Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 - Clinical Science and Professionalism > Before exam > Flashcards

Before exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the types of adverse drug reaction

A

A

  • Common
  • unlikely to be fatal

B

  • Rare
  • likely to be fatal

C

  • related to cumulative dose
  • time related

D

  • delayed
  • usually dose related
  • occurs or becomes apparent some time after use of drugs

E
- happens when you suddenly stop taking the drug

F

  • failure
  • drug interactions leads to failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADRs are common in

A
  • more than 10% of patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ADRs that are uncommon occur in

A
  • more than 0.1% but less than 1% of patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ADRs that are rare occur in

A
  • more than 0.01% but less than 0.1% of patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ADRs that are very rare occur in

A
  • less than 0.01% of patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the volume of distribution ratio

A

Vd = total amount of drug in the body/ plasma drug concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drugs have a higher and low Volume Distribution

A
  • Drugs which are highly water soluble (gentamicin, atenolol and insulin_ or extensively protein bound( e.g. warfarin) have a relatively low Vd since they stay in the plasma
  • Drugs which are highly lipid soluble (e.g. digoxin, morphine, and diazepam) have a larger volume distribution since these drugs go out of plasma into tissues and organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is first order elimination

A
  • this is when half life is independent of drug concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is zero order elimination

A
  • when the enzyme is saturated only a fixed amount per hour is removed from the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name the sum of total body clearance

A

CL=CLh +CLr

- total body clearance is the sum of the individual clearances for each elimination tissue or organ (renal and hepatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the elimination rate constant (K)

A
  • K= Cl/Vd
  • the greater the fraction of drug removed in unit time the shorter the half life, thereofre half life varies inversely with elimination rate cnstant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are unlicensed preparations

A

this is when there is a need to use a medicine that doesn’t have a product authorisation in the UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three categories of unlicensed preparations

A
  1. the medicine is produced and licensed in another country and imported
  2. the medicine is unlicensed and produced in a licensed manufacturing unit in this country
  3. the medicine is unlicensed and produced in an unlicensed manufacturing facility such as a pharmacy department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you know if a person can make a specific decision

A
  • understand information about the decision to be made
  • be able to retain that information
  • be able to use that information to make their decision
  • be able to communicate that decision back to you
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what drugs can induce nephrotoxicity

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • amphotericin
  • cytotoxic chemotherapy
  • diuretics
  • immunosuppressants
  • lithium salts
  • NSAIDs/COX-2 inhibitors
  • radiocontrast media
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who should ACE/ARB inhibitors be offered to patients with CKD and..

A
  • diabetes mellitus and an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more (ACR A2 or A3)
  • Hypertension and an ACE or 30 mg/mmol or more (ACE A3).
  • an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, irrespective of whether the patient is hypertensive or has cardiovascular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what level of potassium concentration should be treated straight away

A
  • Treat hyperkalaemia urgently if the serum potassium concentration reaches 6.5 mmol/k
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many

  • Grams in a Kg
  • how many mg in a g
  • how many micrograms in an mg
  • how many nanograms in a microgram
A
  • 1Kg = 1000g
  • 1g = 1000mg (milligrams)
  • 1mg = 1000 micrograms
  • 1 microgram = 1000 nanograms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is % w/v

A
  • this represents percentage weight per volume
  • this is used when a defined weight of a medicine (or chemical) is added to a volume of diluent
  • in a 1% w/v solution there is 1g of drug in 100ml of the final product
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TH1 cytokines

A

IL-12 causes proliferation into TH1

TH1 produces - IL-2, Interferon gamma, TNF alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TH2 cytokines

A

IL-4 causes proliferation into TH2

TH2 produces - IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What antibody test is used in pernicious anaemia

A

Anti intrinsic factor antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the blood results of GP6D show

A

Heniz bodies

Bite and blister cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between sequestration and aplastic anaemia in sickle cell disease

A

Sudden fall in haemoglobin and reduced reticulocyte is indicative of aplastic crisis whereas sequstration has raised reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is first line for polycythaemia vera

A

Venesection

26
Q

What can polycythaemia vera transform into

A

AML or myelofibrosis

27
Q

How do you treat TACO

A

IV diuretics

28
Q

What cancer gets more painful when drinking alcohol

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

29
Q

What blood film indicates sickle cell anaemia

A

High reticulocytes and haemoglobin low indicates sickle cell anaemia

30
Q

What is the most common thrombophilia

A

Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden) is the most common inherited thrombophilia = In patients with factor V Leiden, activated factor V is inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal

31
Q

What is another name for factor V Leiden

A
  • Activated protein C resistance
32
Q

Typical blood findings on a blood film in hyposplenism

A

Howell-Jolly bodies and siderocytes

33
Q

How can myelofirbosis present on a blood film

A

thrombocytosis, anaemia, and raised LDH and uric acid.

34
Q

What cancer does myleodysplasia progress to

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

35
Q

What is the mutation in Burkitts lymphoma

A

c-myc gene translocation

36
Q

What is the most common form of lymphoma

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma is by far the most common form of lymphoma in the UK

37
Q

What is atelectasis

A

is a common postoperative complication in which basal alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty. It is caused when airways become obstructed by bronchial secretions
- should be suspected int he presentation of dyspnoea and hypoxaemia around 72 hours post operatively

38
Q

How do you treat atelectasis

A

positioning the patient upright

chest physiotherapy: breathing exercises

39
Q

How do you treat antiphophoslipid disease in pregnancy

A

aspirin + LMWH

40
Q

What is a common blood finding in alcohol liver disease

A

Thrombocytopenia is a common finding in alcoholic liver disease

41
Q

What Hodgkin lymphoma has the best prognosis

A

lymphocyte predominant

42
Q

What is the most common Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Nodular sclerosing

43
Q

Difference between APTT and PT

A

APTT - Inartistic and common

PT - extrinsic and common

44
Q

what is the ratio of the therapeutic index

A

toxic/therapeutic

T1 = TD50/ED50

45
Q

name the sites of action of antimicrobials

A

Cell wall synthesis

  • B- lactase
  • Glycopepetides

DNA gyrase

  • DNA gyrase- Quinolones
  • DNA replication = Metronidazole

DNA- directed RNA polymerase
- rifampicin

Protein synthesis 50S inhibitors

  • chloramphenicol
  • macrolides
  • clindamycin

Protein synthesis 30S inhibitors

  • aminoglycosides
  • tetracyclines

Cell wall

Cytoplasmic membrane structure
- polymixins

Folic acid metabolism

  • DHF - dihydrofolate
  • THF - tetrahydrofolate
46
Q

Name examples of beta lactams

A

Beta lactam agents

  • pencillins
  • cepsphosporins
  • carbapenems
  • aztreonam
47
Q

Name some examples of glycopeptides

A
  • vancomycin

- teicoplanin

48
Q

name an example of carbapenems

A

Meropenem

49
Q

what is red man syndrome

A

Red man syndrome (RMS) is a reaction caused by the rapid infusion of the glycopeptide antibiotic Vancomycin.

effects

  • pruritic erythematous rash to the face, neck and upper torso
  • can involve extremities to a lesser degree
50
Q

Name some examples of aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin and Amikacin

51
Q

Name some examples of macrolides

A

erythromycin,
clarithromycin
azithromycin

52
Q

list examples of quinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin
moxifloxacin
leveofloxacin

53
Q

Name two examples of antifolates

A
  • Sulphonamides

- Trimethoprim

54
Q

What is the first line treatment for bronchiectasis

A

physical training (e.g. inspiratory muscle training) - has a good evidence base for patients with non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis
postural drainage
antibiotics for exacerbations + long-term rotating antibiotics in severe cases
bronchodilators in selected cases
immunisations
surgery in selected cases (e.g. Localised disease)

55
Q

What do stomach cells produce

A

Goblet cells - mucus
Parietal cells - gastric acid
Chief cells - pepsinogen
D cells - somatostatin (inhibits acid secretion)
G cells - gastrin (stimulates acid secretion)

56
Q

What are the vagal manoeuvres

A

Vagal manourve types
• Czermak–Hering test = consisting of the application of external digital pressure to thecarotid sinus.
• Oculocardiac reflex(also known as Aschner–Dagnini reflex) = traction applied toextraocular musclesand/or compression of theeyeball
• Valsalva maneuver = TheValsalva maneuveris performed by moderately forceful attemptedexhalationagainst a closedairway, usually done by closing one’s mouth, pinching one’s nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon.
• Mammalian diving reflex = The diving reflex is triggered specifically by chilling and wetting thenostrilsand face while breath-holding,

57
Q

Non dihydrpyridine v dihydropyridine

A 
Non dihydropyridine 
	- Verapamil 
	- Diltiazem 
Dihydropyridine 
	- Amolipine 
        - Nifidipine
58
Q

eGFR stages

A 
Stage 1 =>90 
Stage 2 = 60-90 
Stage 3 = 30-59
Stage 4 = 29-15 
Stage 5 = <15
59
Q

Valve sounds

  • Ejection systolic
  • Pansystolic
  • early diastolic
  • Late diastolic
A

Ejection systolic

  • aortic stenosis (louder on expiration)
  • pulmonary stenosis (louder on inspiration) = prominent a wave in JVP

Pansystolic

  • mitral regurgitation (louder on expiration)
  • tricuspid regurgitation (louder on inspiration) = giant V waves and prominent Y descent in JVP
  • VSD

early diastolic
- Aortic regurgitation

mid-Late diastolic

  • Mitral stenosis
  • tricuspid stenosis
60
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer

A

Ductal

61
Q

What is haemolytic ureic syndrome

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is generally seen in young children and produces a triad of:

  • acute kidney injury
  • microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  • thrombocytopenia

treatment is supportive e.g. Fluids, blood transfusion and dialysis if required

62
Q

What is Budd chair syndrome

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome, or hepatic vein thrombosis, is usually seen in the context of underlying haematological disease or another procoagulant condition.

Causes
polycythaemia rubra vera
thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies
pregnancy
combined oral contraceptive pill: accounts for around 20% of cases

The features are classically a triad of:
abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
ascites → abdominal distension
tender hepatomegaly

Investigations
ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

Year 3 - Clinical Science and Professionalism (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions