Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biomedicine > BIO TCM > Flashcards

BIO TCM Flashcards

1
Q

the right side of the heart pumps blood to the…

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2

menstrual bleeding occurs when..

A

estrogen increases and progesterone decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3

the chain of blood pressure regulating hormones is

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4

what is indicative of right sided heart failure

A

distended jugular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5

LH is secreted by..

A

the anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6

in a urinalysis what is present in a possible bacterial infection

A

nitrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7

the mechanism of vasotec, an ACE inhibitor, is to..

A

inhibits the production of angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8

Which cranial nerve is involved in sensing taste

A

CN 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9

what innervates the palmer aspect of the middle and index finger and distal thumb

A

median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10
a 64 year old female has bells palsy all of the following can confirm diagnosis except:

  1. EMG
  2. physical exam of facial ptosis
  3. MRI with contrast agent of 7th CN
  4. facial biopsy of 7th CN
A
  1. physical exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11

What tests can confirm hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

TSH, T3, T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12

Normal shoulder flexion ROM

A

170-180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13

what are the most common side effects of antiarrythmic drus

A

bradycardia and dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14

using a microcentrifuge, Hct measures the precentage of blood volume that is composed of

A

RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15

Schedule 2 drugs are..

A

high risk potential resulting in severe physical and psychological dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16

Mxyedema refers to under active

A

Upgrade To Pro

thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17

a blood tests the shows elevated creatinine indicates a disorder of

A

Upgrade To Pro

the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18

symptoms of Osteoporosis

A

Upgrade To Pro

back pain, fractures in hips, spine, or femur, loss of height, kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19

what is the medication for Hashimotos

A

Upgrade To Pro

levothyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20

reduced bile production will result in what in the feces

A

Upgrade To Pro

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21

which hormone raises body temperature during the luteal phase

A

Upgrade To Pro

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

22
Personnel with HBV vaccine …

  1. need to receive a new vaccine every 3 years
  2. develop immunity with no risk
  3. can still transmit the infection through sex
  4. also develop immunity to HIV
A

Upgrade To Pro

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23
which of the following is not a tx for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

  1. Suprax
  2. Flomax
  3. Avodart
  4. Proscar
A

Upgrade To Pro

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24

which dermatome innervates the anterior ankle and foot

A

Upgrade To Pro

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

25

KUB x ray assesses the Kidneys, Bladder, and

A

Upgrade To Pro

Ureters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

26

which form of Hepatitis is the most significant infectious occupational risk int he US

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

27
which of the following is a primary responsibility a health care worker has for his their patients?
1. Assess for colon cancer

  1. Assess for TB
  2. Assess for Hep C
  3. Assess for alcohol and substance abuse
A

Upgrade To Pro

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

28

What is the CD4 count on a HIV infected person to acquire AIDS

A

Upgrade To Pro

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

29

What as the s/s for Stage 1 endometrial cancer

A

Upgrade To Pro

abdominal bloating, pelvic pain, back pain, cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

30

a myelogram provides radiographic visualization of the

A

Upgrade To Pro

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

31

bouchards nodes occur in the ..

A

Upgrade To Pro

PIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

chloramphenicol, tetracycline

A

decreases protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2

PET scan

A

parkinson’s, epilepsy, mental illness, heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

laproscopy

A

abdomen & pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

4

What two things effect metabolism of a pharmaceutical

A

age, immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Pregnancy Categories
A- 
B 
C 
D 
E
A

A- no risk
B- no risk in humans
C- indeterminate risk, benefits may outweigh risk
D- high risk, benefits may outweigh risk
E- contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Controlled Substance Schedule
I
II 
III 
IV V
A

I- high abuse, no medical necessity
II- high abuse and dependency (opoids, amphetamines)

III- low abuse may cause dependence (steroids, analgesics, barbiturates, antidiarreal)
IV- low abuse, limited dependence (benzos)
V- low abuse, limited dependence (antitussive, anti diarrheal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anthelmintic

A

kills parasites and their eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

anticholinergic

A

blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

9

Antidepressants (tricyclic, MAOI, SSRI, SNRI)

A

end in -ine

  • fluoxetine (prozac)
  • sertaline (zoloft)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Common Anticoagulants

A

aspirin, heparin, warfarin (coumadin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

11

Ma huang shouldn’t use used with MAOI because…

A

it intensifies the effect of medication and side effects (stomachache, headache, tremors, hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

12

Ren shen shouldn’t be used with antihyperglycemics, asprin, corticosteroids, digoxin, estrogen, MAOIs, opoids, warfarin

A

Increases hypoglycemia, increases bleeding, increases adverse effects of anti inflammatories, increases digoxin levels, intensify adverse effects of estrogen, can cause headaches, tremors, and manic episodes (MAOIs), reduces the effects of opoids, and increases bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
13
Green Tea (lu cha) should be avoided with which medication
A

warfarin- increases thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

14

Gan cao should be avoided with digoxin and diuretics because

A

with digoxin it decreases K+, and increases digoxin toxicity

- with diuretics it increases K+, wasting effects and interferes with effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

15
St Johns Wort should be avoided with digoxin, iron supplements, MAOIs, OCPs, protease inhibitors, SSRIs, Tricyclic antidepressants, and warfarin

A

Digoxin- increases toxicity
iron- reduces iron absorption
MAOIs- augments maois, can cause traumatic hypertension
OCPs- increases metabolism of drugs, reduces effectiveness
Protease inhibitors- reduces blood level and efficacy
SSRIs- augments effects of drugs
Tricyclics- augments effects
Warfarin- increases risk of thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

16

Food-drug interactions- grapefruit

A

inhibits or slows metabolism of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

17

Food-drug interactions- tyramine

A

can cause hypertensive crisis if taking MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

18

Food-drug interactions- black tea

A

inhibits iron absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

19

Food-drug interactions- alcohol

A

impairs thiamin, niacin, pyridoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

20

Drug-mineral interactions: opoids, anticholinergics

A

decreases GI motility, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

21

Drug-mineral interactions: diuretics (thiazides, corticosteroids)

A

depletes K+ (can lead to arrhythmia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

22

Drug-mineral interactions: cortisol, aldosterone

A

increases sodium and water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

23

Drug-mineral interactions: birth control

A

impairs zinc and increases copper levels (can lead to dementia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

24

Drug-mineral interactions: phenytoin, primidone

A

creates Vitamin B9 (folate) deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

25

Aminosalicyclic acid, slow release K+ iodide, colchicine, ethanol, OC

A

creates B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

26

High progestin dose

A

can cause depression by reducing tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

27

Orlistat

A

prevents fat absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

29

adrenal corticosteroids, ethanol

A

increases lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

30

aspirin, colchicine, glucagon

A

decreases lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

31

antibiotics, fiber, digoxin

A

decreases appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

32
Sodium (NA-)

Hypernatremia (elevated Sodium levels)
Causes:

A

Sx: Usually due to dehydration; excess diuretics w/ salt intake; N/V with high salt intake,
Sx: confusion, neuromuscular excitability, hyperflexia, seizures, cerebrovascular damage with subcortical or subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

33
Sodium (NA-)

Hyponatremia (decreased sodium levels)
Causes:

A

Sx: extrarenal fluid loss; renal fluid loss; diuretics; pancreatitis; rhabdomylosis; opioids, NSAIDS, Addisons disease, hypothyroidism

Sx: lethargy, confusion, altered mental status, stupor, hyperexcitability, hyperreflexia

RED FLAG- refer to ER immediately- saline drip, fluid restriction, removal of diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

34
Potassium (K+)

Hyperkalemia (K+) (for muscle and cell contraction)
Causes:

A

Sx: EKG

rhabdomylosis, GI bleed, bleeding ulcers

SX: flaccid paralysis, cardiac tonicity with weakness or paralysis (mostly asymptomatic)
Caution: ACE inhibitors, potassium sparing diuretics, urinary obstruciton, renal failure, heart failure

**EKG: short QT wave which will be tall, peaked T wave

Red Flag: Lithium, NSAIDS, trimethoprim, Heparin, cyclosporine, ace inhibitors, digoxin, beta blocker, adrenal insufficiency, IV insulin or glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Potassium (K+)

Hypokalemia (K+)
Causes:

A

Sx: EKG

clay (betonite) ingestion, vomiting, heavy gan cao, chewing tabacco, CUSHINGS,

Sx: muscle weakness, cramping, paralytic ileus, hypoventilation, hypotension, rhabdomylosis

