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Bio Exam Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is science

A

The observation, identification, experimental investigation, and theoretical explanation of natural phenomena

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2
Q

What is the scientific method

A

Standard approach practiced by scientists

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3
Q

Evolution

A

heritable change in a population of organisms from generation to generation

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4
Q

structure and function

A

structure determines function

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5
Q

information

A

Genetic material provides a blueprint for all of the above; offspring are similar to parents

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6
Q

Energy and matter

A

Energy is acquired from the environment and used to make molecules and maintain an organisms body

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7
Q

Systems

A

Interactions between parts create novel structures or functions, leading to emergency properties

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8
Q

hypothesis

A

A proposed explanation for natural phenomenon

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9
Q

theory

A

A broad explanation of some aspect of the natural world, backed by extensive evidence

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10
Q

Scientific method steps

A 
observation
question
hypothesis
experiment
analysis
conclusion
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11
Q

peer review process

A

The researcher
the editor
the reviewer

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12
Q

scientists behind covid sequencing

A

Dr. Zhang Yongzhen

Dr. Edward Holmes

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13
Q

Scientists behind the covid vaccines

A

Dr. Katalin Karliko
Dr. Andrew Weissman
Dr. Kizzmekia Corbett

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14
Q

population

A

a group of individuals of the same species inhabiting the same area; potential for interbreeding

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15
Q

Charles Darwin

A

proposed that all species of life descended from common ancestor
theory of natural selection

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16
Q

natural selection

A

The process which eliminates individuals that are less likely to survive in a particular environment. Species that adapt or traits have successful reproduction

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17
Q

variation in traits

A

heritable traits passed from parent to offspring; genetic

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18
Q

how do characteristics get changed in species overtime

A

mutations accumulate in genetic material overtime

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19
Q

vertical evolution

A

occurs within a lineage. the process whereby an ancestral species changes through time (without splitting) to become distinctively different, and therefore recognized as a new species; phyletic evolution.

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20
Q

Atavistic trait

A

an ancestral trait that reappears after having been lost through evolutionary change. Example: dolphins having hind limbs.

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21
Q

Horizontal gene transfer

A

is the non-sexual movement of genetic information between genomes. Incoming DNA or RNA can replace existing genes, or can introduce new genes into a genome.

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22
Q

cells

A

simplest, functional unit of a living organism

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23
Q

Cell theory

A
  • All living organisms are composed of one of more cells
  • Cells are the smallest unit of life
  • new cells come only prom pre-existing cells by cell divison
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24
Q

Who discovered the endoplasmic reticulum

A

Keith Porter

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25
Q

Plasma membrane

A

Barrier
attachment
cell communication

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26
Q

Nucleus

A

Genetic material

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27
Q

RNA

A

Ribonucleic acid

Single stranded

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28
Q

Ribosomes

A

Synthesizes polypeptides

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29
Q

endoplasmic reticulum

A

stores calcium needed for nerves

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30
Q

Rough ER

A

ribosomes-RNA- Site of protein synthesis

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31
Q

Smooth ER

A

Detoxification

Calcium storage

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32
Q

Cell membrane

A

Phospholipid bilayer

embedded with proteins

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33
Q

What is the three layers of a cell

A
  • plasma membrane
  • ACE-2 receptor binds to angiotensin- protein complex in plasma membrane
  • Cytoplasm
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34
Q

how does a virus enter the cell

A
  • Binds to ACE-2 receptor
  • viral genetic material (RNA)
  • hosts ribosomes (Make viral protein)
  • -Hosts endoplasmic reticulum (modifies viral proteins
  • hosts Golgi apparatus and (packages viral proteins)
  • Hosts cell membrane (releases new viruses into the body)
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35
Q

eukaryotic cell

A

internal compartmentalization

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36
Q

prokaryotic

A

lack of internal compartmentalization

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37
Q

plant cells

A

cell wall

chloroplasts

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38
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

processing, modification, sorting and secreting molecules produced in that cell

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39
Q

where is heritable change found

A

in a population through generations

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40
Q

what is information flow

A

expression of genetic material and heritable transmission to offspring

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41
Q

the nucleus of a cell contains what

A

DNA

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42
Q

what does DNA contain

A

hereditary material

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43
Q

what does RNA support

A

proteins calles histones

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44
Q

What is cytogenetics

A

the cytological approach to genetics, mainly involving microscopic studies of chromosomes

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45
Q

Transmission genetics

A

The study of mechanisms involved in the passage of genes from one generation to the nest

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46
Q

Population genetics

A

The study of variation at the genetic level among a group of individuals

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47
Q

Quantitive trait genetics

A

a quantitive trait is a measurable trait that shows continuous variation and cannot be classified into a few discrete classes

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48
Q

Molecular genetics

A

The study of the molecular processes underlying gene structure

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49
Q

epigenetic

A

The study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself

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50
Q

Genomics and bioinformatics

A

Study of an organisms entire compliment of genes, and use of high-performance computing to analyze sequence data

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51
Q

Four criteria necessary for genetic material

A

Information
Replication
Transmission
Variation

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52
Q

What are nucleotides

A

The building blocks of DNA and RNA

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53
Q

What is a “strand” of DNA

A

A linear polymer strand of DNA and RNA

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54
Q

What is a double helix

A

the two strands of DNA

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55
Q

What are chromosomes

A

DNA associated with an array of different proteins into a complex structure

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56
Q

What is a genome

A

The complete complement of genetic material in an organism

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57
Q

what is the difference between DNA and RNA

A

DNA is double stranded and base paired

RNA is single stranded and single stranded

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58
Q

What is Central Dogma

A

DNA replication

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59
Q

What is the process of central Dogma

A 
DNA
Transcrition
mRNA 
Translation
Polypeptide
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60
Q

What is the process of Information Flow

A

DNA
RNA
protein

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61
Q

What is a chromosome made of

A

Genes which are made of DNA

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62
Q

what does the karyotype do

A

Reveals number, size, and form of chromosomes in an actively dividing cell

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63
Q

how many pairs of sex chromosomes do humans have

A

one haploid pair (n)

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64
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a human have

A

23 diploid pairs (2n)

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65
Q

pair of chromosomes that are not identical are called

A

homologous pairs

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66
Q

Autosomes

A

each homolog nearly identical in size and genetic composition

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67
Q

What happens in G1 phase

A

Cell growth, passes restriction point, cell becomes committed to enter S phase

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68
Q

What happens in S phase

A

chromosomes replicate and are called sister chromatids

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69
Q

what happens in G2 phase

A

Cell synthesizes proteins for mitosis and cytokinesis

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70
Q

What is cytokinesis

A

follows mitosis to divide the cytoplasm into two daughter cells

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71
Q

How does a cell decide to divide

A

External factors: environmental conditions, signalling molecules
Internal factors: cell cycle control molecules, checkpoints

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72
Q

What are checkpoint proteins called

A

Cyclins or cdks

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73
Q

Where are chromatids tightly associated at

A

centromere

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74
Q

what is the kinetochore

A

centre of chromatid

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75
Q

mitotic spindle

A

Responsible for organizing and sorting the chromosome during mitosis.

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76
Q

What is the spindle formed from

A

microtubules

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77
Q

What are microtubules formed from

A

tubulin

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78
Q

Three types of microtubules

A

~Astral microtubules- position spindle in cell
~Polar microtubules- separates two poles
~kinetochore microtubules- attached to kinetochores bound to centromeres

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79
Q

What happens in prophase

A

chromatids condense into highly compacted structures

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80
Q

pro metaphase

A

mitotic spindle is fully formed during this phase. centrosome move apart and democrats the two poles

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81
Q

what happens metaphase

A

pairs of sister chromatids are aligned along a halfway between the poles called the metaphase plate

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82
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

each individual chromatid is linked to only one pole by kinetochore microtubules

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83
Q

what happens in telophase

A

chromosomes have reached their respective poles and decondense

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84
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

two nuclei are segregated into separate daughter cells

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85
Q

how is the cytokinesis process different between animal and plant cells

A

animal cells form a cleavage furrow and plant cells form a cell plate

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86
Q

how does the meiosis process start

A

haploid cells are produced from cell that was originally diploid

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87
Q

what are the two key differences in meiosis

A

homologous pairs form a bivalent or tetrad

crossing over

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88
Q

What is a bivalent trend in meiosis

A

when two homologous chromosomes begin synapsis and form a bivalent

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89
Q

What is the process of crossing over

A

when a bivalent bond crosses over and forms chiasma

90
Q

What happens in prophase 1 in meiosis

A

chromosomes condense, bivalents form

91
Q

pro metaphase 1

A

chromatids attach to kinetochore microtubules

92
Q

metaphase 1

A

bivalent organized as a double row

93
Q

anaphase 1

A

segregation of homologs occurs

connection between bivalents break but sister chromatids stay connected together

94
Q

What happens in telophase 1

A

Sister chromatids have reached their respective poles

95
Q

Are the cells formed after cytokinesis in meiosis haploid or diploid

A

Haploid

96
Q

are animal species diploid or haploid dominant

A

Diploid

97
Q

Which species are commonly haploid dominant

A

Fungi

98
Q

what is a sporophyte

A

multicellular diploid

99
Q

what is a gametophyte

A

multicellular haploid

100
Q

What is the term we use to describe the normal number of chromosomes

A

Euploid

101
Q

What does polyploid refer to

A

three or more sets of chromosomes

102
Q

what does aneuploidy refer to

A

Abnormal number of a particular chromosome

103
Q

what is the term used when chromosomes do not sort properly

A

nondisjunction

104
Q

Consequences of aneuploidy

A

This imbalance disrupts cell function

105
Q

what phase are chromosomes replicated in

A

S phase

106
Q

a mutation occurs the gene for G1 cyclin, such it is unable to bind to its CDK. How will this affect the cell cycle

A

The cell will be stuck in G1 phase and will not advance through the cell cycle

107
Q

Prokaryotic cells are divided by _______

A

binary fission

108
Q

How are sister chromatids connected

A

cohesions proteins

109
Q

Simple mendelian inheritance

A

Pattern of traits is determined by a pair of alleles that display a dominant/ recessive relationship and are located on the autosome

110
Q

X linked inheritance

A

pattern of traits located on the X chromosome

111
Q

incomplete dominance

A

pattern that occurs when the heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate to the phenotype of the homozygote. whit and red flower produce a pink flower

112
Q

codominance

A

pattern that occurs when the heterozygote expresses both alleles simultaneously

113
Q

Epistasis

A

A type of gene interaction in which the alleles of one gene mask the effects of an allele of another gene

114
Q

continuous variation

A

A pattern in which the offspring display a continuous range of phenotype

115
Q

how many genes does each character have

A

two

116
Q

how many alleles are in a gene

A

two

117
Q

what phase do the homologous pair split into separate sister chromatids

A

metaphase I in meiosis

118
Q

when do the sister chromatids separate

A

metaphase II in meiosis

119
Q

What is a locus

A

the physical location of a gene on a chromosome

120
Q

What is a species do not involve sex chromosomes

A

Bees are haploid-diploid

Male is haploid and female is diploid

121
Q

in a heterozygote what allele does not affect the phenotype

A

recessive

122
Q

What is pleiotropy

A

A mutation in a single gene can have multiple effects on an individual’s phenoptype
genes are almost always pleiotropic

123
Q

how can a flower become pink from a red and white flower

A

neither allele is dominant in heterozygote

124
Q

what non mendelian trait is shown when a black chicken and a white chicken produce a white chicken with black speckles

A

codominance

125
Q

a type of gene that depends on another gene to be expressed

A

epistasis

126
Q

What represses gene activity

A

DNA methylation

127
Q

what proteins support DNA and condense it within the cell nucleus

A

Histones

128
Q

what does methylation do to the gene

A

prevents transcription

129
Q

species can have the same genotype and different phenotypes, what is a common reason for this

A

methylation

130
Q

when a multicellular organism is haploid and only the gametes are diploid

A

haploid dominant

131
Q

what does autosomal dominant

A

every affected person has an effected parent

132
Q

autosomal recessive

A

not expressed in all generations . two unaffected people can produce affected offspring

133
Q

Autosomal dominant phenotype

A

Normal allele is recessive, allele with mutation is dominant

134
Q

X linked recessive traits

A

phenotype determined by a recessive allele on the X chromosome. trait shown in males

135
Q

X linked dominant

A

Affected males pass the condition to all their daughter but none of their sons

136
Q

what is demography

A

Defining how a population is structured or any features

137
Q

What is a population

A

group of interbreeding individual s occupying the same habitat at the same time

138
Q

Population ecology

A

studies factors affecting population size and how they change over space and time

139
Q

What is a niche

A

resources that species need to survive that other species can use or be used for

140
Q

dispersion pattern; clumped

A

most common, resources tend to be clustered, social behaviour may promote this pattern

141
Q

dispersion pattern: uniform

A

competition may cause this pattern

142
Q

dispersion pattern; random

A

there is an abundance of resources for these species so they scatter or follow others from the same species and randomly choose their habitats

143
Q

what is specialization

A

a species that only feed on one species

144
Q

what causes massive growth in a population

A

irruption, it is a growth strategy

145
Q

allopatric speciation

A

species can emerge if they do not breed with other species

146
Q

sympatric speciation

A

interbreeding species

147
Q

semelparity

A

produce all offspring in single reproductive event

148
Q

iteroparity

A

repeated reproduction at intervals throughout the lifecycle

149
Q

seasonal iteroparity

A

distinct breeding seasons

150
Q

continuous iteroparity

A

reproduce repeatedly at any time of the year

151
Q

type I survivorship curve pattern

A

rate of loss is low and individuals die later in life

152
Q

type II survivorship curve pattern

A

uniform death rate

153
Q

type III survivorship curve pattern

A

rate of loss is high and die sooner in life

154
Q

exponential growth

A

j shaped curve. resources not limiting, prodigious growth

155
Q

logistic growth

A

grows exponentially at one point then reaches the carrying capacity

156
Q

density independent factors

A

these factors will influence the population no matter what size

157
Q

inverse density dependant factors

A

as the factor gets bigger the influence it has on the population gets smaller

158
Q

density dependant factors

A

influence gets bigger as population gets bigger

159
Q

r selected species

A

high growth rate but poor competitive ability, short lifespan

160
Q

k selected species

A

stable populations adapted to exist at or near carrying capacity, long lifespan

161
Q

what is a fixed action pattern

A

instinct that does not change. An innate instinct response

162
Q

what is a sign stimulus

A

: Something that triggers the initial response. Whatever factor that initiates the response

163
Q

what is habituation

A

simplest form of learning

164
Q

what is non associative learning

A

-repeated stimulus
-change in response
done without positive or negative reinforcement

165
Q

associative learning

A

behaviour is changed through a stimulus and response to the stimulus

166
Q

classical conditioning

A

an involuntary response becomes associated with a stimulus that did not originally elicit the response

167
Q

operant conditioning

A

animals behaviour reinforced by a consequence. Positive or negative reinforcement

168
Q

cognitive learning

A

problem solving

169
Q

what is the critical period of learning

A

period of development where species develop irreversible patterns of behaviour

170
Q

kinesis

A

movement in response to a stimulus but not direct toward or away from source

171
Q

taxis

A

more directed movement
positive is towards the taxis
negative is away from stimulus

172
Q

geotaxis
heliotaxis
phototaxis
Anemotaxis

A
  • moving down in The earth
  • the sun having an effect on direction
  • involves light
  • changing upwards to the wind
173
Q

pilotting

A

using near shore landmarks to remember

174
Q

orientation

A

use things like a compass to maintain a barring

175
Q

navigation

A

adjusting their course to seek the same target from a different direction

176
Q

what chemical is used for chemical communication

A

pheromones

177
Q

altruism

A

doing something good to just do it

178
Q

what mating system causes sexual dimorphism

A

polygyny- one male + many females

179
Q

what is polyandry

A

one female with several males

180
Q

imprinted genes are

A

usually methylated and not expressed

181
Q

what is the organization of genetic material starting from the simplest

A

nucleotide, DNA, gene, chromosome, genome

182
Q

when a single gene mutation can have phenotypic effects at multiple stages of development

