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Final Exam Study Sets > BI323 Final Exam Material from Exam 2 > Flashcards

BI323 Final Exam Material from Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which process are these a part of? elongation, replication, distribution, septum

A

binary fission

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2
Q

division of cytoplasm to form basal cell and larger apical cell

A

baeocyte formation

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3
Q

other strategies of reproduction in prokaryotes

A

spore formulation, budding

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4
Q

which parts are found in the chromosome replication of E. coli?

A

origin of replication and terminus found on the chromosome, and a replisome

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5
Q

what is partitioning

A

not well understood, role of MreB in cell shape and association of chromosomes

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6
Q

single copy plasmid R1 replicates, ParM is anchored to ParC and ParR which attach to the origin of each plasmid, ParM elongates pushing the plasmid to opposite poles of the dividing cell, newly replicated cells with plasmid, Par proteins not synthesized until the cell readies for division

A

plasmid partioning

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7
Q

involves septation, wall formation between daughter cells
steps: selection of site MinCDE, Z ring assembly (FtsZ), formation of divisome (Z ring linkage, assembly of machinery for cell wall synthesis, Z ring constriction)

A

cytokinesis

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8
Q

what type of cell growth do cocci/rods go through?

A

peptidoglycan synthesis through autolysins

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9
Q

used to maintain osmotic pressure
ex. choline, proline, glutamic acid

A

compatible solute

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10
Q

measure of water availability to organisms related to the concentration of solutes

A

water activity

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11
Q

organisms exhibit distinct _________ temperatures, which include?

A

cardinal growth, minimal maximal and optimal

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12
Q

what is the order of -philes from low Celsius to high?

A

psychrophiles, psychrotrophs, mesophiles, thermophiles, hyperthermophiles

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13
Q

their membranes contain unsaturated fatty acids

A

psychrophiles

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14
Q

protein structure stabilization through increasing H bonds, more proline, chaperones, DNA stabilization through histone like proteins, lipid stabilization with more saturated branches and higher MW, ester linkages in archaeal

A

thermophiles

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15
Q

what are these enzymes used for? superoxide dismutase, catalase, peroxidase

A

protective enzymes for oxygen concentration

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16
Q

how are barophilic (piezophillic) organisms adapted to pressure changes?

A

shorter, increased unsaturated fatty acids

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17
Q

x rays and gamma rays, disrupting chemical structures of DNA

A

ionizing radiation

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18
Q

formation of thymine dimers, DNA repair mechanisms through photoreactivation (dimers split in light presence) and dark reactivation (dimers replaced)

A

UV radiation

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19
Q

in high intensities, generates singlet oxygen which is a powerful oxidizing agent
carotenoids protect from photooxidation

A

visible light

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20
Q

total biomass of organism determined by nutrient present at lowest concentration

A

liebig’s law of the minimum

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21
Q

above or below certain environmental limits, a microorganism will not grow regardless of the nutrient supply

A

shelford’s law of tolerance

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22
Q

what are some responses to oligotrophic environments

A

increased competition, mechanisms to sequester certain nutrients, morphological changes that increase surface area nutrient absorption

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23
Q

quorum sensing in gm (-) bacteria, give some process examples

A

N-acyl homoserine lactone production
processes: bioluminescence, synthesis and release of virulence factors, conjugation, antibiotic production, biofilm production

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24
Q

quorum sensing in gm (+) bacteria, give some process examples

A

often mediated by oligopeptides
processes: transformation competence, sporulation, production of virulence factors, development of aerial mycelia, antibiotic production

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25
Q

controlled growth environment that can be used for certain bacteria

A

defined/synthetic media

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26
Q

contain some ingredients of unknown composition or concentration, can be used for many bacteria
components: peptones (hydrolysates from partial digestion), extracts( beef or yeast), agar (sulfated polysaccharide)

A

complex

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27
Q

favors growth of some microorganisms while inhibiting others ex. macconkey agar selects gm (-)

A

selective media

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28
Q

distinguish between different groups of microorganimss based on their biological characteristics ex. blood agar (homolytic vs non) ex. macconkey agar (lactose fermenters vs non)

A

differential media

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29
Q

what are some common techniques for the isolation of pure cultures?

A

spread plate, streak plate, pour plate

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30
Q

what are the characteristics used to identify colony morphology

A

form, elevation, margin

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31
Q

growth is most rapid at _______ because why?

A

colony edge, availability of O2 and nutrients

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32
Q

growth curves are observed in__________ which is incubated in a closed vessel

A

batch culture

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33
Q

which stage does unbalanced growth occur? what is this?

A

exponential phase, change in nutrient levels, leads to shift up or shift down

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34
Q

what are some starvation responses found in stationary phase?

A

morphological changes (decreased size, protoplast shrinkage, nucleoid condensation), production of starvation proteins, long term survival, increased virulence

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35
Q

what is mean growth rate (µ)

A

the number of generations per hour

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36
Q

mean generation (doubling) time

A

time required for the population to double in size

37
Q

what are two ways to perform direct cell counts?

A

counting chambers and electronic counters

38
Q

what are two ways to perform viable cell counts?

A

spread plating and membrane filtration methods

39
Q

a method of direct cell count, hemacytometer which is easy, rapid and inexpensive

A

petroff hausser chamber

40
Q

a method of direct cell count, cell suspension forced through small orifice that disrupts the current but can’t distinguish between living and dead

A

coulter counter

41
Q

a method of direct cell count that uses a laser to scatter light and quantify

A

flow cytometry

42
Q

a method of viable cell counts that determines the population size as CFU

A

spread plating

43
Q

a method of viable cell counts that stains for easier visualization using fluorescent dyes to tell between living and dead cells

A

membrane filter

44
Q

what are three ways of measuring cell mass

A

determination of dry weight (time consuming), quantity of particular cell constituent, turbidometric measurement (light scattering)

45
Q

rate of incoming culture = rate if medium + cell removal, used when the quantity of an essential nutrient is limited, determined by rate of flow or dilution rate

A

chemostat

46
Q

a chemostat best operates at _____ dilution levels

A

low

47
Q

elimination of all microorganisms including spores

A

sterilization

48
Q

the killing, inhibition or removal of pathogens but not necessarily sterilizing

A

disinfection

49
Q

reduction to safe levels per public health standards

A

sanitation

50
Q

prevention of infection of living tissue

A

antisepsis

51
Q

dead organisms….

A

unable to reproduce under normal conditions and are VBNC (viable but not culturable)

52
Q

what are the pore measurements of membrane filters?

A

0.2 micrometers and 0.45 micrometers, N95 0.3

53
Q

autoclave degrades nucleic acids, denatures proteins and disrupts membranes

A

moist heat

54
Q

less effective because it requires high temperatures and longer exposures, oxidizes cell constituents and denatures proteins

A

dry heat sterilization

55
Q

what are the approximate conditions to heat kill bacteria

A

10 min at 60-70 celsius

56
Q

what are the approximate conditions for heat killing viruses

A

30 min at 60 celsius

57
Q

old pasteurization of milk…… new…….

A

63 celsius for 30 min, flash (HTST) 72 celsius for 15 sec, UHT 140-150 celsius for 1-3 seconds

58
Q

decimal reduction time (D)

A

time to kill 90% of microorganisms and spores at a specific temperature

59
Q

z value

A

increase in temperature required to reduce D by 1/10

60
Q

surface sterilization that doesn’t penetrate, kills microorganims and inactivated viruses via thymine dimers

A

UV radiation

61
Q

how is ionizing radiation used to kill

A

via gamma rays that penetrate deep, destroying cells and endospores but not always viruses (food sterilization)

62
Q

first antiseptic common in labs and hospitals, denatures proteins and disrupts cell membranes, odor and skin irritation

A

phenol

63
Q

what are alcohols used for

A

bactericidal, fungicidal but not sporicidal and inactivates some viruses, denatures proteins and dissolves membrane lipids

64
Q

oxidizes cell constituents and iodinates proteins, may kill spores, skin damage staining and allergies

A

iodine

65
Q

iodine and organic carrier, water soluble and non-staining ex. wescodyne and betadine

A

iodophor

66
Q

used to sterilize heat sensitive materials such as sutures and catheters, microbicidal and sporicidal and combine w/inactivate proteins, penetrating packing materials

A

sterilizing gases

67
Q

conditions that influence antimicrobial effectiveness

A
  1. population size 2. population composition (spores and sensitivity) 3. concentration and intensity (EtOH 95% causes dehydration but then the microbes can be brought back after rehydration) 4. exposure duration 5. temperature 6. local environment
68
Q

biological control of microorganisms

A

bacterial predators (bdellovibro gm (-) enters periplasm and eats host, bacteriophage therapy, bacteriocins

69
Q

ability of drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging host as little as possible

A

selective toxicity

70
Q

drug level required for clinical treatment

A

therapeutic dose

71
Q

drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient, creating side effects

A

toxic dose

72
Q

comparison of toxic dose to therapeutic dose

A

therapeutic index

73
Q

what are some of antibiotic’s mechanisms of action

A
  1. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis 2. protein synthesis inhibitors 3. metabolic antagonists 4. nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors
74
Q

-beta lactam ring essential for bioactivity, many resistant organisms produce beta lactamase (penicillinase) which hydrolyzes a bond in the ring
- blocks enzyme that catalyzes transpeptidation
- only acts on growing bacteria synthesizing new peptidoglycan

A

penicillins

75
Q

factors influencing drug effectiveness

A
  1. ability to reach site (venal, parenteral, topical, oral) 2. susceptibility of pathogen to drug 3. ability to reach and exceed MIC (amount, route, speed of uptake, rate of clearance) 4. acquired resistance
76
Q

what are some mechanisms of acquired resistance

A

HGT, drug inactivation, target modification, reduce concentration of the drug, use if alternative metabolic pathway

77
Q

optimal pH of 0-5.5

A

acidophiles

78
Q

optimal pH of 5.5-8.0

A

neutrophiles

79
Q

optimal pH of 8.0-11.5

A

alkalophiles

79
Q

grow at 0-35C

A

psychrotrophs

79
Q

grow at 0-20C

A

psychrophiles

79
Q

grow at 20-45C

A

mesophiles

80
Q

grow at 85-100C

A

hyperthermophiles

80
Q

grow at 45-85C

A

thermophiles

81
Q

requires oxygen and have + enzyme content for SOD and catalase

A

obligate aerobe

82
Q

prefers oxygen and have + enzyme content for SOD and catalase

A

facultative anaerobe

83
Q

ignores oxygen and had + enzyme content for SOD but not catalase

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

84
Q

oxygen is toxic and does not have enzyme content for SOD and catalase

A

strict anaerobe

85
Q

oxygen is required in 2-10% and had + enzyme content for SOD and catalase at low levels

A

microaerophile

Final Exam Study Sets (6 decks)

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