**EKG: depression of T wave, elevated U wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Calcium (Ca+)

Hypercalcemia (calcium) (note: important for hormone release, blood coagulation, muscle and nerve contraction
Causes:

A

Sx: Causes: pagets, osteoporosis, Vit A & D toxicity, Myxedema, Cushings, Addisons

Sx: constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Calcium (Ca+)

Hypocalcemia (calcium)
Causes:

A

Sx:
Causes: hypoparathyroidism, Vit D xu, renal disease, acute pancreatitis, hypoproteinemia

Sx: carpopedal spasm, parasthesia of lips, fingers and feet, general muscle aching, facial spasms, dry scaly skin, brittle nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

38
Hyperphosphatemia (phosphorus = Ph+)
Causes:

A

Sx:Causes: hypoparathyroidism; rhabdomylosis

Sx: hypocalcemia, tetany, soft tissue calcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

39
Hypophosphatemia (phosphorus = Ph+)
Causes:

A

Sx: Acute alcoholism, undernutrition, hyperparathyroidism, cushings, hypothyroidism, diuretic use, chronic fasting

Sx: anorexia, muscle weakness, osteomalacia, *hemolytic anemia = phosphorus leads to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

40
Hypermagnesemia (Magnesium = Mg+)
Causes:

A

Sx: usually uncommon and/or asymptomatic
- respiratory depression, excess antacid use, excess laxative use

Sx: hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest = too much Mg+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

41
Hypomagnesemia (magnesium)
Causes:

A

Sx: alcoholism (reduces Mg+0, steatorrhea, preeclampsia, lactation, thyroid hormone sue, ADH use, polyurea

Sx: anorexia, N/V, lethargy, weakness, personality change, tetany, carpopedal spasm

*caffeine can reduce Mg levels when using in excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

42

what can cause right upper quadrant pain

A

cholecystitis and billiary colic; hepatitis, retrocecal appendicitis (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

43

what can cause right lower quadrant pain

A

appendicitis, cecal diverticulitis, Meckel’s diverticulitis (Crohns)

74
Q

44

what can cause left lower quadrant pain

A

sigmoid diverticulitis (ulcerative colitis)

75
Q

45

What BMI is considered overweight

A

25-30%

76
Q

46

What is a normal pH for saliva and what is it’s function

A

6.5-7.5 - it moistens and lubricates

77
Q

47

what is the pH for bile and what is it’s function

A

digestion of lipids; 7.5-8.8

78
Q

48
A patient comes to you complaining of shoulder issues with limited ROM. They also have extreme thirst, frequent urination, hunger, fatigue, numbness and tingling in the feet and candida. What is your diagnosis?

A

type 1 diabetes

79
Q

49
What is the standard treatment for type 1 diabetes?
What lab tests are done?

A

Tx: insulin (humalog)
Lab: HbA1C

80
Q

50
Patient has dry flushed skin, ketonic breath, nausea and vomiting, cramping, polyuria, blurred vision and foggy head. What is your diagnosis

A

Type 2 Diabetes

81
Q

51
What is the tx for type 2 diabetes?
what is the lab test?

A

tx: insulin replacement- * Metformin
lab: HbA1C

82
Q

52
a patient is sweating, nauseous, warm, has anxiety, palpitations, hunger, and a headache? what is their likely diagnosis?

A

Hypoglycemia

83
Q

53

What is the treatment for hypoglycemia

A

glucagon

84
Q

54

What disease is common in hispanic and african americans and is due to H. Pylori weakening the stomach lining

A

Peptic Ulcer

85
Q

55

NSAIDS and Ethanol can cause pain, nausea, fullness, and bleeding – what disease is this

A

gastritis

86
Q

56

long term asprin use can lead to bleeding ulcers and need to be refered to a physician ASAP- what kind of ulcer is this

A

Gastric Ulcer

87
Q

57

This disorder is caused by H Pylori (mostly) and causes consistent pain which usually awakens a patient at night

A

Duodenal ulcer

88
Q

58

what does melena stand for

A

black tarry stools due to long term stomach or duodenum bleeding

89
Q

59

Amoxil, Cipro, and Levaquin are what kind of common medication?

