Battalion Chief Package 2024 - Exam 1 Flashcards
Question 1:
You are the BC at a fire in the private dwelling. CIDS states the building was constructed using lightweight wood trusses. You would know all of the following are correct except?
A: The positioning of the 1st hoseline for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.
B: When the spacing between the lightweight floor supports is 24” apart, the potential exists for a larger opening to be formed for members to fall through to the floor below.
C: The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a PD constructed of lightweight materials.
D: When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with one hoseline, an outside operation Is mandatory.
Question 1:
You are the BC at a fire in the private dwelling. CIDS states the building was constructed using lightweight wood trusses. You would know all of the following are correct except?
A: The positioning of the 1st hoseline for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.
B: When the spacing between the lightweight floor supports is 24” apart, the potential exists for a larger opening to be formed for members to fall through to the floor below.
C: The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a PD constructed of lightweight materials.
D:✔When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with one hoseline, an outside operation Is mandatory.
Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 6
A. sect 4.2.1
B. sect 4.2.4
C. sect 4.2.2
D. sect 4.2.3 - When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with TWO hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered.
Question 2:
Chief Officers should be aware of the many hazards associated with steam found in NYC. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information?
A: Steam is clearly visible. The white mist seen is the condensate that forms when steam cools.
B: Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.
C: Steam pressures in buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.
D: Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900ºF.
Question 2:
Chief Officers should be aware of the many hazards associated with steam found in NYC. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information?
A:✔Steam is clearly visible. The white mist seen is the condensate that forms when steam cools.
B: Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.
C: Steam pressures in buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.
D: Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900ºF.
Explanation:
Steam is invisible. The white mist seen is the condensate that forms when steam cools.
EP Steam 2,1, 2.2, 4.1
Question 3:
Fire extension throughout H-type MDs is of great concern. Which choice below contains correct information regarding construction features meant to minimize the potential for extension?
A: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the top of the roof boards.
B: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the underside of the roof boards.
C: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.
D: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the underside of the roof boards.
Question 3:
Fire extension throughout H-type MDs is of great concern. Which choice below contains correct information regarding construction features meant to minimize the potential for extension?
A: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the top of the roof boards.
B: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the underside of the roof boards.
C:✔Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.
D: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the underside of the roof boards.
Explanation:
C. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
Acronym: CUT
C - ceiling - before 1930
U - underside roof boards - 1930-1940
T - top roof boards - after 1940
MD ch 1 sec 1.4.3
Question 4:
A properly trained BC knows how to ensure members at the scene of an operation are properly cared for. All of the following are in accordance with FDNY policy except?
A: One RAC Unit will respond to signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and when special called by the IC. At an expanding or extended operation, additional RAC Units may be special called.
B: Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.
C: At 2nd or greater alarms or when special called for by the IC, the RUL shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group, as appropriate. Units shall be sent in manageable groups, usually three units at a time, so as to not overcrowd the Rehabilitation Group
D: The RUL shall use the Rehabilitation Tracking Sheet and/or the Incident Command Application to document which units and members have reported to, and have been evaluated by the Rehabilitation Group. Once members complete the rehabilitation process, they may become available for another assignment to augment the operation.
Question 4:
A properly trained BC knows how to ensure members at the scene of an operation are properly cared for. All of the following are in accordance with FDNY policy except?
A: One RAC Unit will respond to signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and when special called by the IC. At an expanding or extended operation, additional RAC Units may be special called.
B: Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.
C:✔At 2nd or greater alarms or when special called for by the IC, the RUL shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group, as appropriate. Units shall be sent in manageable groups, usually three units at a time, so as to not overcrowd the Rehabilitation Group
D: The RUL shall use the Rehabilitation Tracking Sheet and/or the Incident Command Application to document which units and members have reported to, and have been evaluated by the Rehabilitation Group. Once members complete the rehabilitation process, they may become available for another assignment to augment the operation.
Explanation:
Hot topics are always highly likely questions. This is about as hot a topic as we have this year.
Four units at a time
AUC 230 sec 7.2, 7.4, 7.5 and add 1 sec 3.1
Question 5:
You the BC, attend a routine Division conference to discuss the updated AUC on Major Aircraft Emergencies. The DC in charge of the conference made several statements regarding this bulletin, which were as follows: A- The first arriving Chief officer shall make contact with the PAPD and ascertain the type and nature of incident….. B- The first arriving Chief Officer shall designate a Company officer to command the Staging Area until the arrival of a second BC….. C- Responding Chief Officers are to activate their post radios and cellular phones….. D- The first arriving Chief Officer shall activate their 800 MHz radio and cell phone….. E- Communications from the Command Post to the staging area can be accomplished by Post Radio directly to the Staging Area, or Department Radio if two Post Radios are not yet available, or Port Authority Radio to the PAPD Liaison at the Staging Area…… Which statements were correct?
