarrhea, and malnutrition

A

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Tapeworm

115
Q

85
this worm/parasite causes stomach pain, extreme fatigue, N/V, diarrhea, fever, headache, chills, swelling of eyes, cough, muscle aches, may have constipation, heart palpitations, dyspnea. Can mimic tertiary syphillis

A

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Trichinosis

116
Q

86

What are your water soluble vitamins

A

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B1, B2, B3, B6, B12, Folate, Vit C

117
Q

87

Vitamin B1 name

A

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Thiamin

118
Q

88

Vitamin B2 name

A

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Riboflavin

119
Q

89

Vitamin B3 name

A

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niacin

120
Q

90

Vitamin B6 name

A

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pyridoxine

121
Q

91

Vitamin B12 name

A

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cobalamin

122
Q

92

What does B1 deficiency result in

A

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beriberi, wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

123
Q

93

what does B2 deficiency result in

A 
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angular stomatitis (will have red tongue)
124
Q

94

what does B3 deficiency result in

A

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Pellagra (dermatitis, glossitis, GI and CNS dysfunction), will have red edges of tongue
Toxicity: flushing

125
Q

95

what does Folate deficiency result in

A

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megaloblastic anemia; neural tube defects

126
Q

96

what does B6 deficiency result in

A

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seizures, anemia, neuropathies, seborrheic dermatitis- looks like eczema

127
Q

97

what does vit C deficiency result in

A

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scurvy (bone defects, gingivitis, loose teeth, hemorrhages); will have a mapped tongue, and possible bone pain

128
Q

98

What are your fat Soluble vitamins

A

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ADEK

129
Q

99

what does Vit A Deficiency result in

A

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night blindness, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia; goose flesh skin, cataracts

130
Q

100

What does Vit D deficiency result in

A

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rickets (weakness and softening of the bones, Heberden nodules), osteomalacia

toxicity: anorexia, renal failure

131
Q

101

What does Vit E deficiency results in

A

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red blood cell hemolysis, neurologic deficits, dry scaly skin, follicular hyperkeratosis, alopecia

132
Q

102

What does Vitamin K deficiency result in

A

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bleeding, osteopenia

133
Q

103

Diarrhea is usually caused by what deficiencies

A

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protein, Vitamin B3, Folic Acid, Vitamin B12, K+

134
Q

104

Alcoholism can lead to what deficiencies

A

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magnesium, zinc, thiamin

135
Q

105

Which leukocyte deals with bacteria (and some viruses)

A

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Neutrophils

136
Q

106

which leukocyte deals with allergic reactions (and worms)

A

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Eosinophils

137
Q

107

which leukocyte deals with histamine and heparin reactions

A

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basophils

138
Q 
108
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) becomes macrophages to ingest bacteria and also secrete lysine
A

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monocytes

139
Q 
109
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) is produced in the bone marrow and moves to lymph tissues- has two types: B & T Cells
A

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lymphocytes

140
Q 
110
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) produce immunoglobulins due to bacteria and toxins
A

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B-Cells

141
Q 
111
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) attach to antigen bearing cells like bacteria and kill toxins
A

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T- Cells

142
Q

112
this type of anemia has s/s like chronic bleeding, hx of aspirin/painkiller use, heavy menstruation, poor diet, trauma/surgery, IBD, peptic ulcer
Which lab tests would you order?

A

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Iron deficiency anemia(microcytic)

Labs: H&H, TIBC, Iron (ferritin)

143
Q

113

this type of anemia is d/t B12 deficiency, may have a beefy red, smooth red tongue w/o taste

A 
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pernicious anemia (macrocytic)
144
Q

114
this type of anemia is the excessive destruction of RBCs due to: SLE (lupus)

What lab tests would you order?

A

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Hemolytic

ANA, H&H, ABO-Rh

145
Q

115
this type of anemia is when the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient new cells

What labs would you order?

A

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Aplastic

CBC, Bone Biopsy

146
Q

116

How long can RBCs live for:

A

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100-120 days

147
Q

117

What is the function of RBCs:

A

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transport oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide

148
Q

118

How long do WBCs live for

A

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13 days

149
Q

119
this type of anemia is primarily found in african americans and hispanics. S/S include: chest pain, numbness in hands and legs, syncope, fatigue, swollen hands or feet, jaundice, frequent infections, sore on the skin, delayed growth, stroke, seizure, breathing difficulty, spleen, liver, and lung damage

A

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Sickle Cell

(its a form of hemolytic anemia)

150
Q

120
this type of anemia effects mostly mediterranean (and asian) heredity, is evident in infancy, will have freckled or bronzed skin with iron deposits, and slow growth

A

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Thalassemia (a type of microcytic anemia- low MCV hypochromic)

151
Q

121
this WBC disease has S/S such as: fatigue, dyspnea with exertion, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, swollen lymph nodes, epistaxis, bleeding gums, chronic fever, unexplained weight loss, and bone pain.

A

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leukemia

152
Q

122

What is the universal blood recipient

A

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AB

153
Q

123

what is the universal blood donor

A

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0

154
Q

124

RBCs can be elevated due to

A

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Polycythemia, renal disease

155
Q

125

RBCs can be low due to

A

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anemia, hodgkins lymphoma, sickle cell

156
Q

126

HCT/HGB can be high due to

A

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dehydration, shock, COPD, polycythemia

157
Q

127

HCT/HGB can be high due to

A

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dehydration, shock, COPD, polycythemia

158
Q

128

HCT/HGB can be low due to

A

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anemia, hyperthyroidism, trauma

159
Q

129

WBC can be high due to

A

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acute infection, leukemia

160
Q

130

WBC can be low due to

A

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bone marrow problems, immunodeficiency, AIDS, chemo

161
Q

131

Iron levels could be low due to

A

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acute hepatitis, nephrosis

162
Q

132

iron levels could be low due to

A

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anemia, RA, hypothyroidism, pregnancy (3rd tri)

163
Q

133

BUN is high due to

A

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renal pathology, GI bleeding, heart failure, high protein diet,

164
Q

134

BUN is low due to

A

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pregnancy, liver pathology

165
Q

135

creatinine is high due to

A

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renal pathology, hyperthyroidism

166
Q

136

creatinine is low due to

A

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muscle atrophy

167
Q

137

uric acid is high due to

A

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gout, arthritis, renal stones

168
Q

138

uric acid is low due to

A

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hypothyroid, ethanol

169
Q

139

LDLs should be under what number

A

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<100

170
Q

140

High T4 is elevated in and low in…

A

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high in hyperthyroid and low in hypo

171
Q

141

MCH is elevated/low in …

A

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high in macrocytic anemia, low in microcytic anemia

172
Q

142

Mean copruscular hemoglobin concentration is low in

A

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iron deficiency anemia

173
Q

143

ALT is very specific for testing/diagnosing what disease

A

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Liver disease

174
Q

144

what are some S/S for ordering an ALT test

A

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hepatitis viral exposure, alcoholics, history of liver disease, obesity, PALE STOOL
Note: chronic hep may have low values; will have a greater than 1 in alcoholic hep and viral hep in acute stages

175
Q

145

AST is a less specific test for hepatic disease but will be elevated in..

A

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acute injury or acute skeletal or cardiac injury (MI)

176
Q

146

AST S/S for ordering would include

A

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long term medication use, obesity, diabetes. Pregnant women who have had muscle strain or medication injections may also have elevated AST

177
Q

147

ALP (alkaline phosphatase) is high in

A

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Bone disorders, liver disease

178
Q

148

S/S for ordering ALP lab

A

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osteomalacia, hepatitis, Pagets disease, rickets, sarcoidosis, blood type O or B= fatty foods

179
Q

149

When AST/ALT are high and ALP are high it indicates

A

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LV disease

180
Q

150

When ALT/AST are low and ALP is high it indicates

A

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bone disease or bone cancer

Note: if GGT is high with elevated ALP then bone disease is usually not the problem

181
Q

151

GGT is indicative of

A

Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase
enzyme found in organs throughout the body
highest in the Liver (jaundice, dark urine, light poop)
elevated cause damage to Liver or bile ducts

Biomedicine (10 decks)

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