BIO CHAPTER 8

Question 1

1) The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from a single parent is called 
A) asexual reproduction. 
B) sexual reproduction. 
C) a life cycle. 
D) regeneration. 
E) spontaneous generation

Answer 1

A) asexual reproduction.

Question 2

2) Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true?
A) Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction.
B) Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from two parents.
C) Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of unfertilized eggs.
D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.
E) Only asexual reproduction results from the union of a sperm and an egg.

Answer 2

D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.

Question 3

3) Strictly speaking, the phrase “like begets like” refers to
A) all forms of reproduction.
B) sexual reproduction only.
C) asexual reproduction only.
D) production of gametes from a premeiotic cell.
E) sexual reproduction between different species.

Answer 3

C) asexual reproduction only.

Question 4

4) Asexual reproduction requires \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ individual(s). 
A) 0 
B) 1 
C) 2 
D) 3 
E) 4

Answer 4

B) 1

Question 5

5) With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have
A) identical chromosomes, but different genes.
B) identical genes but different chromosomes.
C) the same combination of traits, but different genes.
D) only a 20% chance of sharing the same combination of genes.
E) a similar but not identical combination of genes.

Answer 5

E) a similar but not identical combination of genes.

Question 6

6) Virchow’s principle, stated formally in 1858, was that
A) animals must always reproduce.
B) photosynthesis is the center of all life.
C) animals must develop.
D) every cell comes from a cell.
E) all life evolves.

Answer 6

D) every cell comes from a cell.

Question 7

7) Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?
A) Cell division can reproduce an entire organism.
B) Cell division is necessary for development to occur.
C) Cell division ensures the continuity of life from generation to generation.
D) Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.
E) Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

Answer 7

E) Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

Question 8

8) Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is false?
A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.
B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission.
C) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells.
D) In prokaryotes, daughter chromosomes are separated by an active movement away from each other and the growth of
 a new plasma membrane between them.
E) Daughter prokaryotic chromosomes are separated by some sort of active movement away from each other and the
 growth of new plasma membrane between them.

Answer 8

A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.

Question 9

9) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they
A) are simpler.
B) are circular in structure.
C) include fewer proteins.
D) are copied immediately after cell division.
E) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus

Answer 9

E) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus

Question 10

10) Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes? 
A) the nuclear membrane 
B) proteins 
C) centromeres 
D) ribosomes 
E) lipids

Answer 10

B) proteins

Question 11

11) Sister chromatids are
A) found right after a cell divides.
B) tightly linked together at a centromere.
C) formed when chromatids separate during cell division.
D) made only of DNA.
E) unique to prokaryotes.

Answer 11

B) tightly linked together at a centromere.

Question 12

12) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called 
A) chromatin. 
B) sister chromosomes. 
C) DNA transcripts. 
D) nucleoli. 
E) sister  chromatids .

Answer 12

E) sister chromatids

Question 13

13) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase? 
A) interphase 
B) prophase 
C) metaphase 
D) anaphase 
E) telophase

Answer 13

A) interphase

Question 14

14) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane
B) duplication of the chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
E) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell

Answer 14

D) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes

Question 15

15) The genetic material is duplicated during 
A) the mitotic phase. 
B) G1. 
C) the S phase. 
D) G2. 
E) mitosis.

Answer 15

C) the S phase.

Question 16

16) If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would
A) have half the genetic material found in the parent cell.
B) be genetically identical to each other.
C) be genetically identical to the parent cell.
D) synthesize the missing genetic material on their own.
E) continue to function without the normal amount of DNA

Answer 16

A) have half the genetic material found in the parent cell.

Question 17

17) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called 
A) mitosis. 
B) cytokinesis. 
C) binary fission. 
D) telophase. 
E) spindle formation.

Answer 17

B) cytokinesis

Question 18

18) Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8! Then you realize that this cell is 
A) undergoing cytokinesis. 
B) in the S phase of interphase. 
C) in the G1 phase of interphase. 
D) in the G2 phase of interphase. 
E) about to undergo mitosis.

Answer 18

A) undergoing cytokinesis.

Question 19

19) The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called 
A) interphase. 
B) prophase. 
C) metaphase. 
D) anaphase. 
E) telophase.

Answer 19

B) prophase.

Question 20

20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles? 
A) interphase 
B) prophase 
C) metaphase 
D) anaphase 
E) telophase

Answer 20

C( metaphase

Question 21

21) At the start of mitotic anaphase,
A) the centromeres of each chromosome come apart.
B) sister chromatids separate.
C) the chromatid DNA replicates.
D) daughter chromosomes begin to move toward opposite poles of the cell.
E) equivalent and complete collections of chromosomes have reached the two poles.

Answer 21

A) the centromeres of each chromosome come apart.

Question 22

22) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form and the nucleoli reappear? 
A) anaphase 
B) metaphase 
C) prophase 
D) interphase 
E) telophase

Answer 22

E) telophase

Question 23

23) Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division?
A) formation of a cell plate
B) formation of a cleavage furrow
C) lack of cytokinesis
D) production of four (rather than two) new cells per mitotic division
E) disappearance and subsequent reappearance of the nucleolus

Answer 23

A) formation of a cell plate

Question 24

24) Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis?
A) Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow.
B) Animal cells lack chloroplasts.
C) Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell wall.
D) Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes.
E) Plant and animal cells do not have a common ancestor.

Answer 24

C) Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell wall.

Question 25

25) Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally?
A) The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate hormones from its parents.
B) The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.
C) Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division.
D) Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell division.
E) Dividing cells must be freed from attachment sites.

Answer 25

B) The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.

Question 26

26) When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of 
A) cancer. 
B) cell constraint. 
C) density-dependent inhibition. 
D) cell division repression. 
E) growth factor desensitization.

Answer 26

C) density-dependent inhibition.

Question 27

27) As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of 
A) density-independent inhibition. 
B) density-dependent inhibition. 
C) anchorage independence. 
D) growth factor inhibition. 
E) anchorage-dependent inhibition.

Answer 27

B) density-dependent inhibition.

Question 28

28) Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition?
A) a local accumulation of growth-inhibiting factors
B) availability of growth factors
C) cells’ innate ability to “sense” when the organ of which they are a part has no need for additional cells
D) a local deficiency of nutrients
E) physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent cells.

Answer 28

B) availability of growth factors

Question 29

What type of cell is shown? 
A) animal cell in metaphase 
B) animal cell in telophase 
C) plant cell in metaphase 
D) plant cell in telophase 
E) plant cell in interphase

Answer 29

D) plant cell in telophase

Question 30

29) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
A) remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs.
B) become cancerous more easily than other cell types.
C) continue to divide throughout their lifetime.
D) are permanently in a state of nondivision.
E) cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations.

Answer 30

D) are permanently in a state of nondivision.

Question 31

30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-cycle control system is false?
A) The cell-cycle control system receives messages from outside the cell that influence cell division.
B) The cell-cycle control system triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.
C) The cell-cycle control system is influenced by growth factors that bind to cell receptors.
D) The cell-cycle control system includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle.
E) The cell-cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.

Answer 31

E) The cell-cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.

Question 32

31) The cell cycle control system is most like
A) a row of dominoes falling down, each one triggering the fall of the next.
B) the control device of an automatic washing machine.
C) an orchestra directed by a conductor.
D) a light switch turning on a set of room lights.
E) a video game controller.

Answer 32

B) the control device of an automatic washing machine.

Question 33

32) You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density-dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most likely
A) a scar.
B) a cancer.
C) skin.
D) a fetal liver.
E) the sperm-producing tissue of the testis.

Answer 33

B) a cancer.

Question 34

33) A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor
A) is cancerous.
B) spreads from the original site.
C) does not metastasize.
D) never causes health problems.
E) can only arise in the brain, whereas a malignant tumor can arise anywhere in the body.

Answer 34

C) does not metastasize.

Question 35

34) Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent?
A) a drug that causes cells to divide at a right angle from their usual orientation
B) a drug that interferes with cellular respiration
C) a drug that prevents sister chromatids from separating at anaphase
D) a drug that prevents crossing over
E) a drug that prevents tetrad formation

Answer 35

C) a drug that prevents sister chromatids from separating at anaphase

Question 36

35) Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false?
A) Mitosis allows organisms to grow.
B) Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.
C) Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually.
D) Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues.
E) Mitosis allows organisms to regenerate lost parts.

Answer 36

B) Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.

Question 37

36) Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of 
A) homologous chromosomes. 
B) heterologous chromosomes. 
C) complementary chromosomes. 
D) polyploid chromosomes. 
E) parallel chromosomes.

Answer 37

A) homologous chromosomes.

Question 38

37) A pair of male human sex chromosomes is most like 
A) a pair of blue jeans. 
B) a bride and groom. 
C) a knife, fork, and spoon. 
D) identical twins. 
E) the letters of the alphabet.

Answer 38

B) a bride and groom.

Question 39

38) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes.
B) All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages.
C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D) A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.
E) A haploid cell has half the chromosomes of a diploid cell.

Answer 39

C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Question 40

39) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A typical body cell is called a somatic cell.
B) Gametes are haploid cells.
C) Somatic cells are diploid.
D) Gametes are made by mitosis.
E) A zygote is a fertilized egg.

Answer 40

D) Gametes are made by mitosis.

Question 41

40) During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur? 
A) interphase I 
B) prophase I 
C) interphase II 
D) prophase II 
E) metaphase I

Answer 41

B) prophase I

Question 42

41) Which of the following options correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?
A) It goes intact to one pole of the dividing cell.
B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
C) It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
D) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.
E) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in sister-chromosome pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.

Answer 42

B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.

Question 43

42) Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced.
B) Cells produced by mitosis are diploid, whereas cells produced by meiosis are haploid.
C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice.
D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.
E) Mitosis, but not meiosis, occurs in somatic cells.

Answer 43

D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.

Question 44

43) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair.
B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.
C) In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.
D) In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.
E) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I.

Answer 44

B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.

Question 45

44) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by 
A) prometaphase. 
B) interphase. 
C) prophase. 
D) telophase. 
E) anaphase

Answer 45

B) interphase.

Question 46

45) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and random fertilization are most like
A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker.
B) cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices.
C) alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet.
D) pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes.
E) stringing beads onto a string to make a necklace.

Answer 46

A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker.

Question 47

46) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of
A) gametes.
B) homologous chromosomes.
C) possible combinations of characteristics.
D) sex chromosomes.
E) points of crossing over.

Answer 47

C) possible combinations of characteristics.

Question 48

47) Which of the following statements regarding genetic diversity is false?
A) Genetic diversity is enhanced by random fertilization.
B) Genetic diversity is enhanced by independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I.
C) Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis of somatic cells.
D) Genetic diversity is enhanced by crossing over during prophase I of meiosis.
E) Genetic diversity is enhanced by random mutations of the DNA.

Answer 48

C) Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis of somatic cells.

Question 49

48) Karyotyping
A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II.
B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
C) examines points of crossing over.
D) reveals the results of independent orientation of chromosomes during meiosis I.
E) reveals the presence of cancerous genes.

Answer 49

B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number.

Question 50

49) A karyotype is most like
A) a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure.
B) a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle.
C) a necklace formed by stringing beads onto a string.
D) photographs of every couple at a high school prom.
E) the answer key to a multiple-choice exam.

Answer 50

D) photographs of every couple at a high school prom.

Question 51

50) Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false?
A) Trisomy 21 usually leads to Down syndrome.
B) A human embryo with an abnormal number of chromosomes is usually spontaneously aborted.
C) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States.
D) People with Down syndrome usually have a life span much shorter than normal.
E) Women with Down syndrome cannot reproduce.

Answer 51

E) Women with Down syndrome cannot reproduce.

Question 52

51) Nondisjunction occurs when
A) a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost.
B) chromosomes replicate too many times.
C) two chromosomes fuse into one.
D) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.
E) an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.

Answer 52

D) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.

