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Quarterlies 3 sala ni ni Pinkyyyy nga naay exam > BHC > Flashcards

BHC Flashcards

1
Q

before childbirth

A

Antepartum

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2
Q

during labor/delivery

A

Intrapartum

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3
Q

following after childbirth or birth of young

A

Postpartum

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4
Q

the 6 weeks after childbirth, sometimes termed the fourth trimester of pregnancy

A

puerperium

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5
Q

6 weeks before conception to 6 weeks after birth

A

perinatal period

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6
Q

assessment data must include a family and individual Philosophy of Maternal and Child Health Nursing

A

MCHN is family- centered

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7
Q

the health of families depends on and influences the health of communities

A

MCHN is community- centered

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8
Q

because research is the means whereby critical knowledge increases

A

MCHN is research oriented

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9
Q

based practice provide a foundation for nursing care

A

Both nursing theory and evidence

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10
Q

educating clients to be aware of good health through teaching and role modeling

A

health promotion

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11
Q

intervening to maintain health when risk of illness is present

A

health maintenance

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12
Q

promptly diagnosing and treating illness using interventions that will return client to wellness most rapidly

A

health restoration

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13
Q

preventing further complications from an illness; bringing ill client back to optimal state of wellness or helping client to accept inevitable death

A

health rehabilitation

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14
Q

frequency of live births in a given population, conventionally calculated as the annual number of live births per 1,000 inhabitants (10-20 per 1,000 is considered low, 40-50 per 1,000 is high)

A

Birth Rate

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15
Q

reflects the proportion of women who could have babies over her lifetime

A

fertility rate

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16
Q

death in utero of a child (fetus) at anytime during pregnancy. Reflects overall quality of maternal health and prenatal care

A

Fetal Death Rate

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17
Q

death in the first 28 days of life. Reflects not only the quality of care available to women during pregnancy and childbirth but also the quality care available to infants during the first month of life

Leading cause of infant mortality: prematurity, low birth weight, congenital anomalies

A

Neonatal Death Rate

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18
Q

refers to death around the time of delivery and includes bothfetal deaths(at least 20 weeks of gestation) and early infant (neonatal)deaths. The sum total of fetal and neonatal rates

A

Perinatal Death Rate

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19
Q

the number of maternal deaths that occur as direct result of reproductive process per 1,000 live births

A

Maternal Mortality Rate

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20
Q

index of general health, measures the quality of pregnancy care, nutrition and sanitation as well as infant health

A

Infant Mortality Rate

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21
Q

capable of acting as consultants in their area od expertise, serves as role model, researchers and teacher of quality nursing care

A

Cinical nurse Specialist

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22
Q

supervises a group of patients from the time they enter the facility until they are discharged

A

Case manager

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23
Q

educates women, shares methods of preventing illness (ex: STD/HIV), offers information and counseling of productive life planning

A

Women’s health Practitioner

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24
Q

provides health care to families, takes health and pregnancy history, performs physical and obstetrics examinations, orders appropriate diagnostic and laboratory test and plans continued care

A

Family Nurse Practitioner

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25
Q

skilled to care for newborns both well and ill

A

Neonatal nurse practitioner

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26
Q

prepare with extensive skills in physical assessment, interviewing and well-child counseling and care determines child common illness

A

Pediatric nurse practitioner

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27
Q

play important roles in assisting women with pregnancy and child bearing

A

Nurse- midwife

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28
Q

(US census) a group of people related by blood, marriage, or adoption or living together

(allender & Spradley) two or more people who live in the same household, shares common emotional bond and perform certain care providers

A

Family

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29
Q

the family one is born into, or oneself, mother, father and sibling if any

A

Family of Orientation

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30
Q

a family one established oneself, spouse or significant other and children

A

Family of Procreation

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31
Q

consist of 2 people living together, usually woman and man without children

A

Dyad

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32
Q

composed of husband, wife and children. (Advantage: focus on needs)

A

Nuclear family

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33
Q

composed of heterosexual couples who live together like a nuclear family but remain unmarried

A

Cohabitation Family

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34
Q

includes not only the nuclear family but also other family members such as grandmother, grand father, aunts, uncles, cousins, grandchildren (advantage: more resources)

A

Extended (Multigenerational) Family

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35
Q

are families with children under age 18 headed by a parent who is widowed or divorced and not remarried, or by a parent who has never married.

