BB Flashcards

1
Q

is the study of blood group antigens and antibodies, HLA antigens and antibodies, pretransfusion testing, identification of unexpected alloantibodies, immune hemolysis, autoantibodies, drugs, blood collection, blood components, cryopreservation of blood, transfusion transmitted viruses, tissue banking and organ transplantation, blood transfusion practice, safety, quality assessment, records, blood inventory management, and blood usage review.

A

Immunohematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

foreign molecules that bind specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor.

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ells or tissue from a genetically different individual.

A

Allogeneic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cells or tissue from self.

A

Autologous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

small-molecular-weight particle that requires a carrier molecule to be recognized by the immune system

A

Hapten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

study of blood group antigens and antibodies.

A

Immunohematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lymphocytes that mature in the bone marrow, differentiate into plasma cells when stimulated by an antigen, and produce antibodies.

A

B lymphocytes (B cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lymphocytes that mature in the thymus and produce cytokines to activate the immune cells including the B cell.

A

T lymphocytes (T cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

secreted proteins that regulate the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. They can increase or decrease cell proliferation, antibody production, and inflammation reactions.

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

B cells produced after the first exposure that remain in the circulation and can recognize and respond to an antigen faster.

A

Memory B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

antibody-producing B cells that have reached the end of their differentiating pathway.

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sites on an antigen that are recognized and bound by a particular antibody or T-cell receptor (also called epitopes).

A

Antigenic determinants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

single antigenic determinants; functionally, they are the parts of the antigen that combine with the antibody.

A

Epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

family of cells or organisms having genetically identical constitution.

A

Clone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

antigen in its role of eliciting an immune response.

A

Immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

simple sugars, such as monosaccharides and starches (polysaccharides).

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fatty acids and glycerol compounds.

A

Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is an antigen that provokes the immune response. Not all antigens are immunogens.

A

immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

glycoprotein (immunoglobulin) that recognizes a particular epitope on an antigen and facilitates clearance of that antigen.

A

Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

antibody; glycoprotein secreted by plasma cells that binds to specific epitopes on antigenic substances.

A

Immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

larger polypeptides of an antibody molecule composed of a variable and constant region; five major classes of heavy chains determine the isotype of an antibody.

A

Heavy chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

smaller polypeptides of an antibody molecule composed of a variable and constant region; two major types of light chains exist in humans (kappa and lambda).

A

Light chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

one of five types of immunoglobulins determined by the heavy chain: IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, and IgD.

A

Isotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

one of the two types of light chains that make up an immunoglobulin.

A

Kappa chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
one of the two types of light chains that make up an immunoglobulin.
Lambda chains
26
one of the two types of light chains that make up an immunoglobulin.
Lambda chains
27
amino-terminal portions of immunoglobulins and T-cell receptor chains that are highly variable and responsible for the antigenic specificity of these molecules.
Variable regions
28
non-variable portions of the heavy and light chains of an immunoglobulin.
Constant regions
29
variable part of an antibody or T-cell receptor; the antigen-binding site.
Idiotope
30
portion of the immunoglobulin heavy chains between the Fc and Fab region; provides flexibility to the molecule to allow two antigen-binding sites to function independently.
Hinge region
31
red cell destruction by phagocytes residing in the liver and spleen usually facilitated by IgG opsonization.
Extravascular hemolysis
32
number of epitopes per molecule of antigen.
Valency
33
red cell lyses occurring within the blood vessels usually by IgM activation of complement.
Intravascular hemolysis
34
having a combining power of two.
Bivalent
35
condition caused by destruction of fetal orneonatal red cells by maternal antibodies.
Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
36
immune response induced by initial exposure to the antigen.
Primary immune response
37
method is necessary to detect antigen-antibody complexes involving IgG antibodies in vitro.
antiglobulin test
38
process of somatic mutations in the immunoglobulin gene causing the formation of variations in the affinity of the antibody to the antigen. B cells with the highest affinity are “selected” for the best fit, and the resulting antibody is stronger38. Secondary immune response: immune response induced after a second exposure to the antigen, which activates the memory lymphocytes for a quicker response.
Affinity maturation
39
secondary immune response. Multiple stimulations of the immune system with the same antigen produce antibodies with increased binding strength as a result of affinity maturation.
Anamnestic response
40
complex of one or more antibody molecules bound to an antigen.
Immune complex
41
strength of the binding between a single antibody and an epitope of an antigen.
Affinity
42
overall strength of reaction between several epitopes and antibodies; depends on the affinity of the antibody, valency, and noncovalent attractive forces.
Avidity
43
compounds containing carbohydrate and protein molecules.
Glycoproteins
44
compounds containing carbohydrate and lipid molecules.
Glycolipids
45
visible clumping of particulate antigens caused by interaction with a specific antibody.
Agglutination
46
antibodies with specificities other than self; stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy.
Alloantibodies
47
test to determine the presence of alloantibodies.
Antibody screen test
48
group of serum proteins that participate in an enzymatic cascade, ultimately generating the membrane attack complex that causes lysis of cellular elements.
Complement system
49
C5 to C9 proteins of the complement system that mediate cell lysis in the target cell.
Membrane attack complex
50
lysis or rupture of erythrocytes.
Hemolysis
51
activation of complement that is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes.
Classical pathway
52
activation of complement that is initiated by foreign cell-surface constituents.
Alternative pathway
53
complement split products (C3a, C4a, and C5a) that mediate degranulation of mast cells and basophils, which results in smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability.
Anaphylatoxins
54
products such as histamines released by basophils, mast cells, and platelets that act on the endothelium and smooth muscle of the local vasculature.
Vasoactive amines
55
movement of cells in the direction of the antigenic stimulus.
Chemotactic
56
substance (antibody or complement protein) that binds to an antigen and enhances phagocytosis.
Opsonin
57
molecules on the cell surface that have a high affinity for a particular ligand.
Receptors
58
system of mononuclear phagocytic cells, associated with the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes, that clears microbes and damaged cells.
Mononuclear phagocyte system
59
binding of antibody or complement components to a red cell.
Sensitization
60
combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form cross-links and result in visible agglutination.
Lattice formation
61
ratio of antigen on the red cell to antibody in the serum.
Serum-to-cell ratio
62
interpretation of agglutination reactions immediately after centrifugation and without incubation.
Immediate-spin
63
electrostatic potential measured between the red cell membrane and the slipping plane of the same cell.
Zeta potential
64
number of binding sites of multivalent antigen and antibody are approximately equal.
Zone of equivalence
65
excess antibody causing a false-negative reaction.
Prozone
66
excess antigen causing a false-negative reaction.
Postzone
67
fluid above cells or particles after centrifugation.
Supernatant
68
unresponsiveness to platelet transfusions owing to HLA-specific or platelet-specific antibodies or platelet destruction from fever or sepsis. Responsiveness is measured by posttransfusion platelet counts.
Refractoriness
69
set of linked genes inherited together because of their close proximity on a chromosome.
Haplotype
70
different forms of a gene present at a particular chromosomal locus.
Alleles
71
genetic system that expresses several possible alleles at specific loci on a chromosome.
Polymorphic
72
antibody destruction of a newborn’s platelets caused by antibodies formed from prior pregnancies and directed to paternal antigens.
Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
73
antibodies with specificities other than self; stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy.
Alloantibodies
74
antibody destruction of platelets after transfusion.
Posttransfusion purpura
75
First time a blood transfusion was recorded in history.
Pope Innocent VII
76
Sodium phosphate
Braxton Hicks
77
ABO blood groups
Karl Landsteiner
78
Vein to vein transfusion
Edward E. Lindemann
79
Syringe-valve apparatus
Unger
80
Sodium citrate
Hustin
81
Minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation
Lewisohn
82
Citrate dextrose solution
Rous and Turner
83
Techniques in blood transfusion and blood preservation
Dr. Charles Drew
84
Introduced the formula for the preservative acid-citrate dextrose
Loutit and Mollison
85
Introduced citrate-phosphate dextrose
Gibson
86
The amount of whole blood in a unit has been______of blood
450 mL +/- 10%
87
For a____donor, a maximum of_____ can be collected
110 lb, 525 mL
88
Total blood volume for most adults
10 to 12 pints
89
Donors can replenish the fluid lost from the donation of
1 pint in 24 hours
90
The donor’s red cells are replaced within_____after donation.
1 to 2 months
91
A volunteer donor can donate blood every, every what week?
8 weeks
92
What are the units of the whole blood can be separated into three components?
Packed red blood cells, platelets, and plasma
93
The plasma can be converted by_______to a clotting factor concentrate that is rich in antihemophilic factor.
cryoprecipitation
94
A unit of whole blood-prepared RBCs may be stored for
21 to 42 days
95
THE DONATION PROCESS Educational material that contains information on the risks of infectious diseases transmitted by blood transfusion, including the symptoms and sign of AIDS, is given to each prospective donor to read.
Step 1: Educational Materials
96
A uniform donor history questionnaire, designed to ask questions that protect the health of both the donor and the recipient, is given to every donor. The health history questionnaire is used to identify donors who have been exposed to diseases that can be transmitted in blood.
Step 2: The Donor Health History Questionnaire
97
The abbreviated physical examination for donors includes blood pressure, pulse, and temperature readings; hemoglobin or hematocrit level; and the inspection of the arms for skin lesions.
Step 3: The Abbreviated Physical Examination
98
Syphilis
1950’s
99
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg)
1971
100
Hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc)
1986
101
Hepatitis C virus antibody (anti-HCV
1990
102
Human immunodeficiency virus antibodies (anti- HIV-1/2)
1992
103
Human T cell lymphotropic virus
19972
104
NAT-nucleic acid amplification testing, **Initially under IND starting in
1999
105
Anti-HIV-1 testing implemented
1985
106
Anti-HTLV testing implemented
1988
107
Three areas of RBC biology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival function:
1. Normal chemical composition and structure of the RBC membrane 2. Hemoglobin structure and function 3. RBC metabolism
108
main lipid component of the membrane, arranged in a bilayer structure comprising the framework in which globular proteins traverse and move.
Phospholipids
109
The biochemical composition of the RBC membrane is approximately
52% protein, 40% lipid, and 8% carbohydrate.
110
The loss of RBC membrane is exemplified by the formation of spherocytes (no central pallor) and bite cells.
Deformability
111
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1) (NAT) Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) (NAT)
1999
112
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) (NAT)
2004
113
Trypanosoma cruzi antibody (anti-T. cruzi)
2007
114
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) NAT
2009
115
Babesia microti antibody and NAT (recommended)
2012
116
Zika virus NAT
2016
117
The RBC membrane is freely permeable to water and anions. * The RBC membrane is relatively impermeable to cations such as sodium and potassium * The erythrocyte intracellular-to- extracellular ratios for Na+ and K+ are 1:12 and 25:1, respectively
Permeability
118
Goal of Blood preservation: To provide viable and functional blood components for patients requiring blood transfusion. * To maintain optimum viability, blood is stored in the liquid state between 1oC and 6oC for a specific number of days, as determined by the preservative solution(s) used. * The loss of RBC viability has been correlated with the “lesion of storage” which is associated with various biochemical changes.
RBC PRESERVATION
119
RBC Storage Lesion CHARACTERISTIC % Viable Cells Glucose ATP Lactic Acid pH 2,3-DPG Oxygen Dissociation Curve Plasma K+ Plasma hemoglobin
CHANGE OBSERVED Decreased Decreased Decreased Increased Decreased Decreased Shift to the Left Increased Increased
120
Adenine supplemented blood can be stored at
1 to 6 degrees Celsius for 35 days
121
chelates calcium; prevents clotting 2.
Citrate
122
maintains pH during storage
Monobasic sodium phosphate
123
Substrate for ATP production
Dextrose
124
Production of ATP
Adenine
125
Acid Citrate-Dextrose (formula A)*
ABBR. STORAGE TIME (DAYS) ACD-A 21
126
Citrate-phosphate dextrose
ABBR. STORAGE TIME (DAYS) CPD 21
127
Citrate-phosphate-double dextrose
ABBR. STORAGE TIME (DAYS) CP2D 21
128
Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine
ABBR. STORAGE TIME (DAYS) CPDA-1 35
129
Preserving solutions that are added to the RBCs after removal of the plasma with or without platelets.
ADDITIVE SOLUTIONS
130
In additive solutions, how many hematocrit will decrease?
70% to 85% to around 50% to 60%
131
What are the benefits of RBC Additive Solutions?
1. Extends the shelf-life of RBCs to 42 days by adding nutrients 2. Allows for the harvesting of more plasma and platelets from the unit 3. Produces an RBC concentrate of lower viscosity that is easier to infuse
132
Used for autologous units and storage of rare blood types. * It involves the addition of a cryoprotective agent to RBCs that are less than 6 days old * Currently, the FDA licenses frozen RBCs for a period of 10 years from the date of freezing; that is, frozen RBCs may be stored up to 10 years before thawing and transfusion.
RBC FREEZING
133
Rejuvenation of RBCs is the process by which ATP and 2,3-DPG levels are restored or enhanced by metabolic alterations. * FDA-approved rejuvenation solution contains phosphate, inosine, and adenine * RBCs may be prepared up to three days after expiration when stored in CPD, CPDA-1, and AS- 1 storage solutions.
RBC REJUVENATION
134
currently the only FDA approved rejuvenation solution sold in the US.
Rejuvesol
135
* Platelets are involved in the blood coagulation process and are given to treat or prevent bleeding. They are given either therapeutically to stop bleeding or prophylactically to prevent bleeding. * Platelets are intimately involved in primary hemostasis, which is the interaction of platelets and the vascular endothelium in halting and preventing bleeding following vascular injury. * The role of platelets in hemostasis includes: 1. initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug formation 2. stabilization of the hemostatic plug by contributing to the process of fibrin formation 3. maintenance of vascular integrity.
PLATELET PRESERVATION
136
Platelets are stored at 20°C to 24°C with maintaining continuous gentle agitation throughout the storage period of 5 days * The loss of platelet quality during storage is known as the platelet storage lesion.
Platelet Storage Lesion
137
Factors to be considered when using 5-day plastic storage bags
1. Temperature control of 20°C to 24°C is critical during platelet preparation and storage. 2. Careful handling of plastic bags during expression of platelet-poor plasma helps prevent the platelet button from being distributed and prevents removal of excess platelets with the platelet-poor plasma. 3. Residual plasma volumes recommended for the storage of platelet concentrates from whole blood (45 to 65 mL). 4. For apheresis platelets, the surface area of the storage bags needs to allow for the number of platelets that will be stored.
138
A platelet concentrate should contain a minimum of
5.5 X 1010/L platelets in a volume routinely between 45 and 65 mL that is sufficient to maintain a pH of 6.2 or greater at the conclusion of the 5-day storage period.
139
When platelet concentrates are pooled using an open system, the storage time changes
to 4 hours.
140
Apheresis components contain
4 to 6 times as many platelets as a PC prepared from whole blood.
141
Platelet components are stored for
up to 5 days at 20-24 C.
142
When necessary, as during shipping, platelets can be stored without continuous agitation for up to
24 hours at 20-24oC during a 5-day storage period
143
Platelets are rarely stored at
1 to 6 degrees Celsius.
144
If a platelet bag is broken or opened, the platelets must be transfused within
4 hours when stored at 20 to 24 degrees Celsius.
145
System for continuous temp. monitoring and audible alarm
Blood storage refrigerators and freezers, platelet incubators
146
compare against thermometer daily. Calibrate as necessary.
Temperature recorder
147
Check high and low temp. of activation quarterly
Alarms
148
Check temperature daily
Waterbath
149
Check temperature daily. Periodically check each well
Heat blocks
150
Determine optimum speed and time for different procedures upon receipt, after repairs and periodically. Check timer every 3 months, RPM every 6 months (with tachometer).
Centrifuges
151
Check tube fill level daily, AHG volume monthly. Verify time and speed quarterly. Calibrate quarterly
Cell washers
152
Calibrate quarterly
Pipettes
153
Test with positive and negative controls each day of use. Use heterozygous cells for positive controls.
Antisera
154
Check for hemolysis. Test each day of use with positive and negative controls.
Reagent Cells
155
Check anti-IgG activity each day of use by testing Rh-pos cells sensitized with anti-D.
Antihuman globulin
156
Study of transmission of inherited characteristics.
Genetics
157
groups of related RBC antigens inherited according to Mendelian genetics
Blood group systems
158
Physical, observable expression of inherited traits; detectable products
Phenotype
159
Inherited genes; actual genetic makeup
Genotype
160
Visual map that displays a family history and can display inheritance patterns for individual traits
Pedigree chart
161
Smallest unit of inheritance
Gene
162
Site on chromosome where specific genes are located
Genetic locus
163
Alternative forms of a gene
Alleles
164
Opposite form of a gene, different allele
Antithetical
165
Having two or more possible alleles at a locus
Polymorphic
166
Equal expression of both alleles in phenotype
Codominant
167
Genes expressed with equal frequency in males and females, on non-sex chromosome
Autosomal
168
Set of genes inherited via one of the two parental gametes
Haplotype
169
Genes that do not produce a detectable product
Amorph
170
Identical alleles at the same gene locus from both parents
Homozygous
171
Different alleles at the same gene locus from each parent
Heterozygous
172
Agglutination reactions are generally stronger for homozygous cells and slightly weaker for heterozygous cells.
Dosage Effect
173
Genes are inherited on the same chromosome
Cis
174
Genes are inherited on separate chromosomes. Genes inherited in transposition can weaken the trait’s expression.
Trans
175
states that factors for different characteristics are inherited in dependent of each other if they reside on different chromosomes.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment
176
is the process by which somatic cells divide, with an end result of two identical daughtercells
Mitosis
177
is the cell division process that takes place in germ cells that concludes in the production of haploid gametes, with an end result of four unique daughter cells.
Meiosis
178
refers to any structural alteration of DNA in an organism (mutant) that is caused by a physical or chemical agent (mutagen) and can occur spontaneously.
Mutations
179
is an enzymatic process whereby genetic information in a DNA strand is copied into an mRNA complementary strand.
Transcription
180
is the complex process by which mRNA, which contains a mobile version of the DNA template encoding the genes for an organism
Translation
181