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Hematology 1 [LAB] > BATERIAL DISEASES > Flashcards

BATERIAL DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

SYPHILIS CAUSATIVE AGENT

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

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2
Q

No natural reservoir and must multiply within a living host

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

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3
Q

agent of nonvenereal endemic syphilis or bejel – in desert regions

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

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4
Q

agent of yaws – in tropics

A

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

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5
Q

aget of pinta – in Central and South America

A

T. carateum

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6
Q

outer membrane is a phospholipid bilayer

A

T. pallidum

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7
Q

treponemal rare outer membrane proteins (TROMPs)

A

T. pallidum

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8
Q

scarcity of such proteins delays the host immune response

A

T. pallidum

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9
Q

sexual contact through abraded skin or mucous membranes

A

Treponema pallidum

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10
Q

Congenital infections: transmission to the fetus

A

Treponema pallidum

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11
Q

parenteral exposure through contaminated needles or blood (possible but extremely rare)

A

Treponema pallidum

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12
Q

destroyed by heat, cold, and drying out

A

Pathologic treponemes

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13
Q

almost always spread by direct contact

A

Pathologic treponemes

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14
Q

Incubation Phase : 3 weeks; 10-90 days

A

Syphilis

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15
Q

primary stage: painless chancre (28-42 days) - heals without treatment

A

Syphilis

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16
Q

A person is highly contagious during the primary stage and secondary stage

A

Syphilis

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17
Q

Secondary Stage: rash (2-8 weeks) - heals without scarring in 2-12 weeks

A

Syphilis

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18
Q

rash often develops all over the body, including palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

A

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

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19
Q

Open sores may be present on mucous membranes and may contain pus

A

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

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20
Q

Pus in the Secondary Stage of Syphilis

A

condyloma lata

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21
Q

Symptoms can include nervous system abnormalities.

A

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

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22
Q

If untreated, an infected person will progress to the a stage of syphilis with no symptoms

A

latent period

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23
Q

Latent period

A

1 year; 5-20 years

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24
Q

A person is contagious during the [?] and may be contagious during the [?].

A

early part of the latent stage
latent period

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25
Q

About 20-30% of people with syphilis have a relapse of the secondary stage of syphilis during the [?].

A

latent stage

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26
Q

the person had passed through the second stage, was symptom-free, then began to reexperience secondary stage symptoms

A

Relapses

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27
Q

can occur several times

A

Relapses

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28
Q

When these no longer occur, a person is not contagious through contact.

A

relapses

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29
Q

A woman in the latent stage of syphilis may still pass the disease to her unborn baby and may have a miscarriage, a stillbirth, or give birth to a baby infected with

A

congenital syphilis

30
Q

Most destructive stage of syphilis.

A

Tertiary (Late) Stage

31
Q

If untreated, the tertiary stage may begin as early as 1 year after infection or at any time during a person’s lifetime. A person may never experience this stage of the illness.

A

Tertiary (Late) Stage

32
Q

The symptoms of tertiary (late) syphilis depend on the complications that develop – gummata, large sores inside the body or on the skin, cardiovascular syphilis, or neurosyphilis.

A

Tertiary (Late) Stage

33
Q

• Several varieties of passive hemagglutination tests have been used to detect specific treponemal antibody.

A

Agglutination Tests

34
Q

• Particle agglutination tests such as the Serodia TP-PA test have largely replaced microhemagglutination
tests. Particle agglutination tests use colored gelatin particles coated with treponemal antigens and are more
sensitive in detecting primary syphilis.

A

Agglutination Tests

35
Q

• It involves isolating and amplifying a sequence of DNA that is unique to a particular antigen.

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

36
Q

• Currently still being studied.

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

37
Q

Nichols strain of T. pallidum

A

FTA-ABS

38
Q

Antitreponemal

A

FTA-ABS
EIA

39
Q

Confirmatory; specific, sensitive; may be negative in primary stage

A

FTA-ABS

40
Q

Treponemal or recombinant

A

EIA

41
Q

Antitreponemal

A

EIA

42
Q

Simple to perform; can be automated; not as sensitive as FTA-ABS.

A

EIA

43
Q

Enzyme-labeled treponemal antigen

A

EIA

44
Q

Anti-IgG or antiIgM, antitreponemal antibody from
patient

A

EIA

45
Q

Simple to perform; sensitive in primary syphilis, but sensitivity
decreases in later stages.

A

EIA

46
Q

Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with T. pallidum sonicate

A

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

47
Q

Antitreponemal

A

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

48
Q

Not as sensitive as FTA-ABS

A

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

49
Q

Patient DNA matched to treponemal DNA

A

DNA probe

50
Q

None

A

DNA probe

51
Q

Technically demanding; very specific; lacks sensitivity

A

DNA probe

52
Q

 Salmonella typhi, a gram-positive bacilli from the family Enterobacteriaceae; an intestinal pathogen that causes many infections

A

TYPHOID FEVER

53
Q

 Paratyphoid fever, a disease similar to typhoid fever that tends to be milder, is caused by Salmonella paratyphi A or Salmonella paratyphi B

A

TYPHOID FEVER

54
Q

 Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers are usually spread when feces or urine from an infected person contaminates something that is transferred to another person’s mouth.
Contaminated water and food are the most common sources of infection.

A

TYPHOID FEVER

55
Q

 Mary Mallon was the first to be identified as an asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella typhi, who worked as a cook and spread the disease unknowingly, hence receiving her famous
nickname “Typhoid Mary.”

A

TYPHOID FEVER

56
Q

 The symptoms of typhoid fever may be mild or severe and may include prolonged fever, severe headache, malaise, constipation or diarrhea, rose-colored spots on the trunk and an
enlarged spleen.

A

TYPHOID FEVER

57
Q

 The time from contact with the bacteria to the start of symptoms is usually 8-14 days for typhoid fever, and 1-10 days for paratyphoid fever.

A

TYPHOID FEVER

58
Q

 Patients infected with Salmonella can become chronic carriers of the bacteria.

A

TYPHOID FEVER

59
Q

There are three antigens that is of importance in serologic testing:

A

a. O antigen (cell wall)
b. H antigen (flagellar)
c. K antigen (capsular)/ Vi antigen (virulence)

60
Q

This is the outer polysaccharides of the cell wall. It is used to subdivide the salmonellae into group A to I.

A

O antigen (cell wall)

61
Q

There are two forms of H antigens, phases 1 and 2. Only one H proteins is synthesized at any one time, depending on which gene sequence is in the
correct alignment for transcription into mRNA.

A

H antigen (flagellar)

62
Q

This is antiphagocytic and is an important virulence factor for S. typhi. This is also used for the serotyping of S. typhi in the
laboratory.

A

K antigen (capsular)/ Vi antigen (virulence)

63
Q

• This is an enzyme immunoassay that detect IgM and IgG antibodies against the outer
membrane protein of Salmonella typhi

A

I. Typhidot

64
Q

• This is a direct agglutination test that is used to detect a rise in the antibody titers
against S. typhi antigens in patient’s serum.

A

II. Widal test

65
Q

• Anti-O and anti-H antibodies rise early at 1-2 weeks after infection, and peak at 3-5
weeks

A

II. Widal test

66
Q

• Anti-A and anti-B antibodies (against Vi antigens) rise 2-3 weeks after infection and
persist for 4-5 weeks

A

II. Widal test

67
Q

• Significant titers are 80 for unvaccinated patients and 160 for vaccinated patients

A

II. Widal test

68
Q

play a key role in the immune response.

A

T cells and macrophages

69
Q

show the presence of both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, which produce cytokines that activate macrophages, leading to phagocytosis and healing the primary chancre.

A

Primary lesions

70
Q

is capable of coating itself with host proteins, which delays the immune system’s recognition of the pathogen.

A

T. pallidum

Hematology 1 [LAB] (8 decks)

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