BIO MIDTERM CH1-5 Flashcards
1) Which of the following statements about the leopard is false? A) Leopards are the largest cat in the genus Panthera. B) Leopards, like lions, can roar. C) Leopards prefer to eat their kill in trees. D) Leopards are well-adapted for nocturnal hunting. E) Leopards are normally solitary animals.
A) Leopards are the largest cat in the genus Panthera.
Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which of the following sequences correctly lists that hierarchy as it increases in complexity? A) ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, tissue B) cell, molecule, organ system, organ, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community C) organism, organ system, tissue, population, organ, community, cell, ecosystem, molecule D) molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem E) ecosystem, molecule, cell, tissue, organism, organ system, organ, community
D) molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem
What is the difference between a tissue and an organ system? A) The tissue level of organization is more inclusive than the organ system level. B) Tissues are not composed of cells; organ systems are composed of cells. C) A tissue cannot exist unless it is a component of an organ system, whereas an organ system can exist independently of tissues. D) An organ system includes tissues. E) Tissues are not considered to be living; organ systems are considered to be living.
D) An organ system includes tissues.
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, all of these organisms represent A) a species. B) a community. C) a population. D) an ecosystem. E) the biosphere.
B) a community.
) If you eat a hamburger, you are mainly eating ground-up beef muscle. What levels of organization are represented in this ground-up muscle? A) organism, population, and community B) organ, organ system, and organism C) community, ecosystem, and biosphere D) organelle, cell, and tissue E) tissue, organ, and organ system
D) organelle, cell, and tissue
Which of the following statements about ecosystems is false? A) The “web of relationships” within an ecosystem includes the nonliving components of the environment. B) Bacteria and fungi recycle energy within an ecosystem. C) Plants and other photosynthetic organisms are producers in ecosystems. D) Chemical nutrients cycle within an ecosystem’s structural web. E) In the process of energy conversions within an ecosystem, energy is eventually converted to heat.
B) Bacteria and fungi recycle energy within an ecosystem.
) The ultimate source of energy flowing into nearly all ecosystems is A) wind. B) sunlight. C) electricity. D) geothermal vents. E) radioactivity.
B) sunlight.
A consumer eating a producer represents A) a transfer of chemical nutrients and energy. B) a transfer of chemical nutrients but not a transfer of energy. C) a transfer of energy but not a transfer of chemical nutrients. D) neither a transfer of chemical nutrients nor a transfer of energy.
A) a transfer of chemical nutrients and energy.
Which of the following statements regarding a common cellular activity is false? A) Cells respond to the environment. B) Cells develop and maintain complex organization. C) Cells take in and use energy. D) Cells regulate their internal environment. E) New cells are derived from cellular components like organelles.
E) New cells are derived from cellular components like organelles.
Your instructor asks you to look into your microscope to see a prokaryotic cell. You will be looking for a cell that A) has a nucleus. B) has a membrane. C) makes up most of the tissues of your body. D) is much larger than most cells in your body. E) does not use DNA to code genetic information.
B) has a membrane.
Which of the following statements about genetics is true? A) Genes are proteins that produce DNA. B) Each organism has its own unique DNA code. C) DNA relies upon five different building blocks as the alphabet of inheritance. D) Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA. E) Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides.
D) Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.
Which of the following statements about the properties of life is false? A) All organisms have a complex organization. B) All organisms have the ability to take in energy and use it. C) All organisms have the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment. D) All organisms have the ability to reproduce. E) All organisms have the ability to maintain a constant internal temperature.
D) All organisms have the ability to reproduce.
Which of the following statements about living systems is false? A) Living systems are composed of two or more cells. B) Living systems maintain a relatively consistent internal environment. C) Living systems respond to changes in the environment. D) Living systems encode their genetic information in DNA. E) Living systems grow and develop.
A) Living systems are composed of two or more cells.
Organisms that are prokaryotes are in the domains A) Bacteria and Archaea. B) Plantae and Animalia. C) Eukarya and Archaea. D) Archaea and Plantae. E) Fungi and Bacteria.
A) Bacteria and Archaea.
Which of the following statements about the domain Bacteria is true? A) All bacteria are “animal-like” in that they eat other organisms. B) All bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus. C) All bacteria are multicellular organisms. D) All bacteria lack a nucleus. E) All bacteria are “animal-like” in that they eat other organisms, and all bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus.
D) All bacteria lack a nucleus.
Members of the kingdom Animalia A) can obtain their food either by absorption or by photosynthesis. B) are composed of cells that lack a cell membrane. C) are composed of cells that are surrounded by a cell wall. D) can obtain their food by eating other organisms. E) are composed of cells that are surrounded by a cell wall and that lack a cell membrane.
D) can obtain their food by eating other organisms.
What feature is common to prokaryotes, fungi, and plants? A) a nucleus B) single cells C) membership in the kingdom Monera D) cell walls E) photosynthesis
D) cell walls
Which of the following is a kingdom within the domain Eukarya? A) Viruses B) Monera C) Fungi D) Archaea E) Bacteria
C) Fungi
All organisms belonging to the kingdom Plantae A) are photosynthetic. B) contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls with cellulose. C) are unicellular and lack a nucleus. D) lack a nucleus. E) are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls with cellulose.
E) are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls with cellulose.
Members of the kingdom Fungi A) include the mushrooms. B) include the yeasts. C) decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers. D) include the mushrooms and yeasts, and decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers. E) use photosynthesis to produce their own food.
D) include the mushrooms and yeasts, and decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers.
A scientist examining a group of cells under the microscope notices the presence of nuclei within these cells. Chemical tests reveal that each cell is surrounded by a wall composed of cellulose. These cells must come from an organism that is a member of the kingdom A) Monera. B) Protista. C) Plantae. D) Fungi. E) Animalia.
C) Plantae.
Which of the following observations would provide the strongest evidence that the many different plants we call orchids are actually related to one another? A) The flowers have the same shape of petals. B) They all produce small seeds. C) None of them can grow without the presence of a specific type of fungus. D) They all have the same common ancestor. E) They all attract insect pollinators.
D) They all have the same common ancestor.
The teeth of grain-eating animals (such as horses) are usually broad and ridged. This makes the teeth suitable for grinding and chewing. Meat-eating animals (such as lions) have pointed teeth that are good for puncturing and ripping flesh. This illustrates A) a result of natural selection. B) the connection between form and function. C) a food web. D) that natural selection is not necessary in animals. E) a result of natural selection and the connection between form and function.
E) a result of natural selection and the connection between form and function.
Which of the following statements is not consistent with Darwin’s theory of natural selection? A) Individuals in a population exhibit variations, some of which are heritable. B) Individual organisms exhibit genetic change during their life spans to better fit their environment. C) Factors in the environment result in some organisms with better reproductive success than others. D) Natural selection is based in part on the overproduction of offspring. E) Natural selection can lead to the appearance of new species.
B) Individual organisms exhibit genetic change during their life spans to better fit their environment
) An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria A) to be just as susceptible to that antibiotic as was the previous generation. B) to be more resistant to that antibiotic. C) to die out due to the drastic decrease in population size. D) to be more contagious than the prior generation. E) to be less virulent than the previous population.
B) to be more resistant to that antibiotic.
Which of the following statements about evolution is true? A) Individuals evolve within the span of their own lifetimes. B) Organisms evolve structures in response to needs. C) Evolution is deliberate and purposeful. D) Evolution is a passive process. E) Evolution is directional.
D) Evolution is a passive process.
Consider the following statement: “If all vertebrates have backbones, and turtles are vertebrates, then turtles have backbones.” This statement is an example of A) a hypothesis. B) discovery science logic. C) rationalization. D) deductive reasoning. E) inductive reasoning.
D) deductive reasoning.
A hypothesis is A) the same as a theory. B) a tentative answer to some question. C) an explanatory idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence. D) a widely accepted idea about a phenomenon. E) a widely accepted theory that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence.
B) a tentative answer to some question.
You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This prediction is an example of A) an experimental question. B) a type of observation. C) a hypothesis. D) an experiment. E) a type of control.
C) a hypothesis.
A theory is A) an idea that has been proven. B) a concept in the early stages that still needs to be tested. C) a belief that has been accepted by all scientists as fact. D) a description of a belief that invokes the supernatural. E) an explanation of an idea that is broad in scope with multiple lines of evidence.
E) an explanation of an idea that is broad in scope with multiple lines of evidence
To be scientifically valid, a hypothesis must be A) phrased as a question. B) based on faith. C) controlled. D) reasonable. E) testable and falsifiable.
E) testable and falsifiable.
The role of a control in an experiment is to A) provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group. B) prove that a hypothesis is correct. C) ensure repeatability. D) prove that a hypothesis is correct and ensure repeatability. E) counteract the negative effect of the experiment.
A) provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.
A scientist performs a controlled experiment. This means that A) the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate. B) the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data. C) two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable. D) two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by two or more variables. E) one experiment is performed, but the scientist controls the variables.
C) two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable.
Which of the following best represents an example of technology? A) figuring out what mountain gorillas eat B) sequencing the human genome C) testing for genetic diseases D) comparing the structure of a human and gorilla arm E) identifying the cause of a new contagious disease
C) testing for genetic diseases
As the environment changes, A) populations change with a purpose. B) populations will become extinct. C) natural selection adapts populations to their environment. D) individuals develop new traits to adapt to the environment. E) new species will evolve by combining traits from several preexisting species.
C) natural selection adapts populations to their environment.
Which level in the hierarchy shown is a community?
A) level A
B) level B
C) level C
D) level D
E) level E
C) level C
Which of the following organisms belongs to the group represented in Box 1?
A) giraffe
B) earthworm
C) tree
D) decomposing bacteria
E) leopard
C) tree
The National Institutes of Health (NIH) set up a study to determine whether large doses of vitamin C would shorten the length of time it takes to recover from a cold. Three thousand volunteers were split into two groups. For two weeks, members of Group A took 3,000 mg of vitamin C daily. Group B received 3,000 mg of a placebo. At the end of the two-week period, the researchers inserted live cold viruses directly into the noses of all the volunteers. The volunteers in both Group A and B continued to take their daily pills. All the volunteers got colds, and there was no significant difference in the length of time the colds lasted.
1) Which was the experimental group?
A) Group A only
B) Group B only
C) all 3,000 volunteers
D) half of Group A and half of group B
E) the researchers that inserted the cold virus
A) Group A only
The National Institutes of Health (NIH) set up a study to determine whether large doses of vitamin C would shorten the length of time it takes to recover from a cold. Three thousand volunteers were split into two groups. For two weeks, members of Group A took 3,000 mg of vitamin C daily. Group B received 3,000 mg of a placebo. At the end of the two-week period, the researchers inserted live cold viruses directly into the noses of all the volunteers. The volunteers in both Group A and B continued to take their daily pills. All the volunteers got colds, and there was no significant difference in the length of time the colds lasted.
To have confidence that the results of the experiment were valid, you’d also want to know
A) the genders of the volunteers.
B) whether any volunteers had colds at the start of the experiment.
C) whether the volunteers exercised daily.
D) whether the volunteers all worked for the same company.
E) what the volunteers ate during the experiment.
B) whether any volunteers had colds at the start of the experiment.
What phrase best describes the connection between the ants’ use of formic acid and the theme of Chapter 2?
A) Ants are important for the survival of trees.
B) Ants use the trees as a home.
C) Other tree species could benefit from the ants.
D) Chemicals are part of the hierarchical structure of life.
E) Ants and trees can form symbiotic relationships.
D) Chemicals are part of the hierarchical structure of life.
The four most common elements in living organisms are
A) C, H, O, Fe.
B) C, H, O, Na.
C) C, H, O, N.
D) C, N, O, Na.
E) Fe, N, O, Ca.
C) C, H, O, N.
Which of the following is a trace element in the human body?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) zinc
D) oxygen
E) hydrogen
C) zinc
Which of the following statements regarding matter is false?
A) All life is composed of matter.
B) Matter occupies space.
C) Matter has mass.
D) Matter is composed of elements.
E) Matter can be created and destroyed.
E) Matter can be created and destroyed.
Which of the following trace elements is commonly added to table salt to prevent the formation of goiters?
A) iodine
B) iron
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) fluoride
A) iodine
Which of the following trace elements may be added to bottled water in an effort to prevent tooth decay?
A) nitrogen
B) sodium
C) chlorine
D) potassium
E) fluoride
E) fluoride
Which of the following statements best describes a compound?
A) A compound is a pure element.
B) A compound is less common than a pure element.
C) A compound contains two or more different elements in a fixed ratio.
D) A compound is exemplified by sodium.
E) A compound is a solution.
C) A compound contains two or more different elements in a fixed ratio.
) In the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O,
A) H2, O2, and H2O are all compounds.
B) H2, O2, and H2O are all elements.
C) only H2O is a compound.
D) only H2 and O2 are compounds.
E) H2, O2, and H2O are all trace elements.
C) only H2O is a compound.
Which of the following particles is found in the nucleus of an atom?
A) protons and neutrons
B) protons and electrons
C) only neutrons
D) only protons
E) only electrons
A) protons and neutrons
Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that
A) insects fly around a bright lamp at night.
B) cars are parked along the sides of a street.
C) boats cross a lake.
D) people pass each other along a sidewalk.
E) birds migrate to a new winter home.
A) insects fly around a bright lamp at night.
What is the atomic mass of an atom that has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons?
A) 6
B) 8
C) +1
D) 12
E) 18
D) 12
An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does boron have?
A) 11
B) 15
C) 0
D) 5
E) 2
D) 5
Which of the following is another term used for atomic mass?
A) roberts
B) darwin
C) mendel
D) dalton
E) calvin
D) dalton
The sodium atom contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?
A) 0
B) 11
C) 22
D) 23
E) 34
D) 23
Which of the following best describes the atomic number of an atom?
A) the number of protons in the atom
B) the number of electrons in the atom
C) the number of neutrons in the atom
D) the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom
E) the net electrical charge of the atom
A) the number of protons in the atom
Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could
A) be positively charged.
B) be negatively charged.
C) have more than electrons and more than protons.
D) have more than protons.
E) have more than neutrons.
E) have more than neutrons.
) A radioactive isotope is an isotope that
A) is stable.
B) decays.
C) has more protons than the common variant of the element.
D) has more electrons than the common variant of the element.
E) has the same atomic mass, but a different atomic number than the common variant of the element.
B) decays.
If you found a fossilized dinosaur bone, what method could be used to determine the age of the fossil?
A) electrophoresis
B) DNA fingerprinting
C) isotope analysis
D) radial immunodiffusion
E) high-pressure liquid chromatography
C) isotope analysis
Which of the following statements about radioactive isotopes is true?
A) The nuclei of radioactive isotopes are unusually stable, but the atoms tend to lose electrons.
B) When given a choice between radioactive and nonradioactive isotopes of the same atom, living cells are more likely to
incorporate the radioactive isotopes into their structures.
C) The tracers typically used for diagnosing medical problems remain radioactive in the body for a number of years, but
give off very low levels of radioactive energy.
D) The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.
E) Radioactive elements are natural and therefore not harmful.
D) The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.
Based on your understanding of radioactive isotopes and Alzheimer’s disease, what might occur with the use of radioactive isotopes when diagnosing this brain disease?
A) It would not be very accurate.
B) It could cause more cellular damage, worsening the condition.
C) It only works on diseased brains.
D) It would only work if the isotope was stable.
E) Naturally occurring radioactive isotopes will provide accurate results.
B) It could cause more cellular damage, worsening the condition.
) Radioactive isotopes
A) are frequently added to foods as nutritional supplements.
B) can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose diseases.
C) have no effect on living tissue.
D) do not occur naturally.
E) are never incorporated into organic compounds.
B) can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose diseases.
When full, the innermost electron shell of argon contains ________ electrons, and the outermost shell contains ________ electrons.
A) 2 . . . 2
B) 2 . . . 8
C) 4 . . . 8
D) 8 . . . 2
E) 8 . . . 8
B) 2 . . . 8
What happens to an atom if the electrons in the outer shell are altered?
A) The atom becomes radioactive.
B) The atom will disintegrate.
C) The properties of the atom will change.
D) The atom will remain the same.
E) The atom’s characteristics change and it becomes a different element.
C) The properties of the atom will change.
Which particles increase by one as we move from left to right in the elements on the periodic table?
A) neutrons only
B) neutrons and protons
C) electrons only
D) electrons and protons
E) electrons and neutrons
D) electrons and protons
Table salt is formed when
A) chlorine gives an electron to sodium.
B) a hydrogen bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
C) sodium and chlorine share electrons to form a bond.
D) sodium crystals combine with chlorine crystals.
E) sodium donates its single outer electron to chlorine
E) sodium donates its single outer electron to chlorine
The body uses atoms in different ways to accomplish different tasks. For example, one portion of the body’s calcium supply strengthens bones, whereas another portion combines with proteins to stimulate blood clotting after tissue injury. Which of the statements below provides the most logical chemical explanation of calcium’s ability to perform such different functions?
A) The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
B) The calcium in blood is a more reactive form of the atom and therefore has fewer protons than the calcium in bone.
C) There are many different isotopes of calcium, and the most reactive isotope is found in the bone.
D) The calcium in blood has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone and is in a more reactive form.
E) The calcium in blood has fewer protons, is a more reactive form of the atom, and has a lighter atomic mass than the
calcium in bone.
A) The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
) Medicines are often administered in pill form. In many cases, the active ingredient of the pill (the drug) is joined to another substance by ________. This forms a(n) ________, which is stable in the dry environment of a pill bottle but dissociates under the wet conditions of the digestive system to release the drug to the body.
A) ionic bonds . . . salt
B) hydrogen bonds . . . base
C) ionic bonds . . . acid
D) covalent bonds . . . salt
E) polar covalent bonds . . . acid or base (depending on the drug)
A) ionic bonds . . . salt
A(n) ________ forms when two atoms share electrons.
A) ion
B) element
C) covalent bond
D) ionic bond
E) hydrogen bond
C) covalent bond
A hydrogen atom has one electron. How many covalent bonds can hydrogen form?
A) one covalent bond
B) four covalent bonds
C) four covalent bonds
D) two ionic bonds
E) two isotonic bonds
A) one covalent bond
What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?
A) In a covalent bond, the partners have identical electronegativity; in an ionic bond, one of them is more electronegative.
B) In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner accepts electrons from the other.
C) In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells; in ionic bonding, one partner does and the
other does not.
D) Covalent bonding involves only the outermost electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next electron shell inside
the outermost shell.
E) Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element; ionic bonds form between atoms of different elements.
B) In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner accepts electrons from the other.
Which of the following statements regarding the oxygen atom of a water molecule is true?
A) Oxygen is more positively charged than the hydrogen atoms.
B) Oxygen attracts electrons less strongly than the hydrogen atoms.
C) Oxygen is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
D) Oxygen is electrically neutral.
E) Oxygen is attracted to the negatively charged atoms of other molecules.
C) Oxygen is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
In a water molecule, hydrogen and oxygen are held together by a(n) ________ bond.
A) double covalent
B) ionic
C) nonpolar covalent
D) hydrogen
E) polar covalent
E) polar covalent
A person shakes up vinegar and oil dressing before pouring it on salads. What is the chemical reason for doing this?
A) Vinegar contains charged water molecules, while oil is neutral and repels water.
B) Vinegar and oil must be mixed to decease the viscosity.
C) Vinegar and oil are oppositely charged, and opposites attract.
D) Oil is composed of fatty acids, which are too large to dissolve in water.
E) Vinegar has a basic pH and is neutralized when mixed with oil.
A) Vinegar contains charged water molecules, while oil is neutral and repels water.
A water molecule (HOH) is held together by
A) an ionic bond.
B) a single covalent bond.
C) a double covalent bond.
D) two polar covalent bonds.
E) hydrogen bonds.
D) two polar covalent bonds.
The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by ________ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by ________ bonds.
A) hydrogen . . . ionic
B) hydrogen . . . polar covalent
C) polar covalent . . . hydrogen
D) ionic . . . covalent
E) polar covalent . . . ionic
C) polar covalent . . . hydrogen
________ are weak bonds that are not strong enough to hold atoms together to form molecules but are strong enough to form bonds within and around large molecules.
A) Ionic bonds
B) Covalent bonds
C) Polar covalent bonds
D) Hydrogen bonds
E) Anionic bonds
D) Hydrogen bonds
Water molecules stick to other water molecules because
A) water molecules are neutral, and neutral molecules are attracted to each other.
B) hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
C) covalent bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water
molecules.
D) the hydrogen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.
E) the oxygen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.
B) hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
The tendency of water molecules to stick together is referred to as
A) adhesion.
B) polarity.
C) cohesion.
D) transpiration.
E) evaporation.
C) cohesion.
Which of the following is dependent on the ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules besides water?
A) the evaporative cooling of skin surfaces
B) the movement of water from the roots of a tree to its leaves
C) the milder temperatures of coastal regions compared to inland areas
D) the ability of certain insects to walk on the surface of water
E) the universality of water as a solvent
E) the universality of water as a solvent
Water’s surface tension and heat storage capacity is accounted for by its
A) orbitals.
B) weight.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) mass.
E) size.
C) hydrogen bonds.
As ice melts,
A) hydrogen bonds are broken.
B) water molecules become less tightly packed.
C) the water becomes less dense.
D) covalent bonds form.
E) heat is released.
A) hydrogen bonds are broken.
Which of the following will contain more heat but has a lower temperature?
A) a gas-powered lawnmower engine after it has been used for an hour
B) an Olympic-sized heated indoor swimming pool
C) the water used in a dishwasher
D) the boiling water in a pot for noodles
E) a hot air balloon
B) an Olympic-sized heated indoor swimming pool
The temperature of evaporation is much higher for water than for alcohol. Without knowing more about the chemistry of alcohol, which of the following is the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?
A) Ionic bonds form between alcohol molecules. These are the weakest type of bond and are easier to break than the
hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
B) Alcohol has a higher surface tension than water. This means that alcohol molecules can easily break away from other
alcohol molecules and evaporate at a lower temperature.
C) Alcohol molecules are more cohesive than water molecules. This means that as alcohol molecules evaporate, they pull
other alcohol molecules into the air along with them.
D) Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break
away from solution and enter the air.
E) Water is a better solvent than alcohol. Therefore, alcohol can break covalent bonds easily and will not be restricted
from evaporating from its solute.
D) Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break
away from solution and enter the air.
Which of the following statements about water is false?
A) Ice is less dense than liquid water.
B) The hydrogen bonds in ice are less stable than the hydrogen bonds in liquid water.
C) Water naturally exists in all three physical states on Earth.
D) Floating ice on a pond insulates the liquid water below, slowing its rate of freezing.
E) If ice sank, the oceans would eventually freeze solid.
B) The hydrogen bonds in ice are less stable than the hydrogen bonds in liquid water.
You’ve made a hot drink by dissolving a teaspoon of instant coffee and a teaspoon of sugar in a cup of hot water. Which of the following statements is true?
A) You’ve just prepared an aqueous solution.
B) The water is the solute portion of the drink.
C) The instant coffee and sugar are solvents.
D) The instant coffee and sugar dissolve because they have no charged regions to repel the partial positive and partial
negative regions of the water molecules.
E) The coffee and sugar would not dissolve in cold water.
A) You’ve just prepared an aqueous solution.
Clot formation in our blood can lead to a heart attack or stroke. What was altered in the proteins that made the clot?
A) The proteins became more polar.
B) The blood was saturated with proteins.
C) The proteins were no longer soluble in the blood.
D) A different solvent other than water was used.
E) The proteins became more soluble in the blood.
C) The proteins were no longer soluble in the blood.
A pharmaceutical company hires a chemist to analyze the purity of the water being used in its drug preparations. If the water is pure, the chemist would expect to find
A) only molecules of H2O.
B) H2O molecules and H+ ions.
C) H2O molecules and OH- ions.
D) H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions.
E) only H+ ions and OH- ions.
D) H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions.
A solution with a pH of 7 is
A) strongly acidic.
B) weakly acidic.
C) neutral.
D) weakly basic.
E) strongly basic.
C) neutral.
Compared to a solution of pH 3, a solution of pH 1 is
A) 100 times more acidic.
B) 10 times more acidic.
C) neutral.
D) 10 times more basic.
E) 100 times more basic.
A) 100 times more acidic.
Which of the following statements about pH is true?
A) The pH scale is a measure of oxygen ion concentration.
B) A single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration.
C) An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
D) Basic pH levels are less than 7.
E) The pH of solutions inside most cells is close to 9.0.
C) An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements about them is true?
A) Both of these substances are strong acids.
B) The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach.
C) The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
D) A solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.
E) The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach, and a solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia
would remove excess OH- ions.
C) The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
A buffer
A) is an acid that is used to offset overly basic conditions in the body.
B) is a base that is used to offset overly acidic conditions in the body.
C) donates OH- ions when conditions become too acidic and accepts OH- ions when conditions become too basic.
D) donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts H+ ions when conditions become too acidic.
E) donates OH- ions when conditions become too basic and accepts OH- ions when conditions become too acidic.
D) donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts H+ ions when conditions become too acidic.
A diabetic, who does not utilize insulin properly, will metabolize fats instead of glucose. A condition called diabetic ketoacidosis is a common result of excessive fat metabolism, causing blood pH values of 7.1 or less (normal range = 7.35 — 7.45). What has happened to the blood pH and why?
A) The pH is above normal (basic) because the ketones are too basic.
B) The pH is below normal (acidic) because the buffering capacity was exceeded.
C) The pH is above normal (basic) because the glucose is polar.
D) The pH is not affected because the blood buffers can absorb the excess H+.
E) The pH is below normal because buffers can donate OH+.
B) The pH is below normal (acidic) because the buffering capacity was exceeded.
Which of the following statements about acid precipitation is false?
A) Acid precipitation can occur with rain, snow, or fog.
B) Acid precipitation is defined as having a pH below 5.6.
C) Acid precipitation damages natural wilderness areas.
D) Acid precipitation is primarily the result of burning fossil fuels.
E) Acid precipitation has little or no effect on soil chemistry.
E) Acid precipitation has little or no effect on soil chemistry.
The emission of ________ and ________ are primarily responsible for acid precipitation.
A) carbon dioxide . . . methane
B) CFCs . . . bromides
C) nitrogen oxides . . . sulfur oxides
D) halones . . . CFCs
E) carbon dioxide . . . ozone
C) nitrogen oxides . . . sulfur oxides
Which of the following would be considered an effective way to decrease the production of acid precipitation?
A) Drive more full-size SUVs.
B) Build more coal-generated electricity power plants.
C) Discourage the use of alternative energy resources such as solar, wind, and geothermal energy.
D) Whenever possible, walk or ride a bicycle instead of driving a car.
E) Consume only organically grown foods.
D) Whenever possible, walk or ride a bicycle instead of driving a car.
What is likely to happen to wild salmon prices if the burning of fossil fuels continues at the current rate?
A) Prices will drop to pre-fossil fuel burning levels.
B) Prices will increase due to decreased salmon harvests.
C) Prices will stay the same because fossil fuel has nothing to do with salmon.
D) Prices will fluctuate wildly due to illogical fear in the marketplace.
E) Prices will initially decline and then stabilize.
B) Prices will increase due to decreased salmon harvests.
Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is false?
A) Chemical reactions involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds.
B) Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
C) The atoms of the reactants are exactly the same as the atoms of the products.
D) The reactants contain the same number of atoms as the products.
E) Although the atoms of a reaction’s reactants and products are identical to each other, their molecular formulae differ.
B) Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
Which of the following hypotheses would be supported if liquid water were found on Mars and contained evidence of bacteria-like organisms?
A) Life must evolve in the presence of oxygen.
B) The chemical evolution of life is possible.
C) Life on Earth must have originated on Mars.
D) Life is guided by intelligent design.
E) Life spontaneously arises from the decaying flesh of organisms.
B) The chemical evolution of life is possible.
In the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O, the H2 molecules are ________ and the H2O molecules are ________.
A) reactants . . . products
B) products . . . reactants
C) created . . . destroyed
D) used . . . stored
E) destroyed . . . created
A) reactants . . . products
Photosynthesis requires many steps to make glucose. As a result of the synthesis process,
A) all the carbons from the six carbon dioxide atoms are found in glucose.
B) more atoms are present at the beginning than at the end.
C) more carbon dioxide is released from the plant than is absorbed.
D) water is synthesized by the plant from H2 and O2.
E) more water is released from the leaves than is absorbed through the roots.
A) all the carbons from the six carbon dioxide atoms are found in glucose.
What change is occurring in this figure?
A) Sodium is gaining an electron.
B) Chlorine is losing an electron.
C) Sodium is becoming negatively charged.
D) Sodium is filling its third electron shell.
E) Chlorine is filling its third electron shell.
E) Chlorine is filling its third electron shell.
The hydrogen bonds shown in this figure are each
A) between two hydrogen atoms.
B) between two oxygen atoms.
C) between an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of the same water molecule.
D) between an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of different water molecules.
E) between two atoms with the same charge.
D) between an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of different water molecules.
You’ve been experiencing acid indigestion lately, and you’d like a quick fix for the problem. You do a little research on the Internet and discover that your problem is caused by excess stomach acid. In the pharmacy aisles, however, you’re having a little trouble deciding what to purchase to address the problem. At the pharmacy counter, the clerk recommends that you purchase Pepcid-AC® or Alka-Seltzer® tablets.
If you could check the pH of the recommended tablets, you would expect it to be
A) higher than 7.
B) lower than 7.
C) exactly 7.
D) pH neutral.
E) either C or D.
A) higher than 7.
You’ve been experiencing acid indigestion lately, and you’d like a quick fix for the problem. You do a little research on the Internet and discover that your problem is caused by excess stomach acid. In the pharmacy aisles, however, you’re having a little trouble deciding what to purchase to address the problem. At the pharmacy counter, the clerk recommends that you purchase Pepcid-AC® or Alka-Seltzer® tablets.
If you were able to chemically analyze your stomach fluids 30 minutes after taking two tablets, you would find
A) more hydrogen ions.
B) fewer hydrogen ions.
C) the same number of hydrogen ions.
D) that the pH in your stomach has decreased.
E) a greater number of covalent bonds.
B) fewer hydrogen ions.
Lactose intolerance is the inability to
A) produce milk proteins.
B) produce lactose.
C) digest cellulose.
D) digest lactose.
E) digest milk fats.
D) digest lactose.
Lactose intolerance
A) is common in people of all ages, from infancy to adulthood.
B) is most common in people of European descent.
C) can currently be treated by gene therapy to treat the underlying cause.
D) does not affect the consumption of beverages made from soy or rice.
E) is a fatal disease with no known treatment.
D) does not affect the consumption of beverages made from soy or rice.
Organic compounds
A) always contain nitrogen.
B) are synthesized only by animal cells.
C) always contain carbon.
D) can be synthesized only in a laboratory.
E) always contain oxygen.
C) always contain carbon.
4) Which of the following statements regarding carbon is false?
A) Carbon has a tendency to form covalent bonds.
B) Carbon has the ability to bond with up to four other atoms.
C) Carbon has the capacity to form single and double bonds.
D) Carbon has the ability to bond together to form extensive, branched, or unbranched “carbon skeletons.”
E) Carbon has the capacity to form polar bonds with hydrogen.
E) Carbon has the capacity to form polar bonds with hydrogen.
You now know that the old cliché “oil and water don’t mix” is true. Why?
A) Oil exhibits polarity and water does not.
B) Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
C) Oil is hydrophilic.
D) Water is hydrophobic.
E) Oil is an organic compound and water is not.
B) Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
Which of the following statements about hydrocarbons is false?
A) Hydrocarbons are inorganic compounds.
B) Hydrocarbons are composed of a linked chain of carbon atoms, called a carbon skeleton.
C) Hydrocarbons contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.
D) Hydrocarbons consist of atoms linked by single and double bonds.
E) Hydrocarbons can form straight, branched or ringed structures.
A) Hydrocarbons are inorganic compounds.
Propanol and isopropanol are isomers. This means that they have
A) the same molecular formula, but different chemical properties.
B) different molecular formulas, but the same chemical properties.
C) the same molecular formula and the same chemical properties.
D) the same number of carbon atoms, but different numbers of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
E) the same molecular formula, but represent different states of the compound.
A) the same molecular formula, but different chemical properties.
A hydroxyl group is
A) also called a carbonyl group.
B) characteristic of proteins.
C) hydrophobic.
D) characteristic of alcohols.
E) basic.
D) characteristic of alcohols.
Which of the following is a carboxyl group?
A) CO
B) OH
C) NH2
D) COOH
E) SH
C) NH2
Which of the following is an amino group?
A) OH
B) NH2
C) COOH
D) CO
E) CH3
B) NH2
Which of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is false?
A) Functional groups help make organic compounds hydrophilic.
B) Many biological molecules have two or more functional groups.
C) Functional groups participate in chemical reactions.
D) All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound’s skeleton.
E) Functional groups help make organic compounds soluble in water.
D) All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound’s skeleton.
Which of the following contains a carboxyl and an amino group?
A) amino acids
B) fats
C) sugars
D) ATP
E) vinegar
A) amino acids
Which of the following functional groups is capable of regulating gene expression?
A) OH
B) NH2
C) COOH
D) CO
E) CH3
E) CH3
Which of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is false?