A

Antibiotics

90
Q

60

what disease is a bacterial diarrhea due to undercooked poultry, milk, eggs or contact with reptiles

A

Salmonella

91
Q

61

what disease is the 3rd most common bacterial diarrhea in the US transmitted person to person

A

Upgrade To Pro

Shigella

92
Q

62
What disease has bloody diarrhea from undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk, juices; can also have watery diarrea, found commonly in nurseries

A

Upgrade To Pro

E. Coli

93
Q

63

which bacterial disease is from undercooked seafood

A

Upgrade To Pro

Vibrio

94
Q

64

Which bacteria disease is food born and usually found in cheese

A

Upgrade To Pro

listeria

95
Q

65
What disease has sx of upper abdominal distention with postprandial fullness that is gnawing or burning; epigastric pain with nausea and vomiting.
What is the treatment?

A

Upgrade To Pro
Dyspepsia
Tx: H2 blockers; PPIs

96
Q

66

what is the route of transmission for Hep A

A

Upgrade To Pro

fecal-oral

97
Q

67

what is the route of transmission for Hep B

A

Upgrade To Pro

blood

98
Q

68

what is the route of transmission for Hep C

A

Upgrade To Pro

blood

99
Q

69

what is the route of transmission for Hep D

A

Upgrade To Pro

needle

100
Q

70

what is the route of transmission for Hep E

A

Upgrade To Pro

water (seen in africa)

101
Q

71

What is the most common type of hepatitis in the medical field?

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hep B

102
Q

72

What is the most common hepatitis in the world?

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hep A

103
Q

73

What is the deadliest type of hepatitis

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hep C

104
Q

74
What is your diagnosis for a patient with fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, dark urine, CLAY COLORED STOOLS, joint pain, jaundice

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hep B

105
Q 
75
Crohn's
- area involved
- sx location 
- S/S 
- Imaging
A

Upgrade To Pro
Area: SI (in 80%)
Location: usually right sided
S/S: 75-85% can have rectal bleeding; fistula; 25-35% have perianal lesions
Imaging: asymmetrical and segmental (skip areas) on X Ray/ Barium Swallow

106
Q 
76
Ulcerative Colitis- area involved
- area involved
- sx location 
- S/S 
- Imaging
A

Upgrade To Pro
area: LI- descending section
Location: left sided
S/S: rectal bleeding; no fistulas, no perianal lesions
Imaging: symmetrical and uninterrupted bowel wall

107
Q

77

What physical assessment test would you use to rule in/out appendicitis

A

Upgrade To Pro

McBurney’s Point/Roving’s sign

108
Q

78
this disorder is usually due to stress however etiology unknown; gas bloating, cramping, bowel changes, constipation and diarrhea- seen most in females

A

Upgrade To Pro

IBS

109
Q

79

This virus is most common causes of diarrhea in children and day care workers in america

A

Upgrade To Pro

Rotavirus

110
Q

80
This disorder is very common in day care centers, international travelers, hikers and can be from consumption from unfiltered/treated water; spreads community wide. Its a parasite

A

Upgrade To Pro

Giardia

111
Q

81

this parasite is water borne and resistant to chlorine (pool water)

A

Upgrade To Pro

Cryptosporidium

112
Q

82
this type of worm/parasite is highly common in the US and causes loss of appetite, loss of weight, abdominal distention, anemia and intestinal bleeding

A

Upgrade To Pro

Hookworm

113
Q

83

This worm/parasite is common in schools and day cares and can cause an itchy perineum

A

Upgrade To Pro

pinworms

114
Q

84

this worm/parasite causes weight loss, abdominal distention, pain, diarrhea, and malnutrition

A

Upgrade To Pro

Tapeworm

115
Q

85
this worm/parasite causes stomach pain, extreme fatigue, N/V, diarrhea, fever, headache, chills, swelling of eyes, cough, muscle aches, may have constipation, heart palpitations, dyspnea. Can mimic tertiary syphillis