A: A, B, D
B: A, D
C: A, B, E
D: A,B, C, E
E: A, B, C, D, E
Question 5:
You the BC, attend a routine Division conference to discuss the updated AUC on Major Aircraft Emergencies. The DC in charge of the conference made several statements regarding this bulletin, which were as follows: A- The first arriving Chief officer shall make contact with the PAPD and ascertain the type and nature of incident….. B- The first arriving Chief Officer shall designate a Company officer to command the Staging Area until the arrival of a second BC….. C- Responding Chief Officers are to activate their post radios and cellular phones….. D- The first arriving Chief Officer shall activate their 800 MHz radio and cell phone….. E- Communications from the Command Post to the staging area can be accomplished by Post Radio directly to the Staging Area, or Department Radio if two Post Radios are not yet available, or Port Authority Radio to the PAPD Liaison at the Staging Area…… Which statements were correct?
A:✔A, B, D
B: A, D
C: A, B, E
D: A,B, C, E
E:✘A, B, C, D, E
Explanation:
AUC 325 sec 3
C- 800 MHz radios not Post Radios
E- 800 MHz radios not Post radios
Question 6:
Members discussing the special information or “white” section of the NFPA 704 diamond were correct in stating that all of the following abbreviations are accurate except?
A: “W” with a slash through it = Use no water
B: OX = Oxygen
C: ALK = Alkali
D: COR = Corrosive
Question 6:
Members discussing the special information or “white” section of the NFPA 704 diamond were correct in stating that all of the following abbreviations are accurate except?
A: “W” with a slash through it = Use no water
B:✔OX = Oxygen
C: ALK = Alkali
D: COR = Corrosive
Explanation:
ERP page 39
Question 7:
Battalion 46 is sent as the decon task force leader for a mass decon at Citifield. Chief Waters knows that when two engines and one ladder are used to set up a corridor for emergency gross decontamination, all of the following guidelines should be followed except in which choice?
A: Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the inside of the spray area.
B: Pumpers should be approximately 25’ feet apart.
C: If a tower ladder is used the Turbomaster fog nozzle should be utilized.
D: If an aerial ladder is used the Aquastream fog nozzle should be utilized.
Question 7:
Battalion 46 is sent as the decon task force leader for a mass decon at Citifield. Chief Waters knows that when two engines and one ladder are used to set up a corridor for emergency gross decontamination, all of the following guidelines should be followed except in which choice?
A:✔Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the inside of the spray area.
B: Pumpers should be approximately 25’ feet apart.
C: If a tower ladder is used the Turbomaster fog nozzle should be utilized.
D: If an aerial ladder is used the Aquastream fog nozzle should be utilized.
Explanation:
A. Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the outside of the spray area.
If a third pumper is used in place of a TL / AL, use the Aquastream nozzle.
HM 7 2.4.5 Note
Question 8:
When operating at a taxpayer fire, the potential for a backdraft to occur is a major concern for all members on scene. Choose the correct procedure when dealing with a potential backdraft.
A: The proper procedure is to open the roof as far away from the fire as possible
B: If ventilation is not first instituted at the roof prior to entry at the lower level, a backdraft could result in minimal structural damage, but cause a heavy fire load
C: Depending on conditions, such as when water application is not improving conditions, it may be preferable to allow the gases to ignite while operating a 2 1/2” hose line inside the structure
D: When the fire area is subsequently opened-up, the stream should be immediately discharged into the fire area from the safety of the flanking position
Question 8:
When operating at a taxpayer fire, the potential for a backdraft to occur is a major concern for all members on scene. Choose the correct procedure when dealing with a potential backdraft.
A: The proper procedure is to open the roof as far away from the fire as possible
B: If ventilation is not first instituted at the roof prior to entry at the lower level, a backdraft could result in minimal structural damage, but cause a heavy fire load
C:✘Depending on conditions, such as when water application is not improving conditions, it may be preferable to allow the gases to ignite while operating a 2 1/2” hose line inside the structure
D:✔When the fire area is subsequently opened-up, the stream should be immediately discharged into the fire area from the safety of the flanking position
Explanation:
Taxpayers page 25, 26, 32
A. Open the roof or area directly over the fire
B. total involvement and loss of the structure.
C. prior to entry.
Question 9:
The ___________ Unit is responsible for the collection, processing and organization of incident information. Generally this information is graphically displayed on the command board, or other display at the Incident Command Post.
A: Resource Unit
B: Situation Unit
C: Demobilization Unit
D: Documentation Unit
Question 9:
The ___________ Unit is responsible for the collection, processing and organization of incident information. Generally this information is graphically displayed on the command board, or other display at the Incident Command Post.
A:✘Resource Unit
B:✔Situation Unit
C: Demobilization Unit
D: Documentation Unit
Explanation:
ICS Manual Chapter 1
A. The Resource Unit is responsible for maintaining status information of all resources allocated to the incident 4.2.1
B. 4.2.2
C. The Demobilization Unit ensures safe, effective, organized release of resources from the incident 4.2.3
D. The Documentation Unit maintains an accurate and complete log of incident records for analytical, historical and legal purposes 4.2.4
Question 10:
A newly promoted Company Officer calls you when you are working the 9x6 tour in B-100 on Tuesday June 12, 2018 to ask about the Proby Notebook/Development Program. You make the following statements:…… A- At the end of each month, a proby gets 3 attempts to take a 20 question quiz….. B- Company Commanders shall initial and date once a month in red the proby notebook…… C- Cross unit details can be conducted after completing 60 days of service where assigned…… D- Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days…… E- An OSA-2 is needed for a cross unit detail…… Which statements are correct?
A: A, B, C, D, E
B: A, B, C, E
C: A, B, D, E
D: A, B, E
E: D, E
Question 10:
A newly promoted Company Officer calls you when you are working the 9x6 tour in B-100 on Tuesday June 12, 2018 to ask about the Proby Notebook/Development Program. You make the following statements:…… A- At the end of each month, a proby gets 3 attempts to take a 20 question quiz….. B- Company Commanders shall initial and date once a month in red the proby notebook…… C- Cross unit details can be conducted after completing 60 days of service where assigned…… D- Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days…… E- An OSA-2 is needed for a cross unit detail…… Which statements are correct?
A: A, B, C, D, E
B: A, B, C, E
C:✘A, B, D, E
D:✔A, B, E
E: D, E
Explanation:
AUC 323 page 2
C- 90 days
D- 90 days
Question 11:
A well-trained BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding operations at a radiological emergency except?
A: Establish incident command in accordance with CIMS. The Fire Department will designate an Operations Chief to direct all search and rescue, structural evacuation, fire suppression, pre-hospital emergency medical care, Haz-Mat life safety and decontamination operations.
B: In the event the Radiological Emergency is intentional, special call Fire Marshals for additional security and crime scene preservation. Also consider locating the command post in a safer area.
C: Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the R/hr range.
D: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision whether to remove first responders from the hot zone is 50 Rem.
Question 11:
A well-trained BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding operations at a radiological emergency except?
A: Establish incident command in accordance with CIMS. The Fire Department will designate an Operations Chief to direct all search and rescue, structural evacuation, fire suppression, pre-hospital emergency medical care, Haz-Mat life safety and decontamination operations.
B: In the event the Radiological Emergency is intentional, special call Fire Marshals for additional security and crime scene preservation. Also consider locating the command post in a safer area.
C:✔Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the R/hr range.
D: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision whether to remove first responders from the hot zone is 50 Rem.
Explanation:
C) Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the mR/hr range.
ERP Add 4 3, 3.1.2 B, 3.1.4 C
Question 12:
As a BC, you just received a phone notification from one of your lieutenants that she just submitted an immediate CIDS entry of a hazardous condition involving one of her buildings. After this notification your next coarse of action should be _______.
A: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the administrative DC by phone to inform him of the pending immediate CIDS
B: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the BISP unit by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS
C: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the FDOC by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS
D: Immediately call the administrative DC by phone and have the DC enter the immediate CIDS into Starfire via the green screen
Question 12:
As a BC, you just received a phone notification from one of your lieutenants that she just submitted an immediate CIDS entry of a hazardous condition involving one of her buildings. After this notification your next coarse of action should be _______.
A:✔Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the administrative DC by phone to inform him of the pending immediate CIDS
B: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the BISP unit by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS
C: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the FDOC by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS
D: Immediately call the administrative DC by phone and have the DC enter the immediate CIDS into Starfire via the green screen
Explanation:
Communications ch 4 sec 4.3.3
Upon notification, the administrative DC shall enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, the DC shall notify FDOC by phone
Question 13:
Of the following injuries below, which is considered minor according to the FDNY?
A: A sprain with discoloration
B: First degree burn
C: Shortness of breath
D: Chest pains
Question 13:
Of the following injuries below, which is considered minor according to the FDNY?
A: A sprain with discoloration
B:✔First degree burn
C: Shortness of breath
D: Chest pains
Explanation:
SB 1 sec 3.1.2
Minor Injury is an injury determined by the on duty medical officer. A minor injury does not require the member to be granted medical leave. If a member subsequently suffers symptoms from a minor injury requiring medical leave it shall be noted in the narrative section of the original injury report. An additional injury report is not required.
Question 14:
An experienced BC would know that at an Under River Rail fire/emergency, the best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more well-defined. The Command Post location should provide all of the following except?
A: In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.
B: Protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise (upwind and a safe distance from the ventilation system exhaust fans).
C: Sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.
D: Communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube.
Question 14:
An experienced BC would know that at an Under River Rail fire/emergency, the best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more well-defined. The Command Post location should provide all of the following except?
A:✔In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.
B: Protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise (upwind and a safe distance from the ventilation system exhaust fans).
C: Sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.
D:✘Communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube.
Explanation:
In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.
Under River Rail sec 4.4
Question 15:
BC Falcon sends members of a FAST Unit to rescue a downed FF. They would be correct to know that, for a member in distress, the HT beacon tone takes priority over received audio. The HT that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals, every ______.
A: 10 seconds
B: 4 seconds
C: 2 seconds
D: 1 second
Question 15:
BC Falcon sends members of a FAST Unit to rescue a downed FF. They would be correct to know that, for a member in distress, the HT beacon tone takes priority over received audio. The HT that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals, every ______.
A:✘10 seconds
B:✔4 seconds
C: 2 seconds
D: 1 second
Explanation:
MMID Ch 4 6.4
Question 16:
It is important that Chief Officers be familiar with the FDNY’s EEO policy. Of the following choices, which is stated incorrectly?
A: Face to face communication works 90% of the time to stop offensive behavior.
B: Although face-to-face communication may be the best way to handle most issues, there are times when a person may feel threatened or uncomfortable. In such a case, the harassed individual may communicate this immediately to his/her Officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
C: If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate directly with the EEO Officer/EEO Counselor and NOT with someone at the next level of supervision.
D: According to the FDNY’s policy, the recipient of the behavior determines whether it is unwelcome or offensive.
SAVE ANSWER!
Question 16:
It is important that Chief Officers be familiar with the FDNY’s EEO policy. Of the following choices, which is stated incorrectly?
A: Face to face communication works 90% of the time to stop offensive behavior.
B: Although face-to-face communication may be the best way to handle most issues, there are times when a person may feel threatened or uncomfortable. In such a case, the harassed individual may communicate this immediately to his/her Officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
C:✔If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate directly with the EEO Officer/EEO Counselor and NOT with someone at the next level of supervision.
D: According to the FDNY’s policy, the recipient of the behavior determines whether it is unwelcome or offensive.
Explanation:
If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate with someone at the next level of supervision and/or EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
TB EEO 1.5, 2
Question 17:
The UCALL/UTAC are the National UHF inter-operable radio frequencies used by FDNY Incident Commanders to communicate with public safety agencies. When using FDNY Handie-Talkie radios, the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region can be found in which choice?
A: Channel 10 Zone A
B: Channel 9 Zone A
C: Channel 10 Zone B
D: Channel 9 Zone B
Question 17:
The UCALL/UTAC are the National UHF inter-operable radio frequencies used by FDNY Incident Commanders to communicate with public safety agencies. When using FDNY Handie-Talkie radios, the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region can be found in which choice?
A: Channel 10 Zone A
B: Channel 9 Zone A
C:✘Channel 10 Zone B
D:✔Channel 9 Zone B
Explanation:
Also Named UTAC 42D
The letter D in UTAC 42D stands for- These channels provide direct point to point communication / Talkaround (T/A)
Comm Ch 14 add 4
Question 18:
Which of the following choices correctly describes the minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components at a Con Ed facility?
A: 15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or less fog streams.
B: 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 130° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.
C: 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half ( 1 ½) length of hose.
D: 125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
Question 18:
Which of the following choices correctly describes the minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components at a Con Ed facility?
A: 15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or less fog streams.
B:✘75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 130° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.
C: 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half ( 1 ½) length of hose.
D:✔125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
Explanation:
D
15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.
25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one-half (½) length of hose.
125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
AUC 338 5.3
Question 19:
You are the “Roof Sector Supervisor” at a top floor building fire and you notice several colored pipes at roof level that might interfere with roof operations. As the Chief, you should know what the color of each pipe indicates. Choose the incorrect color piping.
A: Red color piping indicates high voltage wiring
B: Orange color piping indicates low voltage wiring
C: Yellow with black stripes color piping indicates fuel oil
D: Green, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas, color piping indicates other compressed gases
Question 19:
You are the “Roof Sector Supervisor” at a top floor building fire and you notice several colored pipes at roof level that might interfere with roof operations. As the Chief, you should know what the color of each pipe indicates. Choose the incorrect color piping.
A: Red color piping indicates high voltage wiring
B:✘Orange color piping indicates low voltage wiring
C: Yellow with black stripes color piping indicates fuel oil
D:✔Green, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas, color piping indicates other compressed gases
Explanation:
AUC 5 Ch 2 Add 3 Page 5
AUC 5 are not in-basket questions…This is a tactical question…There are 5 colored pipes:
High voltage wiring – Red.
Low voltage wiring – Orange.
Natural gas piping – Yellow.
Other compressed gas piping – Yellow, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas.
Fuel oil piping – Yellow with black stripes.
***Please don’t confuse High Voltage Wiring on rooftop piping and Hybrid vehicles. High voltage cables in hybrid vehicles are usually color-coded to warn you of their potential danger. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded ORANGE. Although some cables are color-coded BLUE.
Fires 8 sec 11.6 C
Question 20:
The internal identification codes on FDNY HT radios are a way to associate the radio with the assigned position in a company in case of an emergency. You decide to test your BC study groups knowledge by giving them several examples of seven digit codes that could appear on the LCD screen of the BC radio. Which code is listed correctly?
A: 7176001 is L176 Roofman
B: 7009001 is E009 Officer
C: 5251002 is E251 ECC
D: 5001004 is E1 Nozzle
Question 20:
The internal identification codes on FDNY HT radios are a way to associate the radio with the assigned position in a company in case of an emergency. You decide to test your BC study groups knowledge by giving them several examples of seven digit codes that could appear on the LCD screen of the BC radio. Which code is listed correctly?
A: 7176001 is L176 Roofman
B: 7009001 is E009 Officer
C:✔5251002 is E251 ECC
D: 5001004 is E1 Nozzle
Explanation:
Comm 11 sec 4.1
A. L176 Officer
B. L009 Officer
D. E1 Backup
Question 21:
Chiefs should have a good working knowledge of the construction features of tenements. They should be aware of the avenues of fire travel, exposures and the simplest manner of opening up for examination. Which of the following is incorrectly stated?
A: No material shall be thrown into narrow or enclosed shafts. Additionally, no material shall be thrown onto setback roofs, scaffolding, or the roofs of other exposures
B: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
C: In older buildings, when opening up around light fixtures, exercise caution to not inadvertently damage gas piping. These pipes are often controlled by the individual apartment meter.
D: Properly installed fire stopping is recognized as a great aid in the prevention of both lateral and vertical fire extension. Unfortunately, due to poor workmanship, deterioration due to age, etc., fire stopping cannot be relied upon to be properly installed or maintained.
Question 21:
Chiefs should have a good working knowledge of the construction features of tenements. They should be aware of the avenues of fire travel, exposures and the simplest manner of opening up for examination. Which of the following is incorrectly stated?
A: No material shall be thrown into narrow or enclosed shafts. Additionally, no material shall be thrown onto setback roofs, scaffolding, or the roofs of other exposures
B: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
C:✔In older buildings, when opening up around light fixtures, exercise caution to not inadvertently damage gas piping. These pipes are often controlled by the individual apartment meter.
D: Properly installed fire stopping is recognized as a great aid in the prevention of both lateral and vertical fire extension. Unfortunately, due to poor workmanship, deterioration due to age, etc., fire stopping cannot be relied upon to be properly installed or maintained.
Explanation:
FFP Overhaul Ops
A. sec 6.8.3
B. sec 3.3
C. sec 4.1.3 These pipes are often not controlled by the individual apartment meter and isolating the gas supply to them may be difficult.
D. sect 3.4
Question 22:
Staffing units at the start of the tour can be complex at times for a Battalion Chief especially when it comes to school trained versus company trained chauffeurs. From the list below, which is the only unit not required to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs?
A: Foam Unit
B: Satellite Unit
C: Planning Vehicle
D: Collapse Rescue Unit
E: Decon Unit (other than Tractor Trailer)
Question 22:
Staffing units at the start of the tour can be complex at times for a Battalion Chief especially when it comes to school trained versus company trained chauffeurs. From the list below, which is the only unit not required to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs?
A:✔Foam Unit
B: Satellite Unit
C: Planning Vehicle
D: Collapse Rescue Unit
E:✘Decon Unit (other than Tractor Trailer)
Explanation:
The following units shall start each tour with at least one school trained chauffeur and one company trained chauffeur: Foam Unit, Airport Hose Wagons, and back-ups to Foam units, Airport Hose Wagons, Satellite Units, Planning Vehicle, Collapse Rescue Units, and Decon Units (other than TT apparatus)
Units to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs: Satellite Units, Planning Vehicle, Collapse Rescue Units, Decon Units, Squad Units, and HMTU
AUC 254 pages 4 and 5
Question 23:
An unusual occurrence at a fire or elsewhere will generate a report. This report is preceded by an immediate telephone communication to _______________.
A: the Borough Command or Command Chief on Duty
B: the Deputy and Battalion Chief on duty
C: the Chief of Operations
D: the Chief of Communication
Question 23:
An unusual occurrence at a fire or elsewhere will generate a report. This report is preceded by an immediate telephone communication to _______________.
A: the Borough Command or Command Chief on Duty
B:✔the Deputy and Battalion Chief on duty
C:✘the Chief of Operations
D: the Chief of Communication
Explanation:
Regs 30 sec 3.1.6
Question 24:
Which choice below is incorrect during a dangerous active shooter situation?
A: FDNY members shall operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for immediate life saving intervention.
B: In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Deputy Chief must be notified via dispatcher
C: In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Citywide Command Chief must be notified via dispatcher (Fire, EMS)
D: FDNY members shall only operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for life saving intervention. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief unless the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention
Question 24:
Which choice below is incorrect during a dangerous active shooter situation?
A: FDNY members shall operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for immediate life saving intervention.
B:✔In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Deputy Chief must be notified via dispatcher
C:✘In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Citywide Command Chief must be notified via dispatcher (Fire, EMS)
D: FDNY members shall only operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for life saving intervention. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief unless the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention
Explanation:
FDNY members shall only operate inside a Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief, unless the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention.
Note: In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Citywide Command Chief MUST be notified via dispatcher (Fire, EMS).
ERP Add 3A sec 7.5
Question 25:
The danger of collapse with fires in rowframe buildings must be a consideration of all members on the fireground. Which one of the following choices is not correct?
A: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.
B: Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section into the yard.
C: Brick veneer and stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.
D: When a serious fire burns out the entire second floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.
Question 25:
The danger of collapse with fires in rowframe buildings must be a consideration of all members on the fireground. Which one of the following choices is not correct?
A:✘A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.
B: Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section into the yard.
C: Brick veneer and stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.
D:✔When a serious fire burns out the entire second floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.
Explanation:
A. RowFrames (5,4 A)
B. RowFrames (5,4 B)
C. RowFrames (5,4 F)
D. When a serious fire burns out the entire FIRST floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone. RowFrames (5,4 H)
Question 26:
For the first arriving units at an incident involving a disabled train in an under river rail tube, the acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up. Which choice best defines the acronym “LIVES”
A: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
B: Life, Imminent threat, Ventilation, Egress, Structure stability
C: Life, Incident information, Victims, Evacuation, Structure Stability
D: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Sound-powered phones
Question 26:
For the first arriving units at an incident involving a disabled train in an under river rail tube, the acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up. Which choice best defines the acronym “LIVES”
A:✔Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
B: Life, Imminent threat, Ventilation, Egress, Structure stability
C: Life, Incident information, Victims, Evacuation, Structure Stability
D: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Sound-powered phones
Explanation:
Under river rails 3.2
Question 27:
When responding to a fire in a bulk oil facility, Battalion Chiefs should be familiar with the color coding of the fire protection systems within the facility. These facilities will keep a copy of the color coding in such places as?
A: The foam house
B: Near the front gate
C: Near the rear gate
D: Copies do not exist
Question 27:
When responding to a fire in a bulk oil facility, Battalion Chiefs should be familiar with the color coding of the fire protection systems within the facility. These facilities will keep a copy of the color coding in such places as?
A:✔The foam house
B: Near the front gate
C: Near the rear gate
D: Copies do not exist
Explanation:
AUC 5 Ch 2, Add 3 Page 8
Question 28:
The BC in charge of a commercial fire took the following actions upon special calling a TL for use of its elevated stream. Which action was incorrect?
A: A roof level attack at Taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.
B: At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the Tower Ladder stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally operated into the front windows.
C: In extreme situations, the LCS directed through an attic window of a peaked frame dwelling can be used to ventilate by literally blowing off the roof.
D: Utilization of a Thermal Imaging Camera in heavy smoke conditions may be beneficial while directing the LCS at street level.
Question 28:
The BC in charge of a commercial fire took the following actions upon special calling a TL for use of its elevated stream. Which action was incorrect?
A:✔A roof level attack at Taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.
B: At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the Tower Ladder stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally operated into the front windows.
C: In extreme situations, the LCS directed through an attic window of a peaked frame dwelling can be used to ventilate by literally blowing off the roof.
D: Utilization of a Thermal Imaging Camera in heavy smoke conditions may be beneficial while directing the LCS at street level.
Explanation:
A STREET level attack at Taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.
TL Ch 4 Page 3
Question 29:
During the annual Battalion/Captains meeting, several Captains ask you about the Reserve Apparatus stored in the quarters of E-100 located within your battalion. The only correct statement you make can be found in which choice?
A: Battalion Commanders shall schedule the utilization of the reserve apparatus semi-annually on M.U.D. days
B: Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit, wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, must prepare form RT-2 (2 copies)
C: Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the administrative battalion shall notify the officer where the reserve apparatus is stored that the responsibility for the preparation and forwarding of the Lost Property Report and the notifications required regarding the loss of department property are his/hers.
D: The officer wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus while out of storage
Question 29:
During the annual Battalion/Captains meeting, several Captains ask you about the Reserve Apparatus stored in the quarters of E-100 located within your battalion. The only correct statement you make can be found in which choice?
A: Battalion Commanders shall schedule the utilization of the reserve apparatus semi-annually on M.U.D. days
B:✔Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit, wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, must prepare form RT-2 (2 copies)
C:✘Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the administrative battalion shall notify the officer where the reserve apparatus is stored that the responsibility for the preparation and forwarding of the Lost Property Report and the notifications required regarding the loss of department property are his/hers.
D: The officer wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus while out of storage
Explanation:
AUC 259 pages 3 and 4
A- once a month at M.U.D.
