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Basic Science Flashcards

1
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma Stain

A

Desmin

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2
Q

Bone Content?

A

5-8% Water
20-25% Collage
60-70% Inorganic

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3
Q

Metastatic Cancer Staind

A

Keratin

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4
Q

What is the daily calcium recomendations for adults and lactating women?

A
  • Adults: 1200-1500

- Lactating Women: 2000mg/d

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5
Q

Disease of Proliferative Zone

A

Achondroplasia

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6
Q

Schwanoma

A

antoni A/Antonia B- Cellular and acelullar

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7
Q

Keratin Positive Cells

A

Metastasis is one

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8
Q

Pagets Disease

A

Thickening of Cortices

Coarsening of trabeculi

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9
Q

Osteoblast Makes?

A

Type I Collagen, No callagenous proteitns (TGFbeta, BMPs, Ostecalcin, Ostonectin, IGF)

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10
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas most usualy metastasis to where?

A

LUNG

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11
Q

Attachment of osteoclasts to bone?

A

Integrins: Vitronectrin, Fibronectin

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12
Q

Ewings Treatment?

A

Chemo
Wide Resection
Chemo

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13
Q

T1 T2 Bone Island

A

Dark/Dark

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14
Q

What does CD1 mark?

A
  • Eosinophillic Granuloma

- Langherann Cell Histiocytosis

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15
Q

Wnt Pathway Receptor?

A

LRP 5/6: causes BCatenin to accumulate is cytoplasm

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16
Q

PTH pulses vs Continuous

A

Conitnuous- catabolic, bone resorbtion, osteoclasts

Pulses- Osteblasts, anabolic, bone formation

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17
Q

What is CD138 mark

A
  • Multiple Myeloma
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18
Q

Distal 1/3 pediatric Clavicle Fx

A

Periosteal sleeve intact, SH2 through physis, CC ligaments usually intact

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19
Q

High Signal on T1 AND T2

A

hemangioma, chronic hematoma

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20
Q

Immunostain: Langerhans Cell

A

s-100

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21
Q

Wake Up Test

A

Sustained SSEPs decrease > 50% amplitude OR

tceMEPs decrase >75% (tceMEPs most sensitive)

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22
Q

Cathepsin K

A

Enzