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DIT Biochem > Bio 0 > Flashcards

Bio 0 Flashcards

1
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of tendonitis?

A

Fluoroquinolones.

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2
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of red man syndrome?

A

Vancomycin.

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3
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of gray baby syndrome?

A

Chloramphenicol.

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4
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of cartilage damage in children?

A

Fluoroquinolones.

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5
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of nephrotoxicity (esp. With cephalosporins), ototoxicity (esp. W/ loop diuretics)?

A

Aminoglycosides.

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6
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clindamycin, Ampicillin.

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7
Q

Drug of choice for gonorrhea.

A

Ceftriaxone.

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8
Q

Drug class for Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

A

Tetracyclines.

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9
Q

Used to treat Giardia lamblia.

A

Metronidazole.

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10
Q

Can be used to treat MRSA as well as C.diffile colitis.

A

Vancomycin.

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11
Q

Treatment for G(-) rods in patients with renal insufficiency.

A

Aztreonam.

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12
Q

BIG GUN (effective vs. Gram (+) cocci, G(-) rods, and anaerobes).

A

Meropenem or imipenem with cilastatin.

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13
Q

Prophylaxis in AIDS patients against P.pneumonia.

A

TMP-SMX, dapsone and then pentamidine.

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14
Q

Used as solo prophylaxis against TB.

A

Isoniazid.

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15
Q

Which antibiotics are safe during pregnancy?

A

Penicillins and aminopenicillins, Piperacillin, Cephalosporins, Macrolides (erythromcyin and azithromycin), Metronidazole (after the first trimester), Nitrofurantoin.

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16
Q

Which structures form Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Top: Inferior epigastric artery. Medial: Lateral border of rectus abdominus. Lateral: Inguinal ligament.

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17
Q

Which antibiotic Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase?

A

Chloramphenicol.

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18
Q

Which antibiotic Binds 50S, blocking translocation.

A

Macrolides, lincomycin, clindamycin, stretogramins.

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19
Q

Which antibiotic binds 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA?

A

Tetracyclines.

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20
Q

Which antibiotic Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase?

A

Rifampin.

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21
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase?

A

Fluoroquinolones.

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22
Q

Which antibiotic Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase.

A

Trimethoprim.

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23
Q

What are the different causes of post-op fever?

A

[Wind, Water, Wound, Walking, Wonder drugs]

Pneumonia, UTI, Wound infection, DVT.

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24
Q

A patient presents complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant that he can point with one finger. The area is tender to light touch, and pain is worsened when the patient is asked to raise his arms above his head. What is most likely this patient’s problem?

A

Musculoskeletal pain. This is not visceral pain because you cannot point it with one finger.

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25
Q

For which organisms can Tetracyclines be used for?

A

[VACUUM THE BEDROOM]
Vibro cholerae, Acne, Chlamydia, Ureoplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Tularemia, H.pylori, Borrelia burgdorferi, Rickettsiae rickettsii.

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26
Q

For which organisms can we use Macrolides?

A

[PUS]
Pneumonias (Legionella pneumophila, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae). URIs (Group A Strep). STDs (Gonorrhea and chlamydia).

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27
Q

For which organisms can we use 2nd gen. Cephalosporins?

A

H.flu, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Proteus mirabilis, E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Serratia. And G(+) cocci that are covered as well.

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28
Q

A 25-yo. Pregnant woman in her third trimester has a normal BP when standing and sitting. When supine, her BP drops to 90/50 mmHg. What is the diagnosis?

A

Compression of the IVC.

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29
Q

What drugs can be used to reverse neuromuscular blockade?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine).

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in Newborn to 6months?

A

Group B strep, E.coli, Listeria monocytogenes.

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in 6m to 6y?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemonphilus influenzae, Enteroviruses.

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in 6y to 60y?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Enteroviruses, HSV.

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33
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in +60y?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, G(-) rods, Listeria monocytogenes.

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34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dantrolene

A

Prevents the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle.

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35
Q

What substances Inihibit the reuptake of norepinephrine?

A

Cocaine, Tricyclic antidepressants.

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36
Q

What is the classic triad of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Seizures, Intellectual disability, Angiofibromas.

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37
Q

What cell type proliferates during lung damage?

A

Type II pneumocytes.

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38
Q

What is the most common cause of Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Thyroidectomy.

39
Q

What is the most common cause of Metastatic disease to the brain?

A

[Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia]

Lung and Brain. Skin (melanoma). Kidney (RCC). GI tract tumors.

40
Q

What is the most common cause of Lysosomal storage disease?

A

Gaucher disease.

41
Q

What is the most common cause of Myocarditis.

A

Coxsackievirus, echovirus.

42
Q

What amniotic fluid measurement is indicative of fetal lung maturity?

A

Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio more than 2.0.

43
Q

What substances stimulate the release of norepinephrine from neurons?

A

Calcium. Amphetamines, Ephedrine, Tyramine.

44
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria Causes cat scratch fever?

A

Bartonella.

45
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi.

46
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes recurrent fever from variable surface antigens?

A

Borrelia recurrentis.

47
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes bloody diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter.

48
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii.

49
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis.

50
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes leptospirosis?

A

Leptospira spp.

51
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria causes cellulitis and osteomyelitis from cat or dog bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida.

52
Q

What are the findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral UMN signs below the lesion. Ipsilateral DC loss of information below the lesion. Contralateral pain and temperature loss at 2-3 segments below the lesion. Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss at the level of the lesion. LMN signs (flaccid paralysis).

53
Q

What drug prevents the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle?

A

Dantrolene.

54
Q

What part of the basal ganglia, if lesioned, causes hemiballismus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus.

55
Q

What is the difference between open angle glaucoma and acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Open angle glaucoma: Common, insidious form; almost always bilateral, risk factors are more than 40yo, black, diabetes. Early stages: asymptomatic. Late stages: areas of reduced/absent vision; contraction of visual field (peripheral to central). Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma: Emergency, abrupt onset of pain, nausea, colored halos, rainbows around light, red teary eye with hazy cornea and fixed, mid-dilated pupil (not reactive to light) that is firm to palpation.

56
Q

What are the retroperitoneal abdominal structures?

A

[A DUCK PEAR]
Adrenal glands, Duodenum (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts), Ureters, Colon (descending and ascending), Kidneys, Pancreas, Esophagus, Aorta, Rectum.

57
Q

Which cytokines inhibit Th1 cells?

A

IL-10.

58
Q

Outline the flow of aqueous humor?

A

Formed in capillary bed in Cilliary body, goes to Posterior chamber, then flowing to the angle formed between the lens and Iris diagphragm, moving then into the anterior chamber, and finally reabsorbed into the canal of Schlemm.

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

A

Antagonist at the dopamine D2 receptor. Also a serotonin agonist. It increase contractility in the GI tract.

60
Q

What is the landmark for a pudendal nerve block?

A

Palpate the ischial spine to direct the nerve block. Used for pain control in vaginal delivery.

61
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in carbohydrate digestion?

A

Oligosaccharide hydrolase. Found in the brush-border.

62
Q

What vitamin deficiency results from Hartnup disease?

A

Deficiency of tryptophan, which results in Niacin deficiency.

63
Q

For what condition is dantrolene useful?

A

Malignant hyperthermia, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

64
Q

What are the possible etiologies of acute pancreatitis?

A

[BAD HHITS]
Biliary causes, Alcohol, Drugs, Hypertriglyceridemia, Hypercalcemia, Idiopathic, Trauma (including ERCP), Scorpion sting.

65
Q

What cell types releases renin?

A

JG cells.

66
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Diarrhea, Steatorrhea, Malabsorption and weight loss, deficiency of the fat-soluble vitamins (D,A,E,K).

67
Q

What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

Muscle rigidity, Hyperthermia, Cardiovascular collapse due to autonomic instability.

68
Q

What artery prevents a horseshoe kidney from ascending in the abdomen?

A

Inferior Mesenteric Artery.

69
Q

What are the classic manifestations of Guillain-Bare Syndrome?

A

Symmetric ascending muscle weakness, Facial paralysis, Autonomic dysfunction. Preceded by Campylobacter or herpes infection.

70
Q

What are the risk factors for developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B,C. Hemochromatosis. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, Hepatic adenoma, Cirrhosis.

71
Q

What are the symptoms of TCA overdose?

A

[Try Cs of TCA] Convulsion, Coma, Cardiotoxicity. There is also Hyperpyrexia and respiratory depression.

72
Q

Describe what light reflexes will be seen in both eyes if the right optic nerve is damaged prior to the pretectal nucleus.

A

AKA Afferent Pupillary Defect. Shine light into the right eye: No constriction of either pupils. Shine light into the left eye: Both pupils constrict.

73
Q

What are the major ECG changes seen with a myocardial infarction?

A

ST elevation more than 1mm in 2 contiguous leads. T wave inversion. New LBBB. New Q waves (more than 1 block wide or 1/3 the height of the total QRS complex). These changes are only seen in 50% of patients.

74
Q

What are the clinical features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

AKA NMS, Delirum and mental status changes. Autonomic instability (tachycardia), Muscle rigidity, Myoglobinuria, Hyperpyrexia.

75
Q

What are the presenting dermatologic findings with primary syphilis? Secondary? Tertiary?

A

Primary: Painless chancre. Secondary: Maculopapular rash on the palms and soles, Condylomata lata. Tertiary: Gummas.

76
Q

Which antihypertensives are safe to use in pregnancy?

A

[Hypertensive Mom Loves Nifedipine]

Hydralazine, Methyldopa, Labetalol, Nifedipine.

77
Q

What important secretory products are secreted from G cells in the GI tract?

A

Gastrin.

78
Q

What important secretory products are secreted from I cells in the GI tract?

A

CCK.

79
Q

What important secretory products are secreted from S cells in the GI tract?

A

Secretin.

80
Q

What important secretory products are secreted from D cells in the GI tract?

A

Somatostatin.

81
Q

What important secretory products are secreted from Parietal cells in the GI tract?

A

Gastric acid and IF.

82
Q

What is the pathogenesis of glaucoma?

A

Obstruction that prevents the reabsorption of aqueous humor at the canal of schlemm, increasing intraocular pressure, that leads atrophy of the optic cells.

83
Q

What infectious agent is in the cause based on the lab finding of G(-) rods in a neonate w/ pneumonia.

A

E.coli.

84
Q

What infectious agent is in the cause based on the lab finding of G(+) cocci in a neonate w/ pneumonia?

A

Group B strep.

85
Q

What infectious agent is in the cause based on the lab finding of G(+) cocci in clusters?

A

Staph aureus.

86
Q

What is the classic presentation aortic dissection? What chest x-ray finding is a possible sign for aortic dissection? What category of BP medication is preferred in the treatment of aortic dissection?

A

Tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. Mediastinal widening. Use Beta blockers.

87
Q

Which cytokines inhibits Th2 cells?

A

Interferon-gamma.

88
Q

What is the skin lesion finding associated with Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Black eschar.

89
Q

What are common causes of ARDS?

A

Shock, Infection, Toxic gas inhalation, acute pancreatitis, Aspiration, Heroin overdose, High [O2].

90
Q

Describe what light reflexes will be seen in both eyes if the right occulomotor nerve is damaged.

A

Efferent defect: right eye will not respond to light shown in either eye. But left eye will constrict when shown in either eye.

91
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for eosinophilia?

A

[DNAAACP]

Drugs, Neoplasm, Atopic disease, Addison disease, Acute interstitial nephritis, Collagen vascular disease, Parasites.

92
Q

What substances act on smooth muscle myosin light-chain kinase? How does this affect blood pressure?

A

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers. Epinephrine. Prostaglandin E2. They relax vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation, decreasing BP.

93
Q

What antibiotic causes the SE of Teeth discoloration?

A

Tetracyclines.

DIT Biochem (19 decks)

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