C- Notify the officer who was in charge of the apparatus, while it was out of storage, that the responsibility for the preparation and forwarding of the Lost Property Report and notifications required regarding the loss of department property are his/hers
D- Officer placed in charge of a reserve apparatus, while it is not in storage, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus
Question 30:
Sound powered phones are still a viable means of communications. 2 BC’s from Manhattan were discussing sound powered phone equipment and were correct in all of the following statements they made except?
A: Each member who operates a sound powered telephone shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications
B: Sound powered telephones do not emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated
C: Handsets are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered
D: Sound powered telephones are installed in 13 of the 14 under river tunnels
Question 30:
Sound powered phones are still a viable means of communications. 2 BC’s from Manhattan were discussing sound powered phone equipment and were correct in all of the following statements they made except?
A: Each member who operates a sound powered telephone shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications
B: Sound powered telephones do not emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated
C:✔Handsets are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered
D: Sound powered telephones are installed in 13 of the 14 under river tunnels
Explanation:
Training Bulletin Tools 31
A. 3.3
B. 3.4
C. HEADSETS are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered 4.1.3
D. The exception is the Joralemon Street Tunnel, which runs from the Bowling Green Station in lower Manhattan to the Borough Hall Station in Brooklyn 4.3.3
Question 31:
Before Confined Space Operations can commence , the on scene BC must ensure meter readings are taken. Choose the incorrect meter reading.
A: Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% - 23.5%
B: Flammable Range not over 10% of LEL
C: Toxicity not over 35 PPM of CO
D: Toxicity not over 15 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
Question 31:
Before Confined Space Operations can commence , the on scene BC must ensure meter readings are taken. Choose the incorrect meter reading.
A: Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% - 23.5%
B:✘Flammable Range not over 10% of LEL
C: Toxicity not over 35 PPM of CO
D:✔Toxicity not over 15 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
Explanation:
Toxicity not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
Emergency Procedures sec 4.1
Question 32:
You the BC, make the following statements about the Probationary FF Training Notebook during the annual Battalion/Captains meeting: A- Training notebooks are to be kept in the company office when not in use B- Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook C- The Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled on the inside of the front cover D- If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days E- Training notebooks shall be forwarded to the Battalion coordinator during the 13th and 17th months of their probation period for evaluation Which statements are correct?
A: A, B, C, D, E
B: A, C, D, E
C: B, C, D
D: A, B, D, E
Question 32:
You the BC, make the following statements about the Probationary FF Training Notebook during the annual Battalion/Captains meeting: A- Training notebooks are to be kept in the company office when not in use B- Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook C- The Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled on the inside of the front cover D- If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days E- Training notebooks shall be forwarded to the Battalion coordinator during the 13th and 17th months of their probation period for evaluation Which statements are correct?
A: A, B, C, D, E
B:✘A, C, D, E
C: B, C, D
D:✔A, B, D, E
Explanation:
C- The Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled TO CURRENT TRAINING NOTEBOOK PAGE AT TIME OF
COMPLETION
AUC 323 addendum 2
Question 33:
Key FOBs for use in NYCHA buildings are a new method of access for FDNY members and also new to our books. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these devices?
A: Key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings.
B: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24-hour NYCHA emergency number either directly or through the dispatcher.
C: Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location should the key FOB fail to unlock the door.
D: Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, unlocking the door.
Explanation:
Question 33:
Key FOBs for use in NYCHA buildings are a new method of access for FDNY members and also new to our books. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these devices?
A: Key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings.
B: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24-hour NYCHA emergency number either directly or through the dispatcher.
C: Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location should the key FOB fail to unlock the door.
D:✔Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, unlocking the door.
Explanation:
D
Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, but the door will remain locked by the crash bar lock. A special key will be needed to unlock the door from outside the building This key is not issued to FDNY units at this time, but it can be requested for use from the building management office at the premise location.
TB Tools 41 p 1-2
Question 34:
Which choice below contains incorrect information in the case of units responding to, or operating at, an incident that develops into a situation where a patient has been exposed to an unknown substance?
A: Proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) shall be worn at all times when dealing with patients.
B: When the patient reports that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing, ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, if possible, and provide the patient with a disposable garment or sheet.
C: When required, bag the patient’s clothing in a clear, plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.
D: Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Only patients who are deemed Critical should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
Question 34:
Which choice below contains incorrect information in the case of units responding to, or operating at, an incident that develops into a situation where a patient has been exposed to an unknown substance?
A: Proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) shall be worn at all times when dealing with patients.
B: When the patient reports that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing, ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, if possible, and provide the patient with a disposable garment or sheet.
C: When required, bag the patient’s clothing in a clear, plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.
D:✔Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Only patients who are deemed Critical should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
Explanation:
D. Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Patients who are Critical OR Unstable should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
HM 16 2.2
Question 35:
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Flammability is indicated by a red diamond. Which of the following numbers indicate a flash point above 100 degrees F but not exceeding 200 degrees F ?
A: 4
B: 3
C: 2
D: 1
Question 35:
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Flammability is indicated by a red diamond. Which of the following numbers indicate a flash point above 100 degrees F but not exceeding 200 degrees F ?
A: 4
B:✘3
C:✔2
D: 1
Explanation:
ERP page 39, NFPA Diamond
Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash point below 73 degrees F
3 Flash point below 100 degrees F
2 Flash point above 100 degrees F, not exceeding 200 degrees F
1 Above 200 degrees F
0 Will not burn
Question 36:
All of the following statements made regarding operations at a Mill Loft building fire are correct with the exception of?
A: Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies carry search ropes and thermal imaging cameras
B: Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse
C: When sprinklers are manually shutdown, a member should remain at the shut-off valve in case the system needs to be reactivated
D: Mezzanines can be hard to locate and difficult to access but they will not present a collapse hazard when exposed to fire
Question 36:
All of the following statements made regarding operations at a Mill Loft building fire are correct with the exception of?
A: Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies carry search ropes and thermal imaging cameras
B: Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse
C: When sprinklers are manually shutdown, a member should remain at the shut-off valve in case the system needs to be reactivated
D:✔Mezzanines can be hard to locate and difficult to access but they will not present a collapse hazard when exposed to fire
Explanation:
FFP Lofts
A. 7.1.7
B. 7.1.19
C. 7.1.17
D. Mezzanines present a collapse hazard when exposed to fire 7.1.14
Question 37:
Which 10-25 code did BC Utschig transmit correctly?
A: 10-25-1 for a transformer fire that extended into a building
B: 10-25-2 for smoke seeping from a manhole
C: 10-25-3 for a popping noise coming from a manhole
D: 10-25-4 for a popping noise coming from a transformer
Question 37:
Which 10-25 code did BC Utschig transmit correctly?
A:✔10-25-1 for a transformer fire that extended into a building
B: 10-25-2 for smoke seeping from a manhole
C: 10-25-3 for a popping noise coming from a manhole
D:✘10-25-4 for a popping noise coming from a transformer
Explanation:
A- Comm Ch 8 Pg 9
B- 10-25-3
C- 10-25 without code
D- 10-25 without code
10-25-1 Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building
10-25-2 Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure
10-25-3 Smoke is seeping from a manhole
10-25-4 Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location (pole, vault, room, etc)
10-25 without code situation other than described in codes 1,2,3,4
Question 38:
A BC wishing to enforce the FDNY’s grooming policy would be incorrect in which statement?
A: Mustaches must be closely trimmed.
B: Mustaches must not extend beyond the corners of the mouth.
C: Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the lower lip.
D: Beards, goatees, or any form of facial hair beneath the lower lip are prohibited.
Question 38:
A BC wishing to enforce the FDNY’s grooming policy would be incorrect in which statement?
A: Mustaches must be closely trimmed.
B: Mustaches must not extend beyond the corners of the mouth.
C:✔Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the lower lip.
D:✘Beards, goatees, or any form of facial hair beneath the lower lip are prohibited.
Explanation:
Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the UPPER lip.
PAID 8 ch 1 sec 2.2
Question 39:
Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns. Of the following, which “privacy concern case” is listed incorrectly?
A: an injury or illness to an intimate body part, the reproductive system, or resulting from a sexual assault
B: select physical ailments, not including mental illness
C: involving HIV
D: involving needle stick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that may be contaminated with another person’s blood or other potentially infectious material
Question 39:
Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns. Of the following, which “privacy concern case” is listed incorrectly?
A: an injury or illness to an intimate body part, the reproductive system, or resulting from a sexual assault
B:✔select physical ailments, not including mental illness
C: involving HIV
D: involving needle stick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that may be contaminated with another person’s blood or other potentially infectious material
Explanation:
involving mental illness
Also, requests from employees for other reasons.
PAID 8 ch 5 sec 10.5
Question 40:
In buildings containing dwelling units, including dwelling units classified in occupancy group J-1, J-2 and J-3, CO alarms would be considered properly located in all choices below except?
A: In every dwelling unit on the floor where fossil fuel burning equipment is located (Ex; commercial gas dryer) and the floor below, and the floor above are required to have detectors.
B: In every dwelling unit located within a building served by a central fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler or water heater that is located in an adjoining or attached building.
C: In every dwelling unit located within a building that contains any fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system.
D: In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any open or enclosed parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.
Question 40:
In buildings containing dwelling units, including dwelling units classified in occupancy group J-1, J-2 and J-3, CO alarms would be considered properly located in all choices below except?
A: In every dwelling unit on the floor where fossil fuel burning equipment is located (Ex; commercial gas dryer) and the floor below, and the floor above are required to have detectors.
B:✘In every dwelling unit located within a building served by a central fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler or water heater that is located in an adjoining or attached building.
C: In every dwelling unit located within a building that contains any fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system.
D:✔In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any open or enclosed parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.
Explanation:
In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any ENCLOSED parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.
AUC 5 Ch 4 add 7 sec 2
