Behavioral JG Flashcards

1
Q

discrete trial instruction used for acquiring new behavior in people with ______ (dz)

A

autism

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2
Q

reinforcement-based tx most effective for decreasing problematic behavior in ______ (dz)

A

autism

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3
Q

diagnosis of intellectual disability: IQ at or below 70, deficients in 2 or more areas of adaptive functioning, onset before age __

A

18

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4
Q

mild ID (IQ 55-70) achieve what grade level academically?

A

6th grade, can self support with minimal intervention

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5
Q

moderate ID (IQ 35-55) benefit from vocational and social training, can reach what grade level academically

A

2nd grade

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6
Q

ID is about twice as common in (males/females)

A

males

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7
Q

repetitive behaviors are considered an (associated/essential) feature of autism

A

essential

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8
Q

self-injury behaviors are considered an (associated/essential) feature of autism

A

assoc

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9
Q

pica: persistent eating of non-nutritive substances for at least _____ (time period), inappropriate for age level, not culturally sanctioned

A

1 month

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10
Q

autism: medication use (increases/decreases) as patient ages

A

increases

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11
Q

autism: complementary and alternative medical treatment use (increases/decreases) as patient ages

A

decreases (special diets, O2, facilitated communication)

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12
Q

dx ADHD: need 6 features of inattention for more than 6 months before age __ OR 5 features or more after age __

A

17

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13
Q

dx ADHD: several symptoms present prior to age __, symptoms in 2+ settings, symptoms interfere with functioning, not explained by another disorder

A

12

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14
Q

most common ADHD presentation: (combined/predominantly inattentive/predominantly hyperactive+impulsive)

A

combined

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15
Q

(ADHD/Oppositional Defiant Disorder/Conduct Disorder): tx with direct contingency management, daily report cards, token reinforcement and response cost systems, behavioral parent training, Incredible Years program

A

ADHD

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16
Q

(ADHD/Oppositional Defiant Disorder/Conduct Disorder): tx with problem-solving skills training, focus on cognitive processes, parent child interaction therapy

A

ODD (authoritative parenting)

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17
Q

(ADHD/Oppositional Defiant Disorder/Conduct Disorder): tx with multisystemic therapy, address at multiple levels, multidimensional treatment foster care while parents receive PMT, functional family therapy

A

CD

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18
Q

(ADHD/Oppositional Defiant Disorder/Conduct Disorder): angry, argumentative, vindictive, impacts functioning

A

ODD

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19
Q

ODD (mild/moderate/severe): symptoms confined to one setting

A

mild

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20
Q

ODD (mild/moderate/severe): symptoms present in at least 2 settings

A

moderate. (severe=3+ settings)

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21
Q

(ADHD/Oppositional Defiant Disorder/Conduct Disorder): bullies, threatens, uses weapons, cruel to animals, steals, sets fires

A

CD

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22
Q

Conduct Disorder: 3+ symptoms must be displayed within the past __ months, and at least one symptom must be displayed within the past __ months

A

12 months, 6 months

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23
Q

Conduct disorder: stays out at night despite parental prohibitions, truant at school starting before age __

A

13

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24
Q

CD childhood onset vs adolescent onset cutoff is age __

A

10

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25
Q

to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder: need _/9 symptoms including persistent depressed mood and anhedonia

A

5/9

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26
Q

SMIGECAPS stands for

A

sleep disturbed, mood, interest reduction, guilt, energy loss, concentration impairment, appetite change, psychomotor symptoms, suicidal ideation

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27
Q

(atypical depression/pseudodementia/diurnal variation/psychomotor symptoms): more likely to have weight gain and hypersomnia, carb cravings, rejection sensitivity

A

atypical

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28
Q

(atypical depression/pseudodementia/diurnal variation/psychomotor symptoms): cognitive symptoms in depressed elderly often misdiagnosed as dementia

A

pseudodementia

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29
Q

(atypical depression/pseudodementia/diurnal variation/psychomotor symptoms): melancholic type depression, extreme anhedonia

A

diurnal (worse in AM)

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30
Q

(atypical depression/pseudodementia/diurnal variation/psychomotor symptoms): body aches, headaches, vegetative depression

A

psychomotor symptoms

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31
Q

Masked depression more likely seen in (young/old) patients, obsessive compulsive, narcissistic personalities

A

elderly

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32
Q

MDD: (increased/decreased) levels of DA, 5HT, NE

A

decreased

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33
Q

MDD: (high/low) number of receptors with low amounts of transmitter

A

high number of receptors

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34
Q

MDD: (hypo/hyper) active amygdala

A

hyperactive amygdala

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35
Q

MDD: (hypo/hyper) active dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

A

hypoactive DLPFC

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36
Q

MDD lifetime prevalence: (men/women) experience more

A

women (women also seek more tx)

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37
Q

three frontline drug groups for MDD

A

SSRI, SNRI, NDRI

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38
Q

use vagus nerve stimulation, transcranial magnetic stimulation, deep brain stimulation to treat ______

A

MDD

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39
Q

increasing cortisol (increases/decreases) brain neurotrophic factors, making depression more likely to occur

A

decreases

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40
Q

after several depressive episodes, subsequent episodes are (shorter and less severe/longer and more severe)

A

more severe

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41
Q

which 5HT receptor impacts sleep schedules: (3/1a/7/2)

A

7

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42
Q

higher suicide risk: (younger/older) adults

A

older

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43
Q

higher suicide risk: (male/female)

A

male

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44
Q

higher suicide risk: (white/black) race

A

white

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45
Q

higher suicide risk: (Muslim/Jewish)

A

Jewish

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46
Q

higher suicide risk: (non-professional/professional)

A

professional

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47
Q

suicide risk triad components

A

ideation, plan, intention

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48
Q

(men/women) attempt 4x as much as (opposite)

A

women but men are 3x more successful

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49
Q

5HTT gene polymorphism: (little s/long s) allele is higher risk for suicide

A

little s is bad (long s is more resilient)

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50
Q

FDA boxed warnings indicate that antidepressants increase suicide risk for patients up to __ years old

A

24

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51
Q

ADHD: chromosome __ is most obvious finding

A

16

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52
Q

ADHD: (increased/decreased) NE, (increased/decreased) DA

A

decreased both

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53
Q

alpha 2 NE agonists used in tx of ADHD (2): (atomoxetine/guanfacine ER/clonidine ER), no addiction risk

A

guan and clonidine

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54
Q

NRI used in tx of ADHD: (atomoxetine/guanfacine ER/clonidine ER), no addiction risk

A

atomoxetine

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55
Q

(NE/DA) makes you focus. (NE/DA) makes you ignore everything else

A

NE makes you focus, DA makes you ignore everything else

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56
Q

ADHD patient with another psychiatric disorder most commonly has:

A

anxiety

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57
Q

reverses DA pump, pro DA: (guanfacine ER/atomoxetine/amphetamine/clonidine ER)

A

amphetamine

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58
Q

ADHD: (hypo/hyper) active anterior cingulates

A

hypoactive anterior cingulate

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59
Q

(illusion/delusion): misperception of real external stimuli

A

illusion

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60
Q

(illusion/delusion): false beliefs not correctable by logic or reason, not based on simple ignorance

A

delusion

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61
Q

sensory perceptions not generated by external stimuli

A

hallucinations

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62
Q

patients with schizophrenia (have/do not have) clouding of consciousness

A

do not (unlike delirium or substance abuse)

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63
Q

dx? 2+ of the following during a 1 month period: delusions, hallucinations, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, disorganized speech, negative symptoms

A

schizophrenia

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64
Q

to dx schizophrenia, need continuous signs of disturbance persisting for at least __ months

A

6 months

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65
Q

schizophrenia types: (undifferentiated/paranoid/residual/disorganized/catatonic): most common type

A

undifferentiated

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66
Q

schizophrenia types: (undifferentiated/paranoid/residual/disorganized/catatonic): older age of onset, better functioning than other types

A

paranoid

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67
Q

schizophrenia types: (undifferentiated/paranoid/residual/disorganized/catatonic): at least one psychotic episode with subsequent negative symptoms

A

residual

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68
Q

schizophrenia types: (undifferentiated/paranoid/residual/disorganized/catatonic): onset before age 25, incoherent speech, inappropriate emotional responses

A

disorganized

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69
Q

schizophrenia types: (undifferentiated/paranoid/residual/disorganized/catatonic): rare since introduction of antipsychotic agents

A

catatonic

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70
Q

schizophrenia onset occurs earlier in (women/men)

A

men

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71
Q

(men/women) respond better to antipsychotic medication

A

women

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72
Q

schizophrenia: enlarged (hippocampus/ventricles)

A

ventricles, lateral and third

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73
Q

schizophrenia: decreased volume of (hippocampus/ventricles/amygdala)

A

hippocampus and amygdala

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74
Q

schizophrenia: (increased/decreased) DA activity in mesolimbic tract

A

excessive DA

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75
Q

schizophrenia: Glutamate hypothesis relies on a defective _____

A

NMDA receptor

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76
Q

schizophrenia tx: effective antipsychotics (upregulate/block) D2 receptors in the mesolimbic DA path

A

block

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77
Q

(traditional first generation antipsychotics/atypical second generation antipsychotics): block D2 receptors and 5HT2a receptors

A

atypicals

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78
Q

(traditional first generation antipsychotics/atypical second generation antipsychotics): high potency versions cause more side effects in the nigrostriatal path and tuberoinundibular path

A

first generation

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79
Q

being older at the age of onset of schizophrenia is a (poor/good) indicator for prognosis

A

good prognosis. as is being female, married, good employment hx, presence of mood symptoms, presence of positive symptoms

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80
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: symptoms must be persistent (6+ months), interfere with normal functioning, cause distress

A

generalized anxiety

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81
Q

generalized anxiety dx requires a longer period of symptoms in (children/adults)

A

longer period in adults. children may be diagnosed in a shorter amount of time

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82
Q

generalized anxiety disorder: 5HT is (up/down), GABA is (up/down), NE is (up/down), glutamate is (up/down)

A

5HT is down, GABA is down

NE is up, glutamate is up

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83
Q

generalized anxiety disorder dx: excessive worry occurring more days than not for 6+ months, about 1+ event, difficult to control worry, assoc with __+ (number) of: restless, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance

A

3+ of these symptoms must be assoc to dx GAD

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84
Q

anxiety disorders affect women more than men except for which one

A

OCD

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85
Q

what’s the risk with giving benzodiazepines for anxiety disorders

A

addiction

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86
Q

why give beta blockers for anxiety disorders

A

for symptomatic relief of performance anxiety

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87
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: abrupt surge of fear, peaks within minutes, that is unexpected

A

panic disorder

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88
Q
panic disorder assoc with \_\_+ (number) of the following: Palpitations, pounding heart, or accelerated heart rate
Sweating
Shaking/trembling
Sensation of shortness of breath or smothering
Choking feeling
Chest pain/discomfort
Nausea
Dizziness, lightheadedness or fainting
Chills or heat
Paresthesias
Derealization
Fear of Losing of control 
Fear of dying
A

4+ to make dx of panic disorder

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89
Q

(specific phobia/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: 6+ months, signif impairment, marked fear about a specific object/situation, actively avoids object/situation, fear out of proportion to actual danger

A

specific phobia. (clowns, snakes, airplanes, snakes on a plane, bald people, doctors)

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90
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: 6+ months, causes signif impairment, fear of acting in ways that will be negatively scrutinized, fear out of proportion to actual threat, marked fear when exposed to social situation

A

social anxiety disorder (performance only: fear is restricted to public speaking/performing)

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91
Q

social phobia occurrence: men (>/=/

A

men = women

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92
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: use cognitive behavioral therapy

A

all of them

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93
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: use systemic desensitization

A

panic and specific phobia

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94
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: use flooding therapy

A

specific phobia

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95
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder: use assertiveness training, group therapy

A

social anxiety disorder

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96
Q

OCD dx: obsessions and compulsions must be EITHER: time consuming (__+hr/day) or cause clinically signif distress

A

1hr+

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97
Q

what is ego dystonia in the context of OCD?

A

unwanted thoughts/urges–obsession

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98
Q

what is a compulsion versus an obsession

A

the compulsion is the repetitive behavior or activity that the patient performs in response to an obsession or as a set of rules that must be strictly adhered to

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99
Q

up to 2/3 of patients with tourette’s are diagnosed with: (generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder

A

OCD

100
Q

1/3 of (generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress & PTS) disorder patients have major depressive disorder

A

OCD

101
Q

most common thing to cause PTSD: (death of a loved one/assault/fracture in a car crash)

A

death of a loved one

102
Q

most likely thing to cause PTSD: (death of a loved one/assault/fracture in a car crash)

A

assault

103
Q

PTSD dx: exposure to actual or threatened traumatic event. symptoms must be present for at least ______ (time period).

A

1 month +

104
Q

what is the intrusion symptoms with regards to PTSD

A

reliving the event

105
Q

(generalized anxiety/panic/social anxiety/obsessive compulsive/acute stress) disorder: PTSD like symptoms that persist for 3 days to 1 month after exposure, sometimes a precursor to PTSD

A

acute stress disorder

106
Q

when is the best time to treat anxiety disorders

A

at the beginning

107
Q

1st and 2nd line pharmacotherapy for PTSD

A

1st–SSRIs and 2nd–TCAs (amitryptyline and imipramine), atypical antipsychotics

108
Q

mania dx: distinct, abnormal, elevated, expansive mood must last for _____ (time period) minimum to fit diagnostic criteria

A

7 days

109
Q

mania dx: at least 3 symptoms must be present for at least ____ (time period): grandiosity, decr sleep, incr speech, racing thoughts, distractibility, incr activity and energy, incr dangerous impulsivity

A

2 weeks

110
Q

hypomania lasts at least _ days or more, not severe enough to cause marked impairment

A

4+ days

111
Q

what is dysthymia

A

between normal mood and depression

112
Q

what is euthymia

A

normal mood

113
Q

(manic/major depressive/hypomanic/mixed) episode: abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, plus 3 or 4 other symptoms

A

manic episode

114
Q

(manic/major depressive/hypomanic/mixed) episode: depressed mood or loss of interest coupled with 3 or 4 other symptoms

A

major depressive episode

115
Q

(manic/major depressive/hypomanic/mixed) episode: elevated mood in shorter duration than mania plus 3 or 4 other symptoms

A

hypomanic episode

116
Q

(manic/major depressive/hypomanic/mixed) episode: mixed criteria for both a manic episode and a major depressive episode

A

mixed episode

117
Q

bipolar (1/2): manic or mixed episode +/- major depressive disorder

A

1 (MUST HAVE MANIA)

118
Q

bipolar (1/2): depressive and hypomanic episodes (must have hypomania)

A

2

119
Q

(cyclothymia/bipolar 1/bipolar 2): 2 years hypomania with minor depressions

A

cyclothymia

120
Q

bipolar 1 occurrence: women (>/=/

A

women = men

121
Q

bipolar 2 occurrence: women (>/=/

A

women > men

122
Q

should antidepressants be used for bipolar disorder

A

no, try not to use them. if you have to use, make sure a mood stabilizer is used first

123
Q

why are atypical antipsychotics approved for treating bipolar depression

A

block dopamine 2 receptor to treat mania, they block 5HT2 receptors which treats depression. uniquely suited to treat both sides of bipolarity

124
Q

bipolar disorder: psychotherapy or nah

A

nah, it does not work for the manic phase. medication management is critical

125
Q

cluster (A/B/C): paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

A

A–psychotic like, but not psychotic

126
Q

cluster (A/B/C): antisocial, histrionic, narcissistic, borderline

A

B

127
Q

cluster (A/B/C): avoidant, dependent, obsessive compulsive

A

C

128
Q

(paranoid/schizoid/schizotypal): detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions

A

schizoid

129
Q

(paranoid/schizoid/schizotypal): interpersonal deficits marked by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior

A

schizotypal

130
Q

antisocial personality disorder: disregard for and violation of the rights of others occurring since age __ and evidence of a conduct disorder with onset before that age

A

15

131
Q

(antisocial/histrionic/narcissistic/borderline): excessive emotionality and attention seeking, beginning by early adulthood, such as:
Sexually seductive or provocative behavior
Self-dramatization, theatricality, exaggerated emotional expression
Is easily influenced by others
Considers relationships to be more intimate than they actually are

A

histrionic

132
Q

(antisocial/histrionic/narcissistic/borderline): instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood. > 5/9 symptoms needed

A

borderline

133
Q

(avoidant/obsessive compulsive/dependent): social inhibition beginning by early adulthood, feelings of inadequacy, hypersensitive to criticism or rejection

A

avoidant

134
Q

Cluster B treatment: benzodiazepines (help/hurt)

A

may exacerbate condition–worsen symptoms through disinhibition

135
Q

Cluster C treatment ______ is the only personality disorder for which medications (benzo and SSRI) have a large beneficial effect

A

avoidant

136
Q

(obesity/anorexia) caused by drugs like anti psychotics/anti depressants that block H1 or 5HT2c receptors

A

obesity

137
Q

(obesity/anorexia) caused by drugs that increase prolactin by D2 receptor blockade

A

obesity

138
Q

manage (anorexia/obesity) with topiramate and zonisamide anticonvulsants

A

obesity

139
Q

anorexia: refusal to maintain __% of typical weight

A

85%

140
Q

anorexia: _x (number) missed menstrual cycles

A

3x

141
Q

(mild/moderate/severe/extreme) anorexia: BMI more than 17

A

mild

142
Q

(mild/moderate/severe/extreme) anorexia: BMI 16-16.99

A

moderate

143
Q

(mild/moderate/severe/extreme) anorexia: BMI below 15

A

extreme

144
Q

anorexia: metabolic (alkalosis/acidosis) and low K+

A

acidosis

145
Q

(obesity/anorexia) manage with mirtazapine and olanzapine

A

anorexia (weight gain cocktails)

146
Q

(anorexia/bulimia): patient has insight but cannot stop

A

bulimia

147
Q

(anorexia/bulimia): greater prevalence

A

bulimia

148
Q

(anorexia/bulimia): more substance abuse and personality disorder

A

bulimia

149
Q

(anorexia/bulimia): low K+

A

anorexia

150
Q

(anorexia/bulimia): low PO4, low Mg, high amylase

A

bulimia

151
Q

(bulimia/anorexia): SSRI’s are approved

A

bulimia–largest evidence base for treating bulimia

152
Q

(obesity/anorexia/bulimia): manage with imipramine, desipramine, trazodone, MAOi

A

bulimia. imipramine and desipramine are TCAs

153
Q

binge eating disorder: _x a week for _months

A

1x a week for 3 months

154
Q

bing eating disorder: (purging and compensation/no purging or compensation)

A

no purges or compensations

155
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): patient feels someone has been replaced by an imposter

A

capgras

156
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): patient feels different people are in fact a single person in disguise

A

fregoli

157
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): delusion that one is a werewolf, often kids in their teens

A

lycanthropy

158
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): shared delusion disorder/zombiesm, symptoms of a delusion belief are transmitted from one individual to another

A

folie a deux

159
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): delusion that one is dead, does not exist, is missing organs

A

cotards

160
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): desomorphine, heroin like drug that rots flesh

A

Krokodil

161
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): delusional parasitosis, somatic delusion

A

morgellons

162
Q

(capgras/fregoli/lycanthropy/folie a deux/cotard’s/krokodil/morgellons/erotomanic): stalking, believes another personn is in love with him or her

A

erotomaniac

163
Q

delusions: too (little/much) mesolimbic DA activity

A

too much (similar to schizophrenia)

164
Q

(age assoc cognitive ∆/mild cognitive impairment/amnestic mild cognitive impairment): memory loss not meeting criteria for dementia, progresses to AD at rate of 10-15% per year, clinical diagnosis (no test)

A

amnestic mild cognitive impairment

165
Q

(age assoc cognitive ∆/mild cognitive impairment/amnestic mild cognitive impairment/early onset AD/late onset AD): rare, familial, single gene mutation on 1, 14, 21 (presenilin 1 and 2, abnormal amyloid precursor protein on 21)

A

early onset AD

166
Q

(age assoc cognitive ∆/mild cognitive impairment/amnestic mild cognitive impairment/early onset AD/late onset AD): chromosome 19–apolipoprotein E4 gene implicated

A

late onset AD, after age 60

167
Q

(age assoc cognitive ∆/mild cognitive impairment/amnestic mild cognitive impairment/early onset AD/late onset AD): difficulty retrieving words and names, slower processing speed, difficulty sustaining attention when faced with competing stimuli

A

age assoc changes

168
Q

(age assoc cognitive ∆/mild cognitive impairment/amnestic mild cognitive impairment/early onset AD/late onset AD): memory complaint corroborated by an informant, objective memory impairment for age and education, preserved general cognition

A

mild cognitive impairment

169
Q

AD spares which brain lobe

A

occipital

170
Q

in AD, tau is (hypo/hyper) phosphorylated

A

hyper phosphorylated and assemble to form paired helical filaments, which bundle together to form neurofibrillary tangles

171
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar degeneration) has knife edge on gross exam

A

FTLD

172
Q

early (cognitive/functional/behavioral) signs of AD: trouble keeping appointments, misplacing objects

A

cognitive

173
Q

early (cognitive/functional/behavioral) signs of AD: difficulty driving, selecting clothes, problems at work

A

functional

174
Q

early (cognitive/functional/behavioral) signs of AD: subtle changes in personality, social withdrawal, depression

A

behavioral

175
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): early decline in social interpersonal conduct, loss of insight

A

FTLD

176
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): careful use of atypical antipsychotics

A

FTLD

177
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): use quetapine, risperdol

A

FTLD those are examples of atypicals

178
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): use divalproex

A

FTLD for behavior control

179
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): SSRIs for irritability, depression, impulsive behaviors

A

FTLD

180
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): cholinergic therapy, NMDA receptor antagonists, treat symptoms

A

AD (AD degenerates ACh producing nucleus of Meynert)

181
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): rivastigmine, galantamine

A

AD, inhibits AChE

182
Q

(AD/frontotemporal lobar dementia): memantine

A

AD, antagonist of NMDA receptor

183
Q

(antipsychotics/antidepressants/anxiolytics): risperidone and haloperidol

A

antipsychotics

184
Q

(antipsychotics/antidepressants/anxiolytics): sertraline and venlafaxine

A

antidepressants

185
Q

(antipsychotics/antidepressants/anxiolytics): buspirone and lorazepam

A

anxiolytics

186
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): multi infarct dementia, typically occurs in assoc with AD, cerebral amyloid angiopathy

A

vascular dementia

187
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): hypertensive small vessel disease, lacunar infarcts, leukoaraiosis, subcortical dementia

A

vascular dementia

188
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): stepwise progression, most common dementia after AD

A

vascular

189
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): most cases are sporadic, resting tremor, akinesia (difficulty initiating movement), shuffling gait, dopaminergic deficit

A

Parkinson

190
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): pallor of substantia nigra, Lewy bodies

A

Parkinson

191
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): frontal and subcortical features, such as attention deficits, fluctuations in symptoms, visual hallucinations

A

LBD

192
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): avoid antipsychotics due to increased sensitivity

A

LBD

193
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): onset of dementia WITHIN 12 months of parkinsonism

A

LBD

194
Q

(Lewy body dementia/vascular dementia/Parkinson): onset of dementia MORE THAN 12 months after the diagnosis

A

Parkinson

195
Q

Psychodynamics: psychotic defenses: (delusional projection/psychotic denial/distortion): perception of one’s feelings in another person then acting on it, or opposite “the devil is devouring my heart”

A

delusional projection

196
Q

Psychodynamics: psychotic defenses: (delusional projection/psychotic denial/distortion): “I am Jesus Christ”

A

denial–denying who he actually is

197
Q

Psychodynamics: psychotic defenses: (delusional projection/psychotic denial/distortion): unrealistic megalomaniacal beliefs, hallucinations, delusional superiority

A

distortion

198
Q

Psychodynamics: immature defenses: (projection/somatization/acting out/splitting): seeing people and events as ALL good or ALL bad, will quickly switch between the two (borderline PD)

A

splitting

199
Q

Psychodynamics: immature defenses: (projection/somatization/acting out/splitting): turning an unacceptable impulse or feeling into complaints of pain or somatic illness

A

somatization (conversion disorder)

200
Q

Psychodynamics: immature defenses: (projection/somatization/acting out/splitting): paranoid personality, attributing one’s own unacknowledged feelings to others

A

projection. behavior may be eccentric but within the letter of the law

201
Q

Psychodynamics: immature defenses: (projection/somatization/acting out/splitting): includes chronic use of drugs or self inflicted injury to relieve tension (do instead of feel)

A

acting out (antisocial personality)

202
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): OCD rituals

A

undoing

203
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): hating someone or something one really likes

A

reaction formation

204
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): childlike behavior in times of stress (when sibling is born, medical crises)

A

regression

205
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): no emotional reaction to event

A

isolation of affect

206
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): stockholm syndrome

A

identification

207
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): commonest defense seen in medical practice

A

denial

208
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): forget event bc it’s too difficult to deal with

A

dissociation

209
Q

Psychodynamics: neurotic defenses: (denial/displacement/dissociation/identification/intellectualization/isolation of affect/rationalization/reaction formation/regression/undoing): road rage when angry at your boss

A

displacement

210
Q

Psychodynamics: mature defenses: (altruism/sublimation/anticipation/suppression/humor): not multi tasking, looking for silver linings, stiff upper lip

A

suppression

211
Q

Psychodynamics: mature defenses: (altruism/sublimation/anticipation/suppression/humor): expressing aggression through sports, artistic expression

A

sublimation

212
Q

Psychodynamics: mature defenses: (altruism/sublimation/anticipation/suppression/humor): premature but realistic affective planning for death, surgery, separation

A

anticipation

213
Q

Pain: treatment for inflammatory pain, something wrong with tissues

A

NSAIDs, opioids

214
Q

Pain: treatment for neuropathic pain, something wrong with nerves, longer term

A

anticonvulsants, tricyclics, SNRIs

215
Q

Pain: when giving opioids, what class of medication must you NOT co-prescribe

A

benzos

216
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): Na channel blockers (3)

A

carbamazepine, lamotrigine, topiramate

217
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): Ca channel blockers (2)

A

gabapentin, pregabalin

218
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): may cause aplastic anemia, requires blood levels, use for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

219
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): may cause weight gain, sedation, use for diabetic neuropathy

A

gabapentin

220
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): may cause Steven Johnson Syndrome rash, no pain approvals

A

lamotrigine

221
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): may cause mild addiction, weight gain, sedation. use for diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia

A

pregabalin

222
Q

Pain: antiepileptic drugs: (carbamazepine/lamotrigine/gabapentin/pregabalin/topiramate): may cause weight LOSS, acidosis, glaucoma. use for migraines

A

topiramate

223
Q

Pain: antidepressants for pain: (duloxetine/amitriptyline/milnacipran): TCA, serotonin and NE side effects, anticholinergic side effects, Na channel blockade

A

amitriptyline

224
Q

Pain: antidepressants for pain: (duloxetine/amitriptyline/milnacipran): SNRI, serotonin and NE side effects (2)

A

duloxetine, milnacipram

225
Q

Pain: chronic neuropathic pain due to (NE excess synaptic activity/lessening of Ca influx/glutamate excess synaptic activity)

A

glutamate excess synaptic activity

226
Q

Somatoform disorders: (somatization/conversion/hypochondriasis/body dysmorphic/pain/factitious/malingering): genuine, multiple pain issues, onset before age 30, unconscious, no secondary gain

A

somatization

227
Q

Somatoform disorders: (somatization/conversion/hypochondriasis/body dysmorphic/pain/factitious/malingering): one place with very distinct pain, no secondary gain, cannot be explained by medical causes

A

pain disorder

228
Q

Somatoform disorders: (somatization/conversion/hypochondriasis/body dysmorphic/pain/factitious/malingering): secondary gain, wants to assume the sick role, get angry when confronted, common in medical field workers

A

factitious disorder (formerly Munchausen)

229
Q

Somatoform disorders: (somatization/conversion/hypochondriasis/body dysmorphic/pain/factitious/malingering): going blind after seeing something violent, arm paralysis after shooting someone in self defense

A

conversion

230
Q

Somatoform disorders: (somatization/conversion/hypochondriasis/body dysmorphic/pain/factitious/malingering): not a psychiatric illness, could be a crime, lying to get disability

A

malingering

231
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): focuses on loss/grief, role disputes, role transitions, connecting problematic early attachments to current relationships

A

interpersonal

232
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): used to treat depression, eating disorders

A

interpersonal

233
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): normalizing boundaries, redefining blame, treat children with behavior problems, teens with eating disorders or substance abuse

A

family

234
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): monitor thoughts, correct errors in logic, used to treat depression, anxiety, eating disorders

A

cognitive

235
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): emphasizes hw, direction of session activity, teaching skills

A

CBT

236
Q

Therapy: (interpersonal/family/behavioral/cognitive/CBT): classical and operant conditioning, relearn associations, token economy for ADHD

A

behavioral

237
Q

Therapy: most effective interval of reinforcement (fixed/variable)

A

variable–never know when the reward will come

238
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) treat withdrawal with benzo replacement, reverse intoxication with flumazenil

A

sedatives

239
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) treat withdrawal (seizures life threatening) with benzos (cross reactive), treat intoxication with support/ventilation

A

alcohol

240
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) withdrawal includes fatigue, anhedonia, depression, increased sleep, increased appetite. Treat intoxication with meds to reverse specific symptoms

A

stimulants

241
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) intoxication includes pupil constriction, red conjunctiva, panic, expansive thought

A

cannabis

242
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) intoxication includes nystagmus, tremors, hyperreflexia

A

hallucinogens

243
Q

Addiction: (alcohol/sedatives/stimulants/opiates/hallucinogens/cannabis) yawning in withdrawal, goose flesh, dilated pupils

A

opiates, treat with methadone

244
Q

Smoking cessation: (nicotine patch/bupropion/varenicline): blocks reuptake of NE and DA, improves alertness, attention, motivation

A

bupropion

245
Q

Smoking cessation: (nicotine patch/bupropion/varenicline): prevents withdrawal

A

nicotine patch, full agonist

246
Q

Smoking cessation: (nicotine patch/bupropion/varenicline): replace a full agonist with a partial agonist, avoid most withdrawal

A

varenicline