Battalion Chief Package 2024 - Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
Which is the only Buckeye Pipeline Drill where members are allowed to shut down the valves?
A: Familiarization Drills
B: Battalion Drills
C: Division Drills
D: Borough Drills

A

Question 1:
Which is the only Buckeye Pipeline Drill where members are allowed to shut down the valves?
A: Familiarization Drills

B: Battalion Drills

C: Division Drills

D:✔Borough Drills

Explanation:
A- Conducted March/April and September/October
B- There is no Battalion Drill
C- Conducted March/April and September/October
D- Conducted October/November
AUC 149 10.5.10

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2
Q

Question 2:
One of an Incident Commander’s responsibilities includes communication of details of noteworthy events to the on-duty Command Chief for relay to the Chief of Department and Fire Commissioner. Of the following choices, which is not accurately defined as a “noteworthy incident”?
A: Large scale evacuation of buildings

B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption

C: Vacates involving public buildings or shelters

D: Fire/emergencies in any type of occupancy

A

Question 2:
One of an Incident Commander’s responsibilities includes communication of details of noteworthy events to the on-duty Command Chief for relay to the Chief of Department and Fire Commissioner. Of the following choices, which is not accurately defined as a “noteworthy incident”?
A: Large scale evacuation of buildings

B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption

C: Vacates involving public buildings or shelters

D:✔Fire/emergencies in any type of occupancy

Explanation:
D) Fire/emergencies in “high profile” occupancies/locations
Regulations ch 11 sec 11.5.9

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3
Q

Question 3:
Backdrafts and smoke explosions are dangerous fire events that do not occur often but tend to occur more frequently during taxpayer fires than in other types of occupancies. They occur when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the _______ Stage.
A: Decay
B: Incipient
C: Fully Developed
D: Growth

A

Question 3:
Backdrafts and smoke explosions are dangerous fire events that do not occur often but tend to occur more frequently during taxpayer fires than in other types of occupancies. They occur when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the _______ Stage.
A:✔Decay

B: Incipient

C: Fully Developed

D: Growth

Explanation:
Taxpayers 4.4.1

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4
Q

Question 4:
Which of the following statements is not in accordance with the Department’s Workplace Violence Prevention Policy?
A: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded in a sealed envelope directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. This report shall not be forwarded through the chain of command.
B: A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit.
C: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
D: Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.
SAVE ANSWER!

A

Question 4:
Which of the following statements is not in accordance with the Department’s Workplace Violence Prevention Policy?
A:✔Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded in a sealed envelope directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. This report shall not be forwarded through the chain of command.

B:✘A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit.

C: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

D: Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.

Explanation:
Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis
PA/ID 8 Ch 5 1.5, 1.6, 11.1.1, 11.2.1

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5
Q

Question 6:
The Department’s Bereavement Leave Policy is described correctly below in all choices except?
A: A member receiving a death notification when on duty will be promptly excused by the immediate superior officer on duty.
B: Bereavement Leave may not be less than four (4) calendar days.
C: Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 1800 hours following time of death.
D: One copy of the Bereavement Leave Report should be forwarded immediately; and the second copy forwarded with the transcript of death.

A

Question 6:
The Department’s Bereavement Leave Policy is described correctly below in all choices except?
A: A member receiving a death notification when on duty will be promptly excused by the immediate superior officer on duty.

B: Bereavement Leave may not be less than four (4) calendar days.

C:✔Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 1800 hours following time of death.

D: One copy of the Bereavement Leave Report should be forwarded immediately; and the second copy forwarded with the transcript of death.

Explanation:
C) Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 0900 hours following time of death. In circumstances where there will be a delay in the services of the deceased, members may, with the approval of the Battalion and Division, begin their Bereavement leave at 0900 hours on a later date.
PAID 1 Ch 3 2.6-2.8, 3.3

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6
Q

Question 7:
In the event of a building collapse, the FDNY has adopted a victim location marking system. Choose the correct “marking” for search teams to use when searching for a known or potential victim.
A: A large “V”, (for Victim) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential victim. An arrow may need to be added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby
B: A large “P”, (for Person) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential person. An arrow may need to be added next to the “P” pointing towards the person’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby
C: A large “H”, (for Human) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential human. An arrow may need to be added next to the “H” pointing towards the human’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby
D: A large “P”, (for Patient) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential patient. An arrow may need to be added next to the “P” pointing towards the patient’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

A

Question 7:
In the event of a building collapse, the FDNY has adopted a victim location marking system. Choose the correct “marking” for search teams to use when searching for a known or potential victim.
A:✔A large “V”, (for Victim) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential victim. An arrow may need to be added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

B: A large “P”, (for Person) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential person. An arrow may need to be added next to the “P” pointing towards the person’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

C: A large “H”, (for Human) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential human. An arrow may need to be added next to the “H” pointing towards the human’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

D: A large “P”, (for Patient) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential patient. An arrow may need to be added next to the “P” pointing towards the patient’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

Explanation:
Collapse add 2 sec 5…… there are many variables to these markings

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7
Q

Question 8:
Comp time is accrued by department members during the Memorial Day and Veterans Day Holidays. Ladder 1 is a company of veterans and their Memorial Day 6x9 riding list reads as follows… Lt. Force (PCOT), Fr. Marine (mx), Fr. Army (mx), Fr. Navy (msot), Fr. Coast (11), Fr. Guard (12), Fr. Rescue (mx off)… Which members are entitled to Comp Time during the night tour?
A: All members except Fr. Rescue are entitled to 6 hours Comp Time.
B: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy, Fr. Coast, Fr. Guard, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
C: Lt. Force, Fr. Marine, Fr. Army, Fr. Navy, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
D: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
SAVE ANSWER!