A

Upgrade To Pro

Trichinosis

116
Q

86

What are your water soluble vitamins

A

Upgrade To Pro

B1, B2, B3, B6, B12, Folate, Vit C

117
Q

87

Vitamin B1 name

A

Upgrade To Pro

Thiamin

118
Q

88

Vitamin B2 name

A

Upgrade To Pro

Riboflavin

119
Q

89

Vitamin B3 name

A

Upgrade To Pro

niacin

120
Q

90

Vitamin B6 name

A

Upgrade To Pro

pyridoxine

121
Q

91

Vitamin B12 name

A

Upgrade To Pro

cobalamin

122
Q

92

What does B1 deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

beriberi, wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

123
Q

93

what does B2 deficiency result in

A 
Upgrade To Pro
angular stomatitis (will have red tongue)
124
Q

94

what does B3 deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro
Pellagra (dermatitis, glossitis, GI and CNS dysfunction), will have red edges of tongue
Toxicity: flushing

125
Q

95

what does Folate deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

megaloblastic anemia; neural tube defects

126
Q

96

what does B6 deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

seizures, anemia, neuropathies, seborrheic dermatitis- looks like eczema

127
Q

97

what does vit C deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

scurvy (bone defects, gingivitis, loose teeth, hemorrhages); will have a mapped tongue, and possible bone pain

128
Q

98

What are your fat Soluble vitamins

A

Upgrade To Pro

ADEK

129
Q

99

what does Vit A Deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

night blindness, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia; goose flesh skin, cataracts

130
Q

100

What does Vit D deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro
rickets (weakness and softening of the bones, Heberden nodules), osteomalacia

toxicity: anorexia, renal failure

131
Q

101

What does Vit E deficiency results in

A

Upgrade To Pro

red blood cell hemolysis, neurologic deficits, dry scaly skin, follicular hyperkeratosis, alopecia

132
Q

102

What does Vitamin K deficiency result in

A

Upgrade To Pro

bleeding, osteopenia

133
Q

103

Diarrhea is usually caused by what deficiencies

A

Upgrade To Pro

protein, Vitamin B3, Folic Acid, Vitamin B12, K+

134
Q

104

Alcoholism can lead to what deficiencies

A

Upgrade To Pro

magnesium, zinc, thiamin

135
Q

105

Which leukocyte deals with bacteria (and some viruses)

A

Upgrade To Pro

Neutrophils

136
Q

106

which leukocyte deals with allergic reactions (and worms)

A

Upgrade To Pro

Eosinophils

137
Q

107

which leukocyte deals with histamine and heparin reactions

A

Upgrade To Pro

basophils

138
Q 
108
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) becomes macrophages to ingest bacteria and also secrete lysine
A

Upgrade To Pro

monocytes

139
Q 
109
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) is produced in the bone marrow and moves to lymph tissues- has two types: B & T Cells
A

Upgrade To Pro

lymphocytes

140
Q 
110
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) produce immunoglobulins due to bacteria and toxins
A

Upgrade To Pro

B-Cells

141
Q 
111
which agranulocyte (mononucleus WBC) attach to antigen bearing cells like bacteria and kill toxins
A

Upgrade To Pro

T- Cells

142
Q

112
this type of anemia has s/s like chronic bleeding, hx of aspirin/painkiller use, heavy menstruation, poor diet, trauma/surgery, IBD, peptic ulcer
Which lab tests would you order?

A

Upgrade To Pro
Iron deficiency anemia(microcytic)

Labs: H&H, TIBC, Iron (ferritin)

143
Q

113

this type of anemia is d/t B12 deficiency, may have a beefy red, smooth red tongue w/o taste

A 
Upgrade To Pro
pernicious anemia (macrocytic)
144
Q

114
this type of anemia is the excessive destruction of RBCs due to: SLE (lupus)

What lab tests would you order?

A

Upgrade To Pro
Hemolytic

ANA, H&H, ABO-Rh

145
Q

115
this type of anemia is when the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient new cells

What labs would you order?