A) Cells typically make all of their macromolecules from a set of 40-50 common monomers and a few other ingredients
that are rare.
B) The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal.
C) Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers.
D) DNA is built from just four kinds of monomers.
E) Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.
E) Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.
Which of the following statements about dehydration synthesis is false?
A) One monomer loses a hydrogen atom, and the other loses a hydroxyl group.
B) Electrons are shared between atoms of the joined monomers.
C) H2O is formed as the monomers are joined.
D) Covalent bonds are formed between the monomers.
E) Animal digestive systems utilize this process to break down food.
E) Animal digestive systems utilize this process to break down food.
The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by
A) condensation.
B) hydrolysis.
C) polymerization.
D) the addition of an amino group.
E) the addition of a phosphate group.
B) hydrolysis.
Which list below consists of only polymers?
A) sugars, amino acids, nucleic acids, lipids
B) proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, amino acids
C) proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
D) proteins, lipids, nucleotides, sugars
E) polysaccharides, lipids, amino acids, nucleic acids
C) proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
What is the general function of enzymes within a cell?
A) to promote the synthesis of monomers
B) to induce chemical reactions
C) to stop chemical reactions
D) to speed up chemical reactions
E) to reverse the direction of chemical reactions
D) to speed up chemical reactions
The molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multiple of
A) CH3O.
B) CH2O.
C) CHO.
D) CHO2.
E) CHO3.
B) CH2O.
A molecule with the formula C55H110O55 is probably a(n)
A) oil.
B) steroid.
C) wax.
D) protein.
E) polysaccharide.
E) polysaccharide.
Many names for sugars end in the suffix
A) -acid.
B) -ose.
C) -hyde.
D) -ase.
E) -ing.
B) -ose.
Sucrose is formed
A) from two glucose molecules.
B) from two monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis.
C) when ionic bonds link two monosaccharides.
D) when water molecules are added to two monosaccharides.
E) when glucose and lactose are combined.
B) from two monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis.
A disaccharide forms when
A) two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis.
B) two starches join by dehydration synthesis.
C) two monosaccharides join by hydrolysis.
D) two starches join by hydrolysis.
E) a starch and a monosaccharide join by dehydration synthesis.
A) two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis.
High-fructose corn syrup is composed primarily of a polysaccharide called
A) sucrose.
B) starch.
C) hydrocarbon.
D) cellulose.
E) lactose.
B) starch.
Which of the following lists contains only polysaccharides?
A) sucrose, starch, and cellulose
B) starch, amino acids, and glycogen
C) cellulose, starch, and glycogen
D) nucleotides, glycogen, and cellulose
E) fructose, cellulose, and glucose
C) cellulose, starch, and glycogen
Cellulose differs from starch in that
A) the monomers of cellulose are held together by covalent bonds, whereas the monomers of starch are held together by
hydrogen bonds.
B) glycogen is formed by plants and cellulose by animals.
C) most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
D) starch is made of glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is made of fructose monomers.
E) cellulose is highly branched, whereas starch is unbranched.
C) most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
Foods that are high in fiber are most likely derived from
A) plants.
B) dairy products.
C) red meats.
D) fish.
E) poultry.
A) plants.
Cows can derive nutrients from cellulose because
A) they produce the enzymes that break down cellulose.
B) they chew their food so thoroughly that cellulose fibers are broken down.
C) their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.
D) they convert cellulose into starch, which is easily broken down in the intestinal tract.
E) their intestinal tract contains termites, which can break down cellulose.
C) their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.
The storage form of carbohydrates is ________ in animals and ________ in plants.
A) starch . . . glycogen
B) glycogen . . . starch
C) cellulose . . . glycogen
D) glycogen . . . cellulose
E) chitin . . . glycogen
B) glycogen . . . starch
These two molecules are structural isomers. What is the difference between them?
A) the number of carbon atoms
B) the number of oxygen atoms
C) the number of hydrogen atoms
D) the location of a double-bonded oxygen atom
E) Only one of them has a double bond between carbon atoms.
D) the location of a double-bonded oxygen atom
How are these two amino acids attached together?
A) amino group to amino group
B) amino group to carboxylic acid group
C) carboxylic acid group to carboxylic acid group
D) carbon atom to carbon atom
E) through a hydrolysis reaction
B) amino group to carboxylic acid group
According to this figure, which of the following is large enough to see in the light microscope?
A) atoms
B) proteins
C) ribosome
D) viruses
E) mitochondria
E) mitochondria
Which part of the mitochondrion shown is its matrix?
A) structure A
B) structure B
C) structure C
D) structure D
E) structure E
E) structure E
Which figure depicts an animal cell placed in a solution hypotonic to the cell?
A) cell A
B) cell B
C) cell C
D) cell D
E) cell E
A) cell A
Which part of the ATP molecule breaks free of the rest when an ATP molecule is used for energy?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
E) part E
E) part E