A

Question 8:
Comp time is accrued by department members during the Memorial Day and Veterans Day Holidays. Ladder 1 is a company of veterans and their Memorial Day 6x9 riding list reads as follows… Lt. Force (PCOT), Fr. Marine (mx), Fr. Army (mx), Fr. Navy (msot), Fr. Coast (11), Fr. Guard (12), Fr. Rescue (mx off)… Which members are entitled to Comp Time during the night tour?
A: All members except Fr. Rescue are entitled to 6 hours Comp Time.

B:✔Lt. Force, Fr. Navy, Fr. Coast, Fr. Guard, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.

C: Lt. Force, Fr. Marine, Fr. Army, Fr. Navy, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.

D: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.

Explanation:
PAID 1 Ch 16
Eligibility is not affected by mutual exchange of tours. It shall be considered as if no mutual exchange has taken place and eligible member who was scheduled in accordance with working charts shall be entitled to actual or comp time.
** Far more likely to see this as an in-basket type question, but it could easily appear like this or as a day book photo asking you who is eligible for Comp Time and how much based on the tour. The rule of thumb is if you’re scheduled to work or on overtime, you get it… Hire a Vet! Members on mutuals are not entitled to Comp Time…

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8
Q

Question 9:
A Captain studying for her chief promotion would be wise to know which point below regarding wind is incorrect?
A: The direction and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.
B: Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable. Wind impacted fires have occurred on upper and lower floors.
C: Building height, size, shape and location of adjoining or adjacent buildings add to the unpredictability of the effects of wind on fire conditions.
D: It takes very high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside a building. Winds of less than 10mph will have little, or no, effect on fire operations.

A

Question 9:
A Captain studying for her chief promotion would be wise to know which point below regarding wind is incorrect?
A: The direction and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

B: Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable. Wind impacted fires have occurred on upper and lower floors.

C: Building height, size, shape and location of adjoining or adjacent buildings add to the unpredictability of the effects of wind on fire conditions.

D:✔It takes very high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside a building. Winds of less than 10mph will have little, or no, effect on fire operations.

Explanation:
D. It does NOT take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.
MD Ch 5 sec 3.2.1

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9
Q

Question 10:
You are taking up from a subway incident for a rubbish fire on the tracks. You transmit what 10 code?
A: 10-21

B: 10-22

C: 10-27-2

D: 10-28-2

A

Question 10:
You are taking up from a subway incident for a rubbish fire on the tracks. You transmit what 10 code?
A: 10-21

B: 10-22

C:✘10-27-2

D:✔10-28-2

Explanation:
A- Brush fire
B- Outside rubbish fire
C- 10-27 Compactor or Incinerator
D- 10-28 (Subway or Railroad System-Fire, Emergency (non-medical) or Smoke Condition
10-28-1 Structural fire
10-28-2 Non-Structural fire (train fire, rubbish on the tracks)
10-28-3 Emergency (non medical
Communications ch 8

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10
Q

Question 5:
You are working in B-400 on January 1st, 2018, when you receive a phone call from E-200 that the apparatus has a flat tire and the unit will be OOS for a few hours. B-400 consists of three double firehouses besides E-200; E-300, L-400, B-400; E-400, L-500; E-500, L-600, and BFU1. As the Battalion Chief of B-400, with E-200 OOS, you decide correctly to do what with the members?
A: Leave the unit intact since the repair would be less than four hours
B: Activate the BFU
C: Detail members to the Division for clerical work
D: Detail members to the Borough for clerical work

A

Question 5:
You are working in B-400 on January 1st, 2018, when you receive a phone call from E-200 that the apparatus has a flat tire and the unit will be OOS for a few hours. B-400 consists of three double firehouses besides E-200; E-300, L-400, B-400; E-400, L-500; E-500, L-600, and BFU1. As the Battalion Chief of B-400, with E-200 OOS, you decide correctly to do what with the members?
A:✘Leave the unit intact since the repair would be less than four hours

B:✔Activate the BFU

C: Detail members to the Division for clerical work

D: Detail members to the Borough for clerical work

Explanation:
When a unit quartered in the same battalion as a BFU goes OOS for mechanical reasons during periods when the BFU is not staffed independently, the BC may utilize members of the OOS unit to activate the BFU
BFU independently staffed from March 17 to April 30 and October 17th to November 30th
AUC 151 4.5.17

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11
Q

Question 11:
A knowledgeable BC would know that Japan had an attack on their subway system using the nerve agent Sarin (GB). Sarin has which of the following odors?
A: No odor
B: Camphor
C: Fishy, musty odor
D: Odor of musky hay

A

Question 11:
A knowledgeable BC would know that Japan had an attack on their subway system using the nerve agent Sarin (GB). Sarin has which of the following odors?
A:✔No odor

B: Camphor

C: Fishy, musty odor

D:✘Odor of musky hay

Explanation:
ERP Add 2 page 18
B. Soman has a camphor odor and fruit odor
C. ***Nitrogen mustard has a Fishy, musty odor. Don’t confuse with Phosphine gas which has a Fish or Garlic Like odor
D. Phosgene has an Odor of musky hay

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12
Q

Question 12:
You respond to a Class 3 alarm with 3 engines and 2 ladder companies. After several minutes searching for the cause, your first due ladder officer tells you that occupants were cooking with a propane BBQ on the roof of the building and the smoke from the BBQ drifted down into an open window, which caused the alarm system to activate. You transmit what 10 code?
A: 10-35 no code

B: 10-35-1

C: 10-35-2

D: 10-33-2

E: 10-35-4

A

Question 12:
You respond to a Class 3 alarm with 3 engines and 2 ladder companies. After several minutes searching for the cause, your first due ladder officer tells you that occupants were cooking with a propane BBQ on the roof of the building and the smoke from the BBQ drifted down into an open window, which caused the alarm system to activate. You transmit what 10 code?
A: 10-35 no code

B: 10-35-1

C: 10-35-2

D:✘10-33-2

E:✔10-35-4

Explanation:
The 10-35 code is for an Unwarranted or Unnecessary alarm excluding a sprinkler system alarm or an alarm system activation resulting from a utility power fluctuation (10-40-2)
Communications ch 8

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13
Q

Question 13:
Which choice below most accurately reflects the locations which are defined as a “workplace” for the purposes of the New York City Fire Department’s EEO Policy? 1. Firehouse 2. Drill site 3. Fire/Emergency scene 4. Field Building 5. Hydrant inspection 6. Fire Department Headquarters, Medical Office, etc. 7. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) in the city 8. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) outside the city
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
C: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
D: 1,2,4,5,6

A

Question 13:
Which choice below most accurately reflects the locations which are defined as a “workplace” for the purposes of the New York City Fire Department’s EEO Policy? 1. Firehouse 2. Drill site 3. Fire/Emergency scene 4. Field Building 5. Hydrant inspection 6. Fire Department Headquarters, Medical Office, etc. 7. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) in the city 8. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) outside the city
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6

B:✔1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8

C: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7

D: 1,2,4,5,6

Explanation:
These include functions whether members are on or off duty
TB EEO 1.4

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14
Q

Question 14:
You are the incident commander on the scene of a confined space emergency where members will have to make an entry to remove an injured and unconscious worker. According to the confined space bulletin, which of the atmospheric conditions listed below needs correcting?
A: Carbon Monoxide toxicity levels of 35ppm or less
B: Oxygen concentration levels between 18.5% and 23.5%
C: Hydrogen Sulfide levels of 10PPM or less
D: Flammability range not over 10% of LEL

A

Question 14:
You are the incident commander on the scene of a confined space emergency where members will have to make an entry to remove an injured and unconscious worker. According to the confined space bulletin, which of the atmospheric conditions listed below needs correcting?
A: Carbon Monoxide toxicity levels of 35ppm or less

B:✔Oxygen concentration levels between 18.5% and 23.5%

C: Hydrogen Sulfide levels of 10PPM or less

D: Flammability range not over 10% of LEL

Explanation:
Should be 19.5% & 23.5%.
Confined Space 4.1

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15
Q

Question 15:
Members may be relieved before roll call for a period not to exceed ____ minutes. Such relief shall be on mutual exchange basis; so that member relieved shall in all instances be required to serve the full time for which they were relieved.
A: 30

B:✔60

C: 90

D: 120

A

Question 15:
Members may be relieved before roll call for a period not to exceed ____ minutes. Such relief shall be on mutual exchange basis; so that member relieved shall in all instances be required to serve the full time for which they were relieved.
A: 30

B:✔60

C: 90

D: 120

Explanation:
Regs 21.1.3

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16
Q

Question 16:
An experienced BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding fires in Old Law and New Law Tenements except?
A: Special call an extra engine and truck for fire on two floors. If progress is not made on at least one floor in a short period of time, transmit a 2nd alarm.

B: If fire is in a shaft extending into an exposure, transmit a 2nd alarm. If fire is extending into two exposures, transmit a 3rd alarm.

C:✔It may be necessary to cut a trench in the roof of a NLT in order to prevent the spread of fire, but the size of OLTs prohibit the cutting of a trench and such cuts shall not be attempted.

D: When fire has extended into the cockloft, the Incident Commander should be notified immediately. The Incident Commander shall evaluate conditions, and order a cockloft nozzle to the top floor and a protective hoseline to the roof if deemed necessary.

A

Question 16:
An experienced BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding fires in Old Law and New Law Tenements except?
A: Special call an extra engine and truck for fire on two floors. If progress is not made on at least one floor in a short period of time, transmit a 2nd alarm.

B: If fire is in a shaft extending into an exposure, transmit a 2nd alarm. If fire is extending into two exposures, transmit a 3rd alarm.

C:✔It may be necessary to cut a trench in the roof of a NLT in order to prevent the spread of fire, but the size of OLTs prohibit the cutting of a trench and such cuts shall not be attempted.

D: When fire has extended into the cockloft, the Incident Commander should be notified immediately. The Incident Commander shall evaluate conditions, and order a cockloft nozzle to the top floor and a protective hoseline to the roof if deemed necessary.

Explanation:
Cockloft areas of OLT’s are much smaller than those in NLT’s and therefore are not as much of a problem. It may be necessary to cut a trench in the roof of an OLT in order to prevent the spread of fire, but usually such fires are extinguished from below after an adequate ventilation hole is cut over the fire.
MD Ch 1 sec 2

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17
Q

Question 17:
During a large scale incident within NYC, the DC asked you to retrieve the NYMAC radio and establish a communication link with NYPD. You retrieve the radio and turn it on and switch to which channel?
A: NYMAC 1 channel
B: NYMAC 2 channel
C: NYMAC 3 channel
D: NYMAC 4 Channel
E: NYMAC 5 Channel

A

Question 17:
During a large scale incident within NYC, the DC asked you to retrieve the NYMAC radio and establish a communication link with NYPD. You retrieve the radio and turn it on and switch to which channel?
A:✔NYMAC 1 channel

B: NYMAC 2 channel

C: NYMAC 3 channel

D: NYMAC 4 Channel

E: NYMAC 5 Channel

Explanation:
NYMAC 1 channel is always active and continuously staffed by NYPD personnel
Communications ch 14 add 3 sec 2.1.2

18
Q

Question 18:
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESTIONS BASED ON THE CIDS. (CLICK ON THE CIDS CARD AFTER IT OPENS TO MAKE IT CLEAR AND BIG)… An after action review was performed following a fire on the 43rd floor of the Banker’s Trust Building. Different elevators were used during the operation to access the fire area. Considering all elevators were functional, which of the choices below was most correct regarding elevator usage at High Rise Office Building fires? .
A: The A elevator car was taken to the 42nd Floor
B: The B Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor
C: The C Elevator car was taken to the 40th Floor
D: The D Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor

A

Question 18:
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESTIONS BASED ON THE CIDS. (CLICK ON THE CIDS CARD AFTER IT OPENS TO MAKE IT CLEAR AND BIG)… An after action review was performed following a fire on the 43rd floor of the Banker’s Trust Building. Different elevators were used during the operation to access the fire area. Considering all elevators were functional, which of the choices below was most correct regarding elevator usage at High Rise Office Building fires? .
A: The A elevator car was taken to the 42nd Floor

B: The B Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor

C:✔The C Elevator car was taken to the 40th Floor

D: The D Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor

Explanation:
Elevators 6.1.3 – Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor
6.1.4 – When necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest
C-Correct – The fire floor was 43 and the C bank of elevators terminated within 5 floors of the fire floor – This was the first and best choice
D-Incorrect – The access stair would require an elevator that services the fire floor to be taken to 39. D starts at 40

19
Q

Question 19:
According to the After Action Review, all operating conditions were ideal and weren’t an issue in establishing posts. Based on the CIDS card from the previous question, which chief officer was incorrect in where they established their assigned post?
A: Batt 90 established the SAE Post on the 50th Floor
B: Batt 92 established the Fire Sector on the 42nd Floor
C: Batt 94 established Forward Staging Area on the 40th Floor
D: Batt 96 established the Forward Triage Area on the 39th Floor

A

Question 19:
According to the After Action Review, all operating conditions were ideal and weren’t an issue in establishing posts. Based on the CIDS card from the previous question, which chief officer was incorrect in where they established their assigned post?
A: Batt 90 established the SAE Post on the 50th Floor

B: Batt 92 established the Fire Sector on the 42nd Floor

C:✔Batt 94 established Forward Staging Area on the 40th Floor

D: Batt 96 established the Forward Triage Area on the 39th Floor

Explanation:
High Rise
A-Correct – SAE Post is established AT LEAST 5 floors above the fire floor in this scenario – HR 6.5.2 ex3
B-Correct – Proximity to the units operating within the fire sector, usually the floor below the fire. – HR 6.4.2A
C-INCORRECT – Forward Staging shall be two floors below the original fire floor – Should be on 41 in this scenario – HR 6.6.2
Possible conflict: The glossary states the Forward Staging Area is an are established on “a” floor below the Fire Sector/Branch.
D-Forward Triage is established in an environmentally safe area on A FLOOR below the forward staging – HR 6.7.3

20
Q

Question 20:
Who may approve the issuance of an FDNY Vacate Order?
A: Any Fire officer
B: Only a Battalion Chief or higher
C: Only a Deputy Chief or higher
D: Only a Staff Chief

A

Question 20:
Who may approve the issuance of an FDNY Vacate Order?
A: Any Fire officer

B: Only a Battalion Chief or higher

C:✘Only a Deputy Chief or higher

D:✔Only a Staff Chief

Explanation:
AUC 5 ch 4 add 4 sec 3.1 Note

21
Q

Question 21:
The cockloft nozzle has proven to be an effective tool in fighting cockloft fires. Which of the following statements made during drill is correct in reference to this nozzle?
A: The cockloft nozzle has a 1 ½” female coupling at one end which connects directly to any controlling nozzle shut-off.
B: The cockloft nozzle is a 6’ 3” aluminum pipe with two 1 3/4” Outer Stream Tips
C: These two OST’s should not be removed when the nozzle is being used to extinguish fire in a horizontal area like a cockloft. The design of the OST’s enables the stream to reach in excess of 80 feet
D: The cockloft nozzle is only to be supplied by a 2 1/2” handline

A

Question 21:
The cockloft nozzle has proven to be an effective tool in fighting cockloft fires. Which of the following statements made during drill is correct in reference to this nozzle?
A: The cockloft nozzle has a 1 ½” female coupling at one end which connects directly to any controlling nozzle shut-off.
B: The cockloft nozzle is a 6’ 3” aluminum pipe with two 1 3/4” Outer Stream Tips
C: These two OST’s should not be removed when the nozzle is being used to extinguish fire in a horizontal area like a cockloft. The design of the OST’s enables the stream to reach in excess of 80 feet
D: The cockloft nozzle is only to be supplied by a 2 1/2” handline

22
Q

Question 22:
All marine companies carry an International Shore Connection (ISC). The ISC is a fitting designed to augment the ships fire main system when deemed necessary. It is required on vessels of 500 gross tons and greater. The fitting is connected to the vessels fire main system. All marine companies, as well as some Battalions, carry a corresponding ISC which when attached to a corresponding fitting aboard the vessel permits ______ FDNY threaded hose to be connected to the vessels fire main system.
A: 1 3/4 inch
B: 2 1/2 inch
C: 3 1/2 inch
D: 5 inch

A

Question 22:
All marine companies carry an International Shore Connection (ISC). The ISC is a fitting designed to augment the ships fire main system when deemed necessary. It is required on vessels of 500 gross tons and greater. The fitting is connected to the vessels fire main system. All marine companies, as well as some Battalions, carry a corresponding ISC which when attached to a corresponding fitting aboard the vessel permits ______ FDNY threaded hose to be connected to the vessels fire main system.
A: 1 3/4 inch

B:✔2 1/2 inch

C: 3 1/2 inch

D:✘5 inch

Explanation:
Marine Manual Ch 2 1.12.1 Note

The ISC was hit on a previous BC exam

The new Marine Manual was released in 2021. Don’t give it up

23
Q

Question 23:
When a member in distress has been located, the appropriate radio transmission must be made. Which choice contains correct information regarding priorities at this point in time?
A: Only when the removal involves a conscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.
B: Whether or not the removal involves a conscious or unconscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.
C: Only when the removal involves an unconscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.
D: Packaging a member will always be required, whether or not he or she is found conscious or unconscious.

A

Question 23:
When a member in distress has been located, the appropriate radio transmission must be made. Which choice contains correct information regarding priorities at this point in time?
A: Only when the removal involves a conscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.

B:✔Whether or not the removal involves a conscious or unconscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.

C: Only when the removal involves an unconscious member, the priorities will be: Fire/Environment. Air. Immediate medical care, if required and possible. Removal.

D: Packaging a member will always be required, whether or not he or she is found conscious or unconscious.

Explanation:
CODE: “FAIR”

Additional considerations (when a member is located) are:
Identification of member.
Packaging, if required.
MMID ch3 4.1

24
Q

Question 24:
Repeater channel 14 has just failed during a subway incident. You, the BC, have to transmit an emergency message to all members operating on scene. You decide to instruct your aide to activate the UHF Mobile Radio located in the Battalion vehicle to switch to what channel?
A: Rev Subway 1
B: Rev Subway 2
C: Rev Subway 14
D: Rev Subway 15

A

Question 24:
Repeater channel 14 has just failed during a subway incident. You, the BC, have to transmit an emergency message to all members operating on scene. You decide to instruct your aide to activate the UHF Mobile Radio located in the Battalion vehicle to switch to what channel?
A:✔Rev Subway 1

B: Rev Subway 2

C: Rev Subway 14

D:✘Rev Subway 15

Explanation:
One the Post radio and the UHF Mobile radio, channel “Rev Subway 1” has been added for use if Channel 14 fails, and Channel “Rev Subway 2” has been added for use if Channel 15 fails
AUC 207 add 16 sec 5.3

25
Q

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 25:
A Fast unit drill is being conducted and a member makes several statements regarding who is responsible for monitoring EFAS when all units are on scene. The member was most correct in which choice?
A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit
B: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by the Division Firefighter
C: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a member of the FAST Unit whether or not that member is EFAS trained
D: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a Battalion Firefighter
SAVE ANSWER!

A

Question 25:
A Fast unit drill is being conducted and a member makes several statements regarding who is responsible for monitoring EFAS when all units are on scene. The member was most correct in which choice?
A:✔It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit

B: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by the Division Firefighter

C:✘It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a member of the FAST Unit whether or not that member is EFAS trained

D: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a Battalion Firefighter

Explanation:
Comm 9 Add 3 2.1

Cross Ref 2.3: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division back-up FF, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the Battalion FF if the Battalion FF has not yet been relieved by the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit

26
Q

Question 26:
Upon inspection of a firehouse located in your Battalion, you notice that the Hydrant Pressure Chart is not posted. In regards to the Hydrant Pressure Chart, the most correct statement can be found in which choice?
A: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in June.
B: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the second full week in May.
C: All Engine, Ladders and Squads will take pressure readings.
D: The Hydrant Pressure chart shall be posted at the housewatch area.

A

Question 26:
Upon inspection of a firehouse located in your Battalion, you notice that the Hydrant Pressure Chart is not posted. In regards to the Hydrant Pressure Chart, the most correct statement can be found in which choice?
A: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in June.

B: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the second full week in May.

C: All Engine, Ladders and Squads will take pressure readings.

D:✔The Hydrant Pressure chart shall be posted at the housewatch area.

Explanation:
A. May

B. first full week

C. Engines and Squads (NOT Ladders)

Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 2 4.1

27
Q

Question 27:
Which choice contains incorrect information regarding Old Law Tenements that have been converted to Single Room Occupancies (SROs)?
A: The layout of the rooms must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person’s room.
B: These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the street.
C: The sprinkler system must have a Siamese to be supplied by the Fire Department.
D: These SRO’s require an interior alarm system to warn the occupants of fire. Exit lights and signs must be provided.

A

Question 27:
Which choice contains incorrect information regarding Old Law Tenements that have been converted to Single Room Occupancies (SROs)?
A: The layout of the rooms must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person’s room.

B: These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the street.

C:✔The sprinkler system must have a Siamese to be supplied by the Fire Department.

D: These SRO’s require an interior alarm system to warn the occupants of fire. Exit lights and signs must be provided.

Explanation:
C. The sprinkler system CANNOT be supplied by the Fire Department.
MD Ch 1 3.8.3 D-F

28
Q

Question 28:
As the Chief in charge of a fire in a fireproof high-rise multiple dwelling where a 10-77 was transmitted, when must a Command Channel be established?
A: Immediately, in all cases.
B: If more than one sector is established.
C: Only upon transmission of a 2nd alarm.
D: Only upon transmission of a 3rd alarm.

A

Question 28:
As the Chief in charge of a fire in a fireproof high-rise multiple dwelling where a 10-77 was transmitted, when must a Command Channel be established?
A: Immediately, in all cases.

B:✔If more than one sector is established.

C: Only upon transmission of a 2nd alarm.

D: Only upon transmission of a 3rd alarm.

Explanation:
MD Ch 2 11.5.8 A

29
Q

Question 29:
Steam emergencies may be encountered by members of this Department. Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes and a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Do not randomly shut steam valves inside of a supplied building. Shutting the wrong valve can cause damage to the system creating other hazardous conditions. Instead, follow the directions listed in all choices below with the exception of which incorrect choice?
A: In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.
B: Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it. The system will have to be drained before reopening the valve.
C: Notify Con Edison if a valve is shut. Failure to do so can result in damage to the system and injury to Con Edison personnel working to restore the system.
D: There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members should only attempt to shut this valve in an emergency. If shut, Con Edison steam personnel shall be notified.

A

Question 29:
Steam emergencies may be encountered by members of this Department. Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes and a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Do not randomly shut steam valves inside of a supplied building. Shutting the wrong valve can cause damage to the system creating other hazardous conditions. Instead, follow the directions listed in all choices below with the exception of which incorrect choice?
A: In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.

B: Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it. The system will have to be drained before reopening the valve.

C: Notify Con Edison if a valve is shut. Failure to do so can result in damage to the system and injury to Con Edison personnel working to restore the system.

D:✔There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members should only attempt to shut this valve in an emergency. If shut, Con Edison steam personnel shall be notified.