A

Upgrade To Pro
Aplastic

CBC, Bone Biopsy

146
Q

116

How long can RBCs live for:

A

Upgrade To Pro

100-120 days

147
Q

117

What is the function of RBCs:

A

Upgrade To Pro

transport oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide

148
Q

118

How long do WBCs live for

A

Upgrade To Pro

13 days

149
Q

119
this type of anemia is primarily found in african americans and hispanics. S/S include: chest pain, numbness in hands and legs, syncope, fatigue, swollen hands or feet, jaundice, frequent infections, sore on the skin, delayed growth, stroke, seizure, breathing difficulty, spleen, liver, and lung damage

A

Upgrade To Pro
Sickle Cell

(its a form of hemolytic anemia)

150
Q

120
this type of anemia effects mostly mediterranean (and asian) heredity, is evident in infancy, will have freckled or bronzed skin with iron deposits, and slow growth

A

Upgrade To Pro

Thalassemia (a type of microcytic anemia- low MCV hypochromic)

151
Q

121
this WBC disease has S/S such as: fatigue, dyspnea with exertion, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, swollen lymph nodes, epistaxis, bleeding gums, chronic fever, unexplained weight loss, and bone pain.

A

Upgrade To Pro

leukemia

152
Q

122

What is the universal blood recipient

A

Upgrade To Pro

AB

153
Q

123

what is the universal blood donor

A

Upgrade To Pro

0

154
Q

124

RBCs can be elevated due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

Polycythemia, renal disease

155
Q

125

RBCs can be low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

anemia, hodgkins lymphoma, sickle cell

156
Q

126

HCT/HGB can be high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

dehydration, shock, COPD, polycythemia

157
Q

127

HCT/HGB can be high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

dehydration, shock, COPD, polycythemia

158
Q

128

HCT/HGB can be low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

anemia, hyperthyroidism, trauma

159
Q

129

WBC can be high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

acute infection, leukemia

160
Q

130

WBC can be low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

bone marrow problems, immunodeficiency, AIDS, chemo

161
Q

131

Iron levels could be low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

acute hepatitis, nephrosis

162
Q

132

iron levels could be low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

anemia, RA, hypothyroidism, pregnancy (3rd tri)

163
Q

133

BUN is high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

renal pathology, GI bleeding, heart failure, high protein diet,

164
Q

134

BUN is low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

pregnancy, liver pathology

165
Q

135

creatinine is high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

renal pathology, hyperthyroidism

166
Q

136

creatinine is low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

muscle atrophy

167
Q

137

uric acid is high due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

gout, arthritis, renal stones

168
Q

138

uric acid is low due to

A

Upgrade To Pro

hypothyroid, ethanol

169
Q

139

LDLs should be under what number

A

Upgrade To Pro

<100

170
Q

140

High T4 is elevated in and low in…

A

Upgrade To Pro

high in hyperthyroid and low in hypo

171
Q

141

MCH is elevated/low in …

A

Upgrade To Pro

high in macrocytic anemia, low in microcytic anemia

172
Q

142

Mean copruscular hemoglobin concentration is low in

A

Upgrade To Pro

iron deficiency anemia

173
Q

143

ALT is very specific for testing/diagnosing what disease

A

Upgrade To Pro

Liver disease

174
Q

144

what are some S/S for ordering an ALT test

A

Upgrade To Pro
hepatitis viral exposure, alcoholics, history of liver disease, obesity, PALE STOOL
Note: chronic hep may have low values; will have a greater than 1 in alcoholic hep and viral hep in acute stages

175
Q

145

AST is a less specific test for hepatic disease but will be elevated in..

A

Upgrade To Pro

acute injury or acute skeletal or cardiac injury (MI)

176
Q

146

AST S/S for ordering would include

A

Upgrade To Pro
long term medication use, obesity, diabetes. Pregnant women who have had muscle strain or medication injections may also have elevated AST

177
Q

147

ALP (alkaline phosphatase) is high in

A

Upgrade To Pro

Bone disorders, liver disease

178
Q

148

S/S for ordering ALP lab

A

Upgrade To Pro

osteomalacia, hepatitis, Pagets disease, rickets, sarcoidosis, blood type O or B= fatty foods

179
Q

149

When AST/ALT are high and ALP are high it indicates

A

Upgrade To Pro

LV disease

180
Q

150

When ALT/AST are low and ALP is high it indicates

A

Upgrade To Pro
bone disease or bone cancer

Note: if GGT is high with elevated ALP then bone disease is usually not the problem

181
Q

151

GGT is indicative of

A

Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase
enzyme found in organs throughout the body
highest in the Liver (jaundice, dark urine, light poop)
elevated cause damage to Liver or bile ducts

Biomedicine (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions