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BB Flashcards

1
Q

what stabilizes free oligonucleotides (mRNA transcripts)?

A

polyadenylation

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2
Q

how is polyadenylation stabilizing?

A

poly-A tail: important for nuclear export/translation + stability of mRNA

tail shortens over time

when tail is short enough, mRNA is enzymatically degraded

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3
Q

type 1 restriction enzyme:

A

cuts DNA at/near specific recognition nucleotide sequence (restriction sites)

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4
Q

type 1 enzymes cleave at sites near or far from recognition site

A

FAR

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5
Q

type 1 restriction enzymes require both

A

ATP and s-adenosyl-L-methionine to function

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6
Q

type II enzymes cleave within or at

A

short specific distances from their recognition sites and often require magnesium

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7
Q

type III restriction enzymes cleave at

A

sites a short distance from their recognition sites

require ATP (don’t hydrolyze it)

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8
Q

type IV restriction enzyme target

A

modified (e.g. methylated, hydroxymethylated) DNA

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9
Q
A
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10
Q

if the function of colonic chloride transporters is impaired, what would happen

A

decreased waste fluidity

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11
Q

why would insulin not travel via the macula communicans pathway?

A

insulin would be too large as it’s a peptide hormone

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11
Q

inhibiting acetylcholine would cause

A

flaccid paralysis

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12
Q

acetylcholine is responsible for

A

propagating nerve impulses across neuromuscular juction

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13
Q

by inhibiting acetylcholine release, the toxin interferes with

A

nerve impulses and causes flaccid paralysis of muscles

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14
Q

gas chromatography separates molecules based on

A

affinity

requires molecules be vaporized

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15
Q

mass spectrometry is used to measure the

A

size of one molecule

not useful to separate two molecules

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16
Q

thin layer chromatography (TLC) separates molecules based on

A

affinity

not useful to separate 2 large molecules by size

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17
Q

size-exclusion chromatography can be used to

A

separate two proteins by size

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18
Q

antibodies are made to

A

recognize and bind specific epitopes of biomolecules like proteins

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19
Q

antigens are

A

surface proteins that identify markers on cells/molecules

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20
Q

antigens interact with

A

antibodies and wouldn’t be able to bind/isolate a toxin

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21
Q

why is calcium most likely to use a protein channel to cross the eukaryotic cell membrane?

A

Ca^2+ are charged and unable to pass through the membrane without an ion channel

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22
Q

the addition and removal of acetyl groups does what

A

regulates DNA expression

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23
Q

removing acetyl groups from lysine residues of histones would have what effect?

A

gene silencing

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24
Q

tight junctions are areas where the

A

membranes of two closely-joined cells stick to each other tightly

form a nearly impenetrable barrier

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25
Q

sequence of transmission for impulses from transcranial magnetic stimulation (CNS –> PNS)

A

cerebral cortex

spinal cord

efferent neurons

skeletal muscle cells

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26
Q

which of the following processes is involved in the motor-evoked potential elicited by transcranial magnetic stimulation?

A

Na+ influx

Ca2+ release

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27
Q

how is self-renewal of undifferentiated stem cells a trait of cancer stem cells?

A

cancer stem cells may be able to resist chemo –> replication/differentiate as needed

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28
Q

peptide bonds found in the backbone of proteins are especially stable because they

A

exhibit resonance stabilization around the carbonyl carbons

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29
Q

a peptide is an

A

amide linkage b/w amine group of 1 AA and the carboxylic acid group of another AA

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30
Q

amides are stable because

A

they show resonance stabilization b/w the lone pair on the nitrogen and the double bond in the carbonyl group

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31
Q

In prokaryotes, genes can exist as operons that are transcribed into a polycistronic mRNA, containing multiple genes in a single transcript. In eukaryotes, transcripts exist only as monocistronic mRNA containing a single gene. What fundamental genetic difference is responsible for this distinction?

A

in eukaryotes, each gene has its own transcription initiation site

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32
Q

In miRNA-directed gene silencing, a small RNA binds to another mRNA molecule and suppresses its expression. Which of the following terms describes the process through which this binding occurs?

A

hybridization

describes a process of binding with complementary nucleotides

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33
Q

charge of basic residues

A

positive

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34
Q

at physiological pH, what are the charges on the COOH and amino terminals?

A

-1 on deprotonated COOH

+1 on protonated amino

7.4 physiological pH

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35
Q

adaptive immunity is directed against

A

particular pathogens to which the body has been previously exposed

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36
Q

what is the advantage of adaptive immunity?

A

pathogens are remembered by specialized cells –> quicker response in case of 2nd exposure

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37
Q

antibodies are produced by

A

B-lymphocytes

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38
Q

what differentiates eosinophils from erythrocytes?

A

eosinophils contain a membrane bound nucleus

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39
Q

Which of the following enzymes should the researchers add to the cell samples if they want to reverse the general catalytic effects of protein kinase A?

A

protein phophatase 1

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40
Q

a kinase will add OR remove a

A

add a phosphate group to substrate

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41
Q

removal of a phosphate group is done by which enzyme

A

phosphatase enzymes

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42
Q

A rapid mechanism is thought to govern the localization of AQP5 in response to changes in extracellular osmolarity. If this mechanism is independent of both PKA activity and S156 phosphorylation, which of the following will most likely be observed?

A

According to the passage, aquaporins “transport water in response to osmotic gradients.” An osmotic gradient is simply a concentration difference; in this case, it is the difference in solute concentration between the cell interior and its external environment. A very hypotonic, or dilute, environment will create a greater osmotic gradient than an isotonic environment, which would be similar in concentration to the cell. Thus, we can infer that aquaporins, including AQP5, will localize to the plasma membrane to a greater extent in hypotonic than in isotonic conditions. Water tends to flow down its concentration gradient, from areas of low solute (high water) concentration to areas of high solute (low water) concentration.

Here, then, water should flow from the hypotonic exterior of each cell into the more solute-rich interior, as depicted below.

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43
Q

Increasing plasma concentration of aldosterone is most likely to be followed by which of the following?

A

Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule

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44
Q

aldosterone is released from

A

the adrenal cortex in response to low BPp

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45
Q

primary function of aldosterone

A

increase sodium reabsorption in distal tubule and collecting duct

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46
Q

what does aldosterone regualate

A

upregulates sodium-potassium pumps along nephron lining

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47
Q

3-2-1 NOKIA

A

3 Na Out of nephron, toward blood

2 K in toward nephron, away from blood

1 ATP

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48
Q

When normal human cells are grown in culture, they only undergo mitosis a limited number of times – typically 50 divisions. After this limit is reached, cells become apoptotic. This eventual cell death is likely the result of:

A

DNA polymerase not be able to completely replication chromosome ends during each cell division cycle

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49
Q

during mitosis, telomeres get

A

progressively shorter

eventually chromosomes lose their telomeres and can’t reproduce

leads to cell death

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50
Q

A student finishes an experiment involving several types of highly pathogenic bacteria. She wishes to dispose of the agar plates and micropipette tips she used. Which of the following procedures should she carry out?

A

Place all materials in an open metal container and autoclave the container to kill bacteria via heat

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51
Q

What is the most likely transmission mechanism for the passage of Leigh syndrome from parent to child?

A

The inheritance pattern described in the prompt is one in which females transmit Leigh syndrome to all of their offspring.  This means Leigh syndrome is a maternally-transmitted disease. Because it is also a cytoplasmically inherited disorder, it will be transmitted through cytoplasmic components, of which mitochondria are examples.

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52
Q

The researchers participating in the experiments described above were assigned to conduct new experimentation, also on Leigh syndrome-positive mouse specimens. As a precursor step, it was decided to create a new population of Leigh syndrome-positive mice. What would be the option most likely to be successful in creating this population?

A

Induction of intentional mutations in the mitochondria of pre-fertilization ova

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53
Q

receptor tyrosine kinases do what when ligands bind?

A

dimerize and phosphorylate each other

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54
Q

electrons flow from cytochromes with

A

low reduction potential to high reduction potential

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55
Q

reduced potential indicates an

A

oxidized molecule’s affinity for electrons

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56
Q

insulin is a product of

A

pancreatic beta cells

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57
Q

insulin promotes

A

glucose uptake by certain tissues

decreases liver glucose production

supports glycogenesis

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58
Q

what is released into the duodenal lumen during digestion?

A

BILE (aids in mechanical digestion of lipids)

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59
Q

peristalsis involves which organs/structures

A

esophagus

stomach

small intestine

large intestine

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60
Q

small intestine divisions

A

duodenum

jejunum

ileum

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61
Q

what kind of digestion is done in the small intestine

A

chemical

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62
Q

absorption occurs across the

A

epithelial cells lining the small intestine

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63
Q

after absorption in the small intestine, what happens

A

any undigestible material passes to the large intestine

water and electrolytes are absorbed to form solid feces

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64
Q

what lines the abdominal cavity?

A

peritoneum

made of 2 tissue layers

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65
Q

first layer of peritoneum is called

A

the parietal layer (lines abdominal wall)

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66
Q

second layer of peritoneum is called

A

the vascular layer (covers many organs of abdominal cavity)

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67
Q

peritoneal cavity is the

A

space between 2 layers of peritoneu

68
Q

endocrine pancreas secretes hormones involved in

A

regulation of blood glucose into bloodstream

69
Q

exocrine pancreas secretes

A

digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine to help w/ digestive processes and neutralize the acidity of chyme

70
Q

final portion of GI tract is

A

large intestine

71
Q

3 subdivisions of large intestine

A

cecum

colon

rectum

72
Q

subdivisions of colon

A

ascending colon

transverse colon

descending colon

sigmoid colon

from proximal to distal

73
Q

the order of peristaltic contractions

A

cecum

ascending colon

transverse colon

descending colon

sigmoid colon

74
Q

hydrolysis of a glycerophospholipid produces

A

two fatty acids for every glycerol molecule produced

75
Q

what will an X-ray of the lungs of an asthmatic reacting to cat dander look like?

A

hyperexpanded lung volumes

76
Q

why would the lungs of someone w/ asthma reacting to cat dander be hyperexpanded?

A

airway is clogged w/ mucus

bronchiole constriction

wheezing occurs as airways are forced to push harder w/ diaphragm to get air out

77
Q

muscle that makes up diaphragm?

A

skeletal

78
Q

neurotransmitter associated w/ the diaphragm

A

acetylcholine

79
Q

the diaphragm is innervated by which nerve?

A

phrenic nerve

80
Q

phrenic nerve originates in

A

both the cerebral cortex (voluntary breathing) and brain stem (involuntary control)

81
Q

viral infection would lead to an increase in which pathways?

A

aerobic respiration

pentose phosphate pathway

82
Q

why would viral infection lead to an increase in PPP?

A

PPP is involved in producing essential precursors for nucleotide synthesis (necessary for DNA rep and RNA transcription)

83
Q

a heart murmur caused by failure of the AV valves to close properly would most likely be classified as a

A

systolic murmur b/c this would allow regurgitation of blood from ventricles to the atria during systole

84
Q

bile is sometimes referred to as intestinal soap because

A

it emulsifies fat in the intestines like soap emulsifies fat on your hands when you wash them

85
Q

high concentration of ATP stimulates production of

A

both pyrimidines and purines

86
Q

PRPP is a precursor to

A

purines and pyrimidines

87
Q

conversion of NADP+ to NADPH is what kind of reaction

A

reduction

88
Q

as NADP+ accepts electrons, what is oxidized

A

g6p

89
Q

loss of a CO2 molecule is called

A

decarboxylation

90
Q

PP pathway replenishes what

A

NADPH

91
Q

NADPH is used by which major pathway

A

fatty acid biosynthesis

92
Q

NADPH cannot be used to generate ATP via the

A

ETC and ox phos

93
Q

NADH is needed for what

A

etc and ox phos

94
Q

double stranded DNA is not involved in which process

A

mitosis

95
Q

explain dna recombination

A

recombination aka crossing over in meiosis

begins w/ double stranded DNA break followed by invasion of opposite starand

96
Q

balanced and unbalanced Robertsonian translocations involve

A

double stranded DNA breaks so that two chromosomes can exchange long arms

97
Q

translocation is the

A

addition and deletion of genetic material

98
Q

what can translocation cause?

A

severe congenital abnormamlities

termination of pregnancies

99
Q

southern blots are used to

A

analyze extracted DNA for a potential DNA segment

can not provide info about chromosome structure

100
Q

karyotyping is capable of detecting

A

a missing chromosome

101
Q

fluorescent in situ hybridization uses what to…

A

fluorescent DNA to bind to chromosomes and detect a translocation

102
Q

when something is a transcription factor, it must be localized in the

A

nucleus

103
Q

when something is a transcription factor, it does what to DNA

A

binds it

104
Q

a strong lewis acid will be electron-

A

poor

105
Q

a strong lewis base will be electron-

A

rich

106
Q

a strong lewis acid will want to be bonded to

A

leaving groups

107
Q

a strong lewis base will be

A

surrounded by leaving groups

108
Q

in the absence of electron transport, what is no longer needed

A

oxygen

109
Q

oxygen is the final

A

electron acceptor in ETC

110
Q

when the etc is not available to make ATP, cells rely on

A

anaerobic respiration (glycolysis)

111
Q

glycolysis requires what to make ATP

A

glucose

112
Q

long retention times on the size-exclusion chromatography (SEC) column means

A

SMALL molecules (oligomers)

113
Q

small molecules on SEC column means

A

they are more volatile and have shorter retention times on GC

114
Q

short SEC retention time means that

A

oligomers are large and less volatile

longer GC retention times

115
Q

when less phosphate is reabsorbed from filtrated back to blood, what happens

A

hypophoshatemia

decreased phosphate in blood

116
Q

decreased phosphate in blood leads to

A

decreased vit D levels/production

117
Q

PTH is secreted by

A

4 small parathyroid glands located posterior to the thyroid

functions to increase serum Ca2+ levels

118
Q

exogenous corticosteroids would provide negative feedback to the

A

hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis and inhibit both CRH and ACTH

119
Q

dendritic cells are one type of

A

APC (antigen-presenting cell)

120
Q

APCs have a direct role in all types of rejection, T or F?

A

false

121
Q

epinephrine acts on what to activate adenylate cyclase

A

GPCRs

122
Q

adenylate cyclase is activated to

A

convert ATP to cAMP

123
Q

what would negatively regulate PFK in glycolysis?

A

high citric acid levels as they would slow down glycolysis

reducing available acetyl-CoA to krebs cycle

124
Q

the greater an element’s oxidation potential, the more…

A

readily the atom will lose an electron and the more reactive the element is

125
Q

if antibodies stimulated a downstream response, the muscles would

A

contract rather than feel weak

126
Q

antibodies aren’t enzymes, they cannot

A

directly degrade antigens

127
Q

muscle weakness in Myasthenia occurs when antibodies are

A

bound to acetylcholine receptors and endogenous acetylcholine cannot bind

muscles can’t contact despite signal from motor neuron

128
Q

in the GI tract, cholesterol is a precursor to

A

bile salts

129
Q

cholesterol serves as precursor to the synthesis of:

A

steroid hormones

bile salts

vitamin D

130
Q

in the context of the GI tract, the liver synthesizes

A

cholesterol

exports it as bile salts

131
Q

after liver synthesizes cholesterol and exports it as bile salts, they are stored in the

A

gallbladder

132
Q

when needed, the gallbladder releases…

A

bile salts into the small intestine

133
Q

what happens to the bile salts in the small intestine?

A

bile salts help emulsify dietary fats and facilitate their absorption

134
Q

insulin is what kind of hormone?

A

peptide hormone

135
Q

insulin is produced by the

A

pancreas

regulates blood glucose levels

136
Q

exocrine pancreas is responsible for

A

secretion of digestive enzymes

majority of pancreas

137
Q

digestive enzymes produced by exocrine pancreas are released into the

A

pancreatic duct

connects to the common bile duct

eventually empties into duodenum of small intestine

138
Q

main enzymes secreted by exocrine pancreas include

A

amylase (breaks down carbs)

lipase (breaks down lipids)

proteases (breaks down proteins)

139
Q

endocrine pancreas is composed of

A

islets of Langerhans

140
Q

islets of Langerhans produce and secrete

A

insulin and glucagon

directly into bloodstream to regulate blood glucose

141
Q

insulin is secreted by what cells

A

beta-islet cells

promotes uptake of glucose by cells

conversation of glucose to glycogen in liver + muscles

142
Q

glucagon is produced by what cells

A

alpha-islet cells

stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver

and breakdown of lipids to release fatty acids as an energy source

143
Q

exocrine pancreas does what?

A

releases its products (digestive enzymes) into GI tract

144
Q

endocrine pancreas does what?

A

releases its products (hormones) into blood

145
Q

duodenum receives

A

bile from liver and pancreatic enzymes to further digest food

146
Q

jejunum is where

A

most nutrient absorption occurs

147
Q

ileum absorbs

A

bile salts, vitamin B12, any remaining nutrients

148
Q

large intestine includes

A

cecum, rectum, anus

149
Q

large intestine primarily absorbs

A

water + electrolytes

150
Q

appendix is a

A

small, finger-like projection attached to the cecum

reservoir for beneficial bacteria

151
Q

major difference between digestion and absorption of lipids and carbs:

A

lipids are transferred w/ lymphatic ducts before entering circulation

152
Q

lipid digestion starts in the

A

stomach

gastric lipase initiates breakdown of triglycerides into diglycerides/fatty acids

153
Q

monoglycerides and free fatty acids are absorbed by

A

enterocytes and incorporated into chylomicrons

154
Q

chylomicrons are

A

large lipoprotein particles

155
Q

how do chylomicrons enter the bloodstream

A

too large to enter directly

enter the lymphatic system via lacteals before being released into the bloodstream

156
Q

lipids are chemically digested in the

A

duodenum

157
Q

carbohydrate digestion occurs in the

A

small intestine

158
Q

lipid absortion begins in the

A

small intestine

159
Q

CCK is a

A

peptide hormone

part of digestive system

160
Q

what produces CCK

A

I-cells in the mucosal lining of the small intestine

and the brain

161
Q

CCK functions

A

stimulating release of bile from gallbladder

promoting pancreatic enzyme secretion

slowing down gastric emptying

162
Q

CCK helps regulate the

A

digestion and absorption of nutrients, particularly fats

163
Q

during fasting, the body relies on

A

stored energy sources like glycogen and fats to meet energy demands

164
Q

during fasting, CCK levels in blood are generally low since…

A

there is no need for its digestive functions such as bile release or pancreatic enzyme secretion

165
Q

when a meal with fats is consumed, CCK levels do what?

A

rise in response to nutrients in the small intestine

166
Q

increase in CCK levels helps stimulate the

A

gallbladder to release bile for fat emulsification/absorption

167
Q
A

practice test review (4 decks)

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