Question 53

52) Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is false?
A) Nondisjunction in meiosis can affect autosomes and sex chromosomes.
B) In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.
C) The absence of a Y chromosome results in “femaleness.”
D) In general, a single Y chromosome is enough to produce “maleness.”
E) Women with a single X chromosome have Turner syndrome and are sterile.

Answer 53

B) In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.

Question 54

53) Which of the following types of organisms commonly demonstrates polyploidy? 
A) mammals 
B) reptiles 
C) flowering plants 
D) amphibians 
E) fish

Answer 54

C) flowering plants

Question 55

54) How many generations does it take to develop a new plant species by nondisjunction? 
A) one 
B) two 
C) ten 
D) twenty 
E) fifty

Answer 55

A) one

Question 56

55) Which of the following variations of the sentence "Where is the cat" is most like a chromosomal deletion? 
A) Where is cat? 
B) Where is the the cat? 
C) Where the is cat? 
D) Where is cat the the cat? 
E) Where is is is is the cat?

Answer 56

A) Where is cat?

Question 57

56) If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome, but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a(n) 
A) deletion. 
B) inversion. 
C) translocation. 
D) nondisjunction. 
E) reciprocal translocation.

Answer 57

B) inversion.

Question 58

57) Cancer is not usually inherited because
A) the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells.
B) people with cancer usually die before reproducing.
C) cancer typically causes disruptions of meiosis.
D) the causes of cancer are not usually genetic.
E) the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes.

Answer 58

A) the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells.

Question 59

SEE PICTURE
What type of cell is shown? 
A) animal cell in metaphase 
B) animal cell in telophase 
C) plant cell in metaphase 
D) plant cell in telophase 
E) plant cell in interphase

Answer 59

D) plant cell in telophase

Question 60

SEE GRAPH
According to the graph, at what maternal age does the incidence of Down syndrome begin to increase substantially? 
A) about 26 or 27 
B) about 31 or 32 
C) about 37 or 38 
D) about 42 or 43 
E) about 45 or 46

Answer 60

C) about 37 or 38

Question 61

SEE DIAGRAM
If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what best describes what just occurred?
A) normal binary fission
B) normal mitosis
C) normal meiosis
D) meiosis with nondisjunction in meiosis I
E) meiosis with nondisjunction in meiosis II

Answer 61

E) meiosis with nondisjunction in meiosis II

Question 62

Mr. and Mrs. Smith have three sons in elementary school. Two of their children are progressing normally, but their last son, Charles, has been much slower than his siblings at developing speech and language skills. His parents are concerned that he has a learning disability and decide to investigate further. Since some learning disabilities can be genetically based, their pediatrician recommends a chromosomal analysis.

The results show that Charles has a trisomy of the sex chromosomes, diagnosed as XYY, which is caused by nondisjunction in the formation of the father’s sperm. The nondisjunction resulted in an extra copy of the Y chromosome. The extra copy was passed on to Charles during fertilization. Most often, this chromosomal change causes no unusual physical features or medical problems, but those with trisomy of the sex chromosomes do have a higher than normal risk of delays in learning development.

1) During which stage of meiosis must this nondisjunction have occurred? 
A) anaphase I 
B) metaphase I 
C) metaphase II 
D) anaphase II 
E) prophase II

Answer 62

C) metaphase II

Question 63

Mr. and Mrs. Smith have three sons in elementary school. Two of their children are progressing normally, but their last son, Charles, has been much slower than his siblings at developing speech and language skills. His parents are concerned that he has a learning disability and decide to investigate further. Since some learning disabilities can be genetically based, their pediatrician recommends a chromosomal analysis.

The results show that Charles has a trisomy of the sex chromosomes, diagnosed as XYY, which is caused by nondisjunction in the formation of the father’s sperm. The nondisjunction resulted in an extra copy of the Y chromosome. The extra copy was passed on to Charles during fertilization. Most often, this chromosomal change causes no unusual physical features or medical problems, but those with trisomy of the sex chromosomes do have a higher than normal risk of delays in learning development.

2) If Charles gets married and starts a family, which of the following chromosomal abnormalities might be found in his children? 
A) XY 
B) XX 
C) XYY 
D) XO 
E) XXY

Answer 63

E) XXY