Explanation:
D) FD members should NOT attempt to shut this valve. This valve should ONLY be shut by Con Edison steam personnel.
EP Steam 4.4 p6

30
Q

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 30:
The First Responder’s Bridge Manual “Field Guide” is for use by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene of an incident on a particular bridge. What color is the “Risk Management Guide”?
A: Red
B: Green
C: Yellow
D: Orange

A

Question 30:
The First Responder’s Bridge Manual “Field Guide” is for use by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene of an incident on a particular bridge. What color is the “Risk Management Guide”?
A:✔Red

B: Green

C: Yellow

D: Orange

Explanation:
A. The Risk Management Guide is for use by the Command Chief.
B) Field Guide.
D) Emergency Response Guidebook for Haz-Mat incidents.
AUC 344 1.2

31
Q

Question 31:
At an incident where a tank truck carrying gasoline rolled over and caught fire, the BC should anticipate that this situation will escalate and that a large caliber foam nozzle will be required. All of the following actions will be necessary except in which choice?
A: A Satellite apparatus or Tower Ladder, if height is an issue, utilizing the Modified Angus Foam Cannon should be positioned as close as possible to the incident.
B: A 2000 GPM pumper attached to a positive water source is needed for supply. This apparatus should be as close to the incident as possible.
C: Determine a Foam Assembly Point for the Foam Tanker or Tender to deliver foam concentrate. The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in and leave from the same direction.
D: The Foam Assembly Point location and direction of access should be relayed to the dispatcher for transmittal over the Department Radio. A Battalion Chief should be assigned this duty.

A

Question 31:
At an incident where a tank truck carrying gasoline rolled over and caught fire, the BC should anticipate that this situation will escalate and that a large caliber foam nozzle will be required. All of the following actions will be necessary except in which choice?
A:✘A Satellite apparatus or Tower Ladder, if height is an issue, utilizing the Modified Angus Foam Cannon should be positioned as close as possible to the incident.

B: A 2000 GPM pumper attached to a positive water source is needed for supply. This apparatus should be as close to the incident as possible.

C:✔Determine a Foam Assembly Point for the Foam Tanker or Tender to deliver foam concentrate. The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in and leave from the same direction.

D: The Foam Assembly Point location and direction of access should be relayed to the dispatcher for transmittal over the Department Radio. A Battalion Chief should be assigned this duty.

Explanation:
The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in from one direction and leave by another.
TB Foam 8.8

32
Q

Question 32:
Following the overturned tanker fire, BC Barloftster was supervising a company drill on basic foam operations and the following statements were made. Which statement below regarding when to operate a foam hand-line needs correcting?
A: When the product is a flammable liquid
B: Any source of ignition is located in the area
C: When the product causes an exposure problem
D: When members are working in the product

A

Question 32:
Following the overturned tanker fire, BC Barloftster was supervising a company drill on basic foam operations and the following statements were made. Which statement below regarding when to operate a foam hand-line needs correcting?
A: When the product is a flammable liquid

B:✔Any source of ignition is located in the area

C: When the product causes an exposure problem

D: When members are working in the product

Explanation:
FOAM – Section 8.2
B is incorrect - When the product is on fire

33
Q

Question 33:
Please download PAID 7 Ch 1 SB 3 Add 3 for your 2 question in basket. The officer of Engine 1 was involved in an accident involving double parked cars while her unit was in a non-response mode. As this was her first accident as a Lieutenant, according to the Department’s “Accident Prevention Program, what shall occur?
A: No action will be taken against this officer.
B: She will attend a Supervisory Conference.
C: She will be interviewed and counseled by a chief officer from her assigned battalion.
D: She will be reassigned for a 60 day period.

A

Question 33:
Please download PAID 7 Ch 1 SB 3 Add 3 for your 2 question in basket. The officer of Engine 1 was involved in an accident involving double parked cars while her unit was in a non-response mode. As this was her first accident as a Lieutenant, according to the Department’s “Accident Prevention Program, what shall occur?
A:✘No action will be taken against this officer.

B:✔She will attend a Supervisory Conference.

C: She will be interviewed and counseled by a chief officer from her assigned battalion.

D: She will be reassigned for a 60 day period.

Explanation:
ANY accident involving double parked cars while the unit is in a “non-response” mode will result in a Supervisory Conference.
SB 3 Add 3

34
Q

Question 34:
Which point below is incorrect regarding the Department’s Extra Departmental Employement (EDE) policy?

A: While on medical leave, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.
B: While on light duty or limited service, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.
C: EDE is automatically revoked when a member is put on Supervised Medical Leave Program (SMLP).
D: Illness or injury sustained in EDE or while serving as a member of a volunteer fire department must be immediately reported to the Bureau of Personnel Resources and to the Medical Office by letterhead report.

A

Question 34:
Which point below is incorrect regarding the Department’s Extra Departmental Employement (EDE) policy?

A: While on medical leave, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.

B:✔While on light duty or limited service, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.

C: EDE is automatically revoked when a member is put on Supervised Medical Leave Program (SMLP).

D:✘Illness or injury sustained in EDE or while serving as a member of a volunteer fire department must be immediately reported to the Bureau of Personnel Resources and to the Medical Office by letterhead report.

Explanation:
B) While on light duty or limited service, members may engage in EDE only with the approval of the Fire Commissioner or the Commissioner’s designee.
D) Note: Members covered by or filing for assistance under workmen’s compensation or disability laws as a result of injury or illness sustained in EDE must make a statement to this effect in the report.
PAID 7 ch 1 sec 1.2, 1.4, 3.1.4, 4.2, 4.3

35
Q

Question 35:
While on BISP, your unit encounters a vacant building in poor condition. The senior member driving you reports that he has never noticed this structure before and that it has probably never been reported. You should know all of the following choices to contain correct information with the exception of which choice?
A: To report the discovery of a vacant building, the Administrative Company shall forward a DOB Referral Report Normal Priority to the Department of Buildings citing Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded.
B: If a vacant building is discovered whose structural integrity is suspect the company should forward a DOB Referral Report as High Priority. Note the structural stability affected and state specific building conditions in the remarks section of the report.
C: All units in their admin area are requested to ensure that a CIDS card is submitted for a Vacant Building. The CIDS card should state that the building is vacant and any apparent safety hazards should be listed.
D: Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by Vacate Orders

A

Question 35:
While on BISP, your unit encounters a vacant building in poor condition. The senior member driving you reports that he has never noticed this structure before and that it has probably never been reported. You should know all of the following choices to contain correct information with the exception of which choice?
A: To report the discovery of a vacant building, the Administrative Company shall forward a DOB Referral Report Normal Priority to the Department of Buildings citing Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded.

B: If a vacant building is discovered whose structural integrity is suspect the company should forward a DOB Referral Report as High Priority. Note the structural stability affected and state specific building conditions in the remarks section of the report.

C: All units in their admin area are requested to ensure that a CIDS card is submitted for a Vacant Building. The CIDS card should state that the building is vacant and any apparent safety hazards should be listed.

D:✔Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by Vacate Orders

Explanation:
Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by with a V.O., or FDNY summons, or referred to FPOSU via an A-8 Fire Department Referral Report
Vacants sec 3.1,

36
Q

Question 36:
Two Battalion Chiefs discussing the Department’s self-mutual policy for firefighters were able to identify which incorrect comment made during their discussion?
A: Requests for self-mutual on and self-mutual off shall be submitted using E-Staffing. Company
B: If possible, such requests should be made at least 72 hours in advance.
C: Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the same Battalion.
D: Friday 6x9 and Sunday 6x9 shall both be considered weekends

A

Question 36:
Two Battalion Chiefs discussing the Department’s self-mutual policy for firefighters were able to identify which incorrect comment made during their discussion?
A: Requests for self-mutual on and self-mutual off shall be submitted using E-Staffing. Company

B: If possible, such requests should be made at least 72 hours in advance.

C:✔Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the same Battalion.

D: Friday 6x9 and Sunday 6x9 shall both be considered weekends

Explanation:
Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the SAME or ADJOINING COMPANY.
PAID 5 ch 2 sec 2 and 4.3

37
Q

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 37:
During taxpayer fire operations, “examination holes” should be cut for all of the following reasons except?
A: Determine if fire has extended to that area.
B: Use right angle tips, or if the cockloft is deep enough, cellar pipes.
C: Determine if and where additional ventilation cuts may be necessary.
D: Serve as an initial ventilation hole.

A

Question 37:
During taxpayer fire operations, “examination holes” should be cut for all of the following reasons except?
A: Determine if fire has extended to that area.

B: Use right angle tips, or if the cockloft is deep enough, cellar pipes.

C: Determine if and where additional ventilation cuts may be necessary.

D:✔Serve as an initial ventilation hole.

Explanation:
Release pent up gases, smoke and heat in areas removed from the fire.
Taxpayer 5.5.21

38
Q

Question 38:
Which definition below is correct regarding Bidirectional Flow Path?
A: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (lower pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (higher pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.
B: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (lower pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (higherer pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the same direction as the seat of the fire.
C: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.
D: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the same direction as the seat of the fire.

A

Question 38:
Which definition below is correct regarding Bidirectional Flow Path?
A: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (lower pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (higher pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

B: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (lower pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (higherer pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the same direction as the seat of the fire.

C:✔A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

D: A flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) AND an entrainment of fresh air in the same direction as the seat of the fire.

Explanation:
Vent glossary

39
Q

Question 39:
When a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor, this is indicative of a ________.
A: Tent floor collapse

B: Curtain-fall wall collapse

C: V-shaped floor collapse

D: Lean-To collapse

A

Question 39:
When a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor, this is indicative of a ________.
A:✔Tent floor collapse

B: Curtain-fall wall collapse

C: V-shaped floor collapse

D: Lean-To collapse

Explanation:
Collapse Add 3 7

40
Q

Question 40:
The NYC Transit Authority’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) can be found at a number of locations throughout the transit system. Which location below is listed incorrectly?
A: At underground stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).

B: At grade level stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

C: At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

D: An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

A

Question 40:
The NYC Transit Authority’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) can be found at a number of locations throughout the transit system. Which location below is listed incorrectly?
A: At underground stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).

B:✔At grade level stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

C: At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

D: An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.