A

Single-parent family

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36
Q

remarriage or reconstituted family, a divorced or widowed person with children marries someone who also has children (advantage: increase in security and resources)

A

Blended family

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37
Q

comprise of groups of people who have chosen to live together as extended family, relationship is motivated by social or religious values

A

Communal Family

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38
Q

homosexual unions, individuals of the same sex live together as partners for companionship, financial security and sexual fulfillment

A

Gay or Lesbian Family

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39
Q

children whose parent can no longer care for them may be placed in a foster or substitute home by a child protecting agency

A

Foster Family

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40
Q

a healthy family provides food, shelter, and health care for its members

A

Physical Maintenance

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41
Q

involved preparing children to live in the community and to interact with people outside the family

A

Socialization of family member

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42
Q

determining which family needs will be met and their order of priority

A

Allocation of resources

43
Q

includes opening an effective means of communication among family members, establishing family values, and enforcing common regulations

A

Maintenance of order

44
Q

invasion of the body tissue by organisms and their proliferation there

A

Infection

45
Q

the absence of disease-producing microorganisms and being free from infection

A

Asepsis

46
Q

practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens, also called “Clean Technique”

A

Medical Asepsis

47
Q

practices that render and keep objects and areas free from microorganism, also called “Sterile Technique”

A

Surgical Asepsis

48
Q

extends from the entry of microorganisms into the body to the onset of signs and symptoms

A

Incubation Period

49
Q

extends from the onset of non-specific signs and symptoms to the appearance of specific signs and symptoms

A

Prodromal Period

50
Q

specific signs and symptoms develop and become evident

A

Illness period

51
Q

signs and symptoms start to abate until the client returns to normal state of health

A

Convalescent period

52
Q

Refers to microorganism
- The ability of the infectious agent to cause disease depends on the virulence, invasiveness and specificity
Ex: bacteria, fungi, virus, parasites

A

Etiologic Agent/ Infectious Agent

53
Q

Source of pathogen
Humans (client, visitors, healthcare personnel)
Animals (insects, rats), Plants

A

Reservoir

54
Q
  • a way for the pathogen to escape from the reservoir
    respiratory tract: droplets, serum
    gastrointestinal tract: vomitus, feces, saliva, drainage tubes
  • urinary tract: urine, urethral catheters
  • reproductive tract: semen, vaginal discharge
  • blood: open wound, needle puncture site
A

Portal of Exit

55
Q

way for the pathogen to travel or transfer like direct contact, airborne, droplet

A

mode of transmission

56
Q

This permits the organism to gain entrance into the host
Pathogens can enter susceptible host through body orifices such as mouth, nose, ears, eyes, vagina, rectum and urethra
Breaks in the skin or mucous membranes from wounds and abrasion increase chance for organisms to enter hosts.

A

Portal of Entry

57
Q

a person who is at risk for infection, whose own body defense mechanisms, when exposed are unable to withstand invasion of pathogens
ex: malnourished children, cancer patients

A

Susceptible Host

58
Q

involves immediate and direct transfer from person to person

A

Direct contact

59
Q

occurs when susceptible host is exposed to a contaminated object such as dressing, needle, surgical instrument

A

Indirect contact

60
Q

occurs when mucous membrane of the nose, mouth or conjunctiva are exposed to secretions of an infected person who is coughing, sneezing, laughing, or talking

usually at a distance of 3 meters

A

Droplet Transmission

61
Q

involves the transfer of microorganisms by way of vehicles or contaminated items that transmit pathogens

ex: food, water, milk, blood, eating utensils, pillows, mattress

A

Vehicle Transmission

62
Q

occurs when fine particles are suspended in the air for a long time or when dust particles contain pathogen

air currents disperses microorganisms which can be inhaled or deposited on the skin of susceptible host

A

Airborne Transmission

63
Q

Biologic Vectors – animals like rats, snails, mosquitos

Mechanical vectors – are inanimate objects that are infected with infected body fluids like contaminated needles and syringes

A

Vectorborne transmission

64
Q

Antibodies are produced by the body in response to infection.

A

Active Immunization:

65
Q

antibodies are formed in the presence of active infection in the body, it is lifelong

A

Natural

66
Q

antigens (vaccines or toxoids) are administered to stimulate the antibody production requires booster inoculation after many years

ex: tetanus toxoid, OPV

A

Artificial

67
Q

antibodies are produced by another source such as animal or human

A

Passive Immunization

68
Q

antibodies are transferred from the mother to her newborn through placenta or in the colostrums

A

Natural

69
Q

immune serum (antibody) from an animal or human is injected to a person
ex: tetanus immunoglobulin human (TGH)

A

Artificial

70
Q

The single most important infection control practice

A

Handwashing

71
Q

the physical removal of visible dirt and debris by washing, dusting or mopping surfaces that are contaminated. Soap is used for mechanical cleaning

A

Cleaning

72
Q

the chemical or physical processes used to reduce number of potential pathogens on an object’s surface

A

Disinfection

73
Q

complete destruction of all microorganisms and spores, leaving no viable forms of organisms

A

Sterilization

74
Q
  • sterilization using supersaturated steam under pressure
    this method is non-toxic, inexpensive, sporicidal, and able to penetrate fabric rapidly
  • used to sterilize surgical dressings, surgical linens, parenteral nutrition, metal or glass objects
  • color indicator strips change color, indicating that sterilization has occurred
  • check packaging for integrity and always check the expiration date to ensure sterility of the object
A

(Steam sterilization) Autoclaving

75
Q

– a colorless gas that can penetrate plastic, rubber, cotton and other substances.
- use to sterilize oxygen or suction gauges, BP apparatus, stethoscopes and catheters
- expensive and requires 2-5 hrs to be accomplished

A

(Gas Sterilization) Ethylene oxide

76
Q
  • ionizing radiation penetrate deeply into objects
  • used in sterilizing drugs, foods and other heat-sensitive items
A

Radiation

77
Q
  • effective disinfectants
  • they attack all types of microorganisms, act rapidly, work with water
    -inexpensive
  • used for instruments and equipment such as glass thermometer, chlorine is used for water
A

Chemicals

78
Q
  • this is least expensive for home use
  • baby bottles boiled for 15 mins
A

Boiling Water

79
Q

on going practices that are observed in the care of the client, his supplies, his immediate environment, to limit/control the spread of microorganisms

A

Concurrent Disinfection –

80
Q

practices to remove pathogens from the client’s belongings and his immediate environment after his illness is no longer communicable

A

Terminal Disinfection

81
Q

4 moments of Handwashing

A

Before handling foods
Before and after using the toilet
Before and after performing nursing procedure
Before and after each patient contact

82
Q

Keep soiled items/equipment from touching the clothing
Instruct client to cover mouth and nose when coughing and sneezing
Avoid raising dust, do not shake linens
Clean the contaminated areas first then move to move contaminated

A

Keep soiled items/equipment from touching the clothing
Instruct client to cover mouth and nose when coughing and sneezing
Avoid raising dust, do not shake linens
Clean the contaminated areas first then move to move contaminated

83
Q

Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) or Barrier

A

Mask
Gown
Caps & Shoe Cover
Gloves
Use of Private Room
Equipment and Refuse Handling

84
Q

Categories of Institutional Waste

A

Infectious Waste
Injurious waste
Hazardous waste

85
Q

synthesize the major features of universal precaution s and body substance isolation
Wear clean gloves
Do handwashing
Never Recap needles (use one Scoop method)
Use of private rooms

A

Standard Precaution

86
Q

Transmission Based Precaution

A

Airborne Precaution
Droplet precaution
Contact precaution

87
Q

implemented to prevent infection for people whose resistance to infection/body defense are lowered or compromised
ex: clients with low WBCcount (leukopenia), immunosuppressed, under chemotherapy, extensive burns
client should be in a private room
meticulous handwashing, restriction of visitors
persons with signs and symptoms of infection are not allowed to visit (Ex: cough, colds, diarrhea, skin infection)
no fresh fruits or vegetables, raw foods fresh flowers, potted plants
only cooked or canned fruits is allowed

A

Protective or Reverse Isolation

88
Q

What are the Patients Bill of rights

A
  • Right to Appropriate Medical Care
  • Right to Informed Consent
  • Right to privacy and confidentiality
  • Right to be Informed
  • Right to Choose Healthcare Provider and Facility
  • Right to Self-Determination
  • Right to Religious Belief
  • Right to Leave
  • Right to Refuse Medical Participation in Research
  • Right to Correspondence and to receive visitors
  • Right to Express Grievances
  • Right to be informed of his rights and obligations as a Patient.
    *Right to Medical Records
89
Q

HAMA meaning

A

Home Against Medical Advice

90
Q

MGH meaning

A

May Go Home

91
Q

Every person has a right to health and medical care corresponding to his state of health, without any discrimination and within the limits of the resources, manpower and competence available for health and medical care at the relevant time

A

Right to Appropriate Medical Care

92
Q

Has the right to a clear, truthful, and substantial explanation, in a manner and langguage understandable to the patient, of all procedures, whether fiagnostic, preventive, curative rehabilitative or therapeutic

A

Right to Informed Consent

93
Q

who should you inform;

A

*If married, the spouse
*Son or daughter of legal age
*either parent
*brother or sister

94
Q

The patient must have the right to be free from unwarranted public exposure, except in the following cases:
a) when his mental or physical condition is in controversy and the appropriate court, in its discretion, orders him to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician;
b) when public health and safety so demand
c) when the patient waives this right in writing.

-The privacy must be assured at all stages of his treatment

ex: need curtains for privacy

A

Right to Privacy and Confidentiality

95
Q

The patient has a right to be ________ of the result of the evaluation of the nature and extent of his/her disease any other additional or further contemplated medical treatment on surgical procedure or procedures, including any other additional medicines to be administered and their generic counterpart

A

Right to be Informed

96
Q

The patient is free to choose the health care provider to serve him as well as the facility except when he is under the care of a service facility or when public health and safety so demands or when the patient expressly waives this right in writing.

A

Right to Choose Healthcare Provider and Facility

97
Q
  • has the right to discuss his condition with a consultant specialist, at the patient’s request and expense. He also has the right to seek for a second opinion and subsequent opinions, if appropriate, from another health care provider/practitioner.
  • the right to avail himself/herself of any recommended diagnostic and treatment procedures.
A

Right to Self-Determination

98
Q

The patient has the right to refuse medical treatment or procedures which may be contrary

A

Right to Religious Belief

99
Q

The patient right to ________ hospital or any other health care institution regardless of his physical condition: Provided. That a) he/she is informed of the medical consequences of his/her decision
b) he/she releases those involved in his/her care from any obligation relative to the consequences of his decision;
c) his/her decision will not prejudice public health and safety.

A

Right to Leave

100
Q

The patient has the right to be advised if the health care provider plans to involve him in medical research, including but not limited to human experimentation which may be performed only with the written informed consent of the patient:

A

Right to refuse medical participation in research

101
Q

The patient has the right to communicate with relatives and other persons and to receive visitors subject to reasonable limits prescribed by the rules and regulations of the health care institution.

A

Right to Correspondence and to receive visitors

102
Q

The patient has the right to express complaints and grievances about the care and services received without fear of discrimination or reprisal and to know about the disposition of such complaints.

A

Right to Express Grievances

103
Q

The patient has rights and obligations

A

Right to be informed of his/her rights and obligations as a Patient.

104
Q

He has the right to view the contents of his medical records, except psychiatric notes and other incriminatory information obtained about third parties, with the attending physician explaining contents thereof.

A

Right to Medical Records

Quarterlies 3 sala ni ni Pinkyyyy nga naay exam (8 decks)

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