BIG-89 Flashcards
Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility.
The captain and dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight. They shall determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic and airway facilities.
When is an alternate required?
123 - 1500/2 MMOISTRS 3585
How do we compute landing distance? Normal procedures. Alternate procedure.
AWP, TLR or QRH for abnormal
Explain method 1 vs method 2. Standard strategy vs Obstacle. Procedures for both. Where would we see it listed?
- Method 1 is a standard strategy (1000/5)
- Method 2 is an Obstacle strategy (2000/5) and has points and Alternates. Listed on release.
- If T/O Alternate is required it must be Method 1
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Explain Ground Speed mini.
Aircraft maintains Ground speed regardless of the wind.
Preliminary Cockpit Prep:
a. What is the minimum battery voltage and what does that voltage ensure?
b. What indications do you get when performing the APU fire test without AC power?
c. Reference b above, what additional indications do you get when AC power is available?
A) 25.5 volts minimum to ensure a
charge above 50%.
B) • APU FIRE pb-sw lighted red
• SQUIB light and DISCH light on
C) APU FIRE warning on ECAM + CRC + MASTER WARN light (if AC power available)If brake accumulator pressure is out of green band, how can it be charged?
By turning On yellow HYD pump. ( make sure ramp is clear)
At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow electric hydraulic pump. Will this action pressurize the green hydraulic system?
Yellow and green hydraulic systems are pressurized from the yellow electric
pump.
How do you perform an alternate brake check?
• Y ELEC PUMP. . . . . . . . .CHECK OFF • CHOCKS . . . . . . . .CHECK IN PLACE • PARKING BRAKE . . . . . . .OFF • BRAKE PEDALS . . . . . . PRESS max pressure must be between 2000 and 2700 psi. • BRAKE PEDALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . RELEASE • PARKING BRAKE . . . . . . . . . . . .ON
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What is the minimum engine oil quantity for flight?
11 quarts + 1/2 quart per every hour of flight
When performing the brake check during taxi, the FO announces “pressure zero.” This indicates that…
Green pressure has taken over Yellow pressure.
During single engine taxi, the # 2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?
3 minutes after start-up.
• To avoid thermal shock
• Must TO on inner fuel pumps
- Start-up is 1 min (2min on NEO)
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What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?
ENGINE ANTI ICE must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing
conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40°C. ENGINE ANTI ICE must be ON during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40°C.
What ways can you get a valid W and B?
1) AWP (Aerodata)
2) Compute generated (Aerodata)
3) Manual read back (Manual w and b)
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When is a TO alternate required?
When wx at the departure airport is below Cat 1 landing mins for that airport
What is the time and distance for a TO alternate?
Maximum time of 1+00 (normal cruise speed, single engine, still air) and a maximum distance of 330 nm may be used.
When is the A/P required for an approach?
When the weather is less than 4000 RVR (3/4 mile) and the autopilot is available for
use, the approach must be coupled.
When is an auto-land required?
- the ATIS-reported RVR/visibility is at or below 2400 RVR or 1/2 sm,
- a CAT II or CAT III runway is available,
- the aircraft is autoland capable, and
- both crewmembers are trained.
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In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?
F- Flaps Full (3 or full on A321)
A- Alpha Prot active
T- Thrust lever > MCT
S- Sec 1 and 3 fault
E- Elevator L or R fault
A- Alpha floor
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What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?
• Optimum Sideslip
- In the event of the engine failure during the T/O or on Go around, this sideslip index changes to Blue. When this index is centered with the role index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for optimum performance.
If you lose the Blue Hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT available?
No. RAT pressurizes the blue system that runs emergency generator
Is alpha floor available in Alternate Law? Direct Law?
No
Why should the Captain wait to call for the “after start” checklist until after visually confirming that the tow bar has been disconnected?
Some Airplanes steering is on Yellow HYD system. When you do single engine taxi, part of the flow is to turn on Elec Yellow HYD to ON. That might engage the steering.
What color is the “NW STRG DISC”?
A) Green with both engines off
B) Amber with one or both engines running
Do you have A/Skid if you lose your normal braking?
You might have Anti-Skid only if ANTI-SKID and N/W STRG switched ON
What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS Bus if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100kts? What about below 100 kts?
- RAT
* DC BATT bus connects (down too 50 kts)
What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the ramp?
Little or none above idle. It is not recommended to exceed 40% N1 in congested ramp areas.
How do you get out of “TOGA LOCK” triggered by “A FLOOR”?
Disconnect A/TRH
What flight control is left when in mechanical back up law?
1) Pitch- trim wheel
2) Rudder pedals
(Thrust levers working from PMA)
If the pilot manually tunes a freq thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?
Yes, FMGC wont auto tune until you clear selected frequency
What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?
F- FWC (Flight warning computer)
F- FCU (Flight control unit)
A- Autopilot
T- Transponder
P- PFD’s (2) (Primary Flight Display)
A- ADR’s (2) (Air Data Reference)
D- DMC’s (2) (Display Management Computer)
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What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?
1) RNP 1 (for RNAV 1 sids)
2) FD and/or AP
3) FMGC nav database
4) Be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance
no later than 500 ft AFE
What is the required response to “SINK RATE” aural warning?
Adjust pitch attitude and thrust to silence the alert.
How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less than ¾ mi, or RVR 4000?
Autopilot
How must an approach be conducted when visibility is ½ mi or RVR 2400 ft or less?
Autoland
What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?
- Dispatch or Flight Release
- Flight Plan
- Latest available Weather report
- NOTAM Reports
- Performance information
- Weight and Balance Manifest
What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning light during CAT II/III approach?
Execute missed approach
How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?
EMERGENCY PREPARATION
• Call F/A’s using EMERG call button
T : Type of emergency.
E : Evacuation. (Do we prep the cabin?)
S : Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated. (3 times)
T : Time remaining until landing (synchronize watches).
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What are the maneuvering speeds in the Airbus? Green dot, S, F for selected flap position?
O: Green dot speed. Engine out operating speed in clean configuration. (L/D Max)
F: Minimum speed at which the flaps may be retracted at takeoff. (On Approach it’s a Target speed.)
S: Minimum speed at which the slats may be retracted at takeoff. ( On Approach is config Flaps 1 target speed.)
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What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?
500/500/500
What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?
Check ON and STBY NAV lights out. Ensure HF and AM lights are extinguished.
When is an exterior inspection required?
Before and after each flight
When is a DDA required?
Non-precision approach (Managed/selected)
While conducting an ECAM procedure, what are the 5 things the Pilot Flying is responsible for?
– thrust levers – control of flight path and airspeed – aircraft configuration (request configuration change) – navigation – communications
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Who is the pilot flying on the ground?
Captain is
Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?
Yes. 1000/3
How long is the aircraft airworthiness signoff good for?
8 days
Who normally performs the Engine Fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?
Captain
When do we use the flight path vector/director for approaches?
- MANAGED / SELECTED
- SELECTED / SELECTED non-precision approaches.
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If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?
• In Flight- No Unless CA judges it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight
• On Ground- Do not re-engage: – Fuel pump C/Bs of any fuel tank - The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/Bs provided the action is coordinated with Maintenance and the cause of the tripped C/B has been identified.
When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?
- Successful resets must be entered into the aircraft logbook as “CR” (Computer Reset) items.
- If a computer/system cannot be successfully reset it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a discrepancy.
An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which minimums can F9 use?
• Use published LNAV / VNAV minimums whenever applicable.
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What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?
- PF: “PULL STANDARD” and STATE ALTITUDE PASSING
- PM: “STANDARD PULLED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
- PF: “PUSH QNH (QNH setting)” and STATE ALTITUDE PASSING
- PM: “QNH (QNH setting) PUSHED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
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First flight of the day, the electric system is supplied with ac power, is the bat voltage check required?
No
Does bat 1 and 2 need to be in auto for an APU start?
Yes
During cockpit prep, setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and 2?
+/- 20 feet.
MAXIMUM DIFFERENCES BETWEEN
ALTITUDE INDICATIONS at FL390
- 130’ on PFD
- 445’ between STBY or ISIS
- 195’ on PFD if using ADR3
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During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?
Engines will start regardless of the thrust lever position. Unless thrust levers are
at IDLE, thrust will rapidly increase to the corresponding thrust lever position,
causing a hazardous situation.
After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?
Run the engine at idle for 5 minutes. If the leak disappears during those 5 minutes, the aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action. If the leak is still present after 5 minutes,
maintenance action is required before flight.
During engine start, the electric power supply is interrupted, what is our action?
Abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, perform a 30 second dry crank.
When is a full alignment of the ADIRS required?
1) Before the first flight of the day
2) Crew change
3) All international and Alaska flights
4) Flight in Class 2 airspace.
5) When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route
6) When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours
After landing when do we perform an IRS performance check? What are the limits?
• After:
- International or Alaska flight
- Flown in Class II Airspace
Parking flow (Vol2 3.20 Pg. 4)
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Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?
1) 3 outboard leading edge slats of each wing
2) Engine air intakes
(Tail is not heated)
What is the lowest RVR you could use for takeoff from DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?
5/5/5 For F9 ops
What is the definition of marginal weather?
Weather is considered “marginal” if wx within…
• Dest Mins (Cat 1) within 100 or 1/2
• Derived Alt Mins within 100 or 1/2
(Marginal wx requires second Alternate)
What does “RNAV 1” mean?
requires a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the total flight time (RNP 1.0).
How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?
On the PROG page (MCDU)
When may we fly to a published MDA?
Never. DDA must be computed by adding 50’ to a published MDA
If you were preparing for a CAT IIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?
No. Use the CAT III chart
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
- DISPATCHER
* Captain can only delay it
In case of a Dual Engine Failure, what action do you apply first: ECAM or QRH?
QRH First and ECAM if time permits
For abnormal procedures during take-off, which checklist is read first: After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal Checklist?
After Take Off first
When may a single engine auto-land be done, and in what configuration?
- The flight crew may use emergency authority
* Config Full
When do you select flaps full on a single engine approach?
Do not extend Flaps Full until established on a final descent to an assured landing.
What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?
Mode changes should be confirmed by calling the color when appropriate
(e.g. BLUE, MAGENTA).
When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?
At DA when approach lights insight
What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non-precision approach?
1) Callout “Landing”
2) AP OFF
3) FD’s OFF
What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?
Immediately release the PARKING BRK handle to restore braking with pedals.
Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?
At least one of the pilot duty stations shall be manned any time the parking brake is released, unless at the discretion of maintenance, work is being performed.
ARTR (amend release to read)
S- supplemental Crew Change H- hour past release time A- Alternate (destination) F- fuel >2000 lbs T- Take off alternate M- mel M- miles >100 re-route by ATC
Cannot change CA signature. Need a new copy (domestic/ flag ops)
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FO Less than 100 Hours (8 things)
1) RVR at or below 4000
2) Vis at or below 3/4 sm
3) Runway is Wet, Slippery or Contaminated
4) Breaking action less then “Good”
5) Max X-wind is 15kts
6) LLWA in effect or reported
7) Special Airport
8) CA deems it prudent
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What equipment F9 pilot required to cary at all times? (7 things)
1) Airman certificate
2) FCC Permit
3) Medical Certificate
4) EFB with Vol1 and 2 and Jepps
5) Passport
6) Government issued ID
7) Flashlight
What is a definition of a Ground icing?
- Visible Moisture
- Temperature below 10°C
- Visibility less than 1sm