A

pleiotropic

183
Q

prokaryotic cells are characterized by

A

a cell wall, ribosomes which are involved in polypeptide synthesis

184
Q

at which phase of mitosis are chromosomes first visible

A

prophase

185
Q

a modification of a gene or chromosome that occurs during gamete formation or early development that permanently alters the expression of that gene for the lifetime of the individual

A

genomic imprinting

186
Q

the best way to distinguish epigenetic effect

A

confirm that the change in gene expression is passed from cell to cell but does not involve change in the DNA sequence

187
Q

how are sister chromatids connects

A

cohesion proteins

188
Q

what function does the ACE-2 receptor normally have

A

binds the hormone angiotensin and helps regulate blood pressure and participates in wound healing

189
Q

what is an ecosystem

A

all the organisms in a particular region and the environment in which they live

190
Q

what is a community

A

a community refers to all the species that inhabit a common environment and interact with one another

191
Q

what is exploitation competition

A

organisms compete indirectly through the consumption of a limited resource

192
Q

interference competition

A

individuals interact directly with one another by physical force or intimidation

193
Q

what is allelopathy

A

extreme asymmetric competition between plants

194
Q

resource partitioning

A

differentiation of niches, both in space and time, that enables similar species to coexist in a community

195
Q

what is character displacement

A

Character displacement is the phenomenon of species at the same trophic level evolving through natural selection in response to each other because of some costly interaction.

196
Q

what is mullein mimicry

A

noxious species converge to reinforce warning

197
Q

what is Batesian mimicry

A

palatable mimic resembles unpalatable model

198
Q

what are the two types of defences that plants use

A

mechanical defences and secondary metabolites

199
Q

how do plant prevent herbivory

A

host plant resistance

200
Q

what is commensalism

A

one member derives a benefit while the other is unaffected

201
Q

what is defensive mutualism

A

one specie receives food or shelter in return for defence

202
Q

bottom up factors include

A

plant quality and abundance herbivores and the predators that feed on them
food limitations

203
Q

top down factors

A

predators and parasites control herbivore or plant prey

204
Q

what is resistance in ecological communities

A

the ability of a community to tolerate environmental disturbances

205
Q

what is resilience in ecological communities

A

a measure of the speed in which a community returns to its original state following environmental disturbance

206
Q

what is succession

A

community change

207
Q

energy flow

A

within trophic levels, energy is lost to maintenance and between trophic levels, energy is lost to imperfect efficiency of transfer.

208
Q

top down factors that can control the population sizes of plants or animals includes which of the following factors

A

the density of herbivores

209
Q

rats learning to press a lever to receive food is an example of

A

operant conditioning

210
Q

what is the main difference between habituation and conditioning

A

habituation involves a stimulus with no association, while conditioning involves a stimulus with an association

211
Q

behaviours that appear to be genetically programmed are called

A

innate

212
Q

kinesis is

A

the cessation of movement in response to a stimulus

213
Q

top down factors that can control the population sizes of plants or animals include which of the following factors

A

the density of herbivores

214
Q

pariatisim usually affects populations in a______ manner

A

density dependant

215
Q

chemicals are used to attract mates are called

A

pheromones

216
Q

why is a random dispersal pattern quite rare in nature

A

because resources in nature are rarely randomly spaced

217
Q

most animals seek to maximize the energy they obtain while minimizing their

A

energy expenditure and risk of prediation

218
Q

the per capita growth rate of a population is best defined as

A

per capita birth rate minus per capita death rate

219
Q

population growth typically slows down when populations reach carrying capacity because

A

resource limitation decreases birth rates

220
Q

what is a factor that drives animal migration

A

seasonal availability of food

221
Q

organisms that produce repeatedly are said to be

A

iteroparous

Biology 1013 (9 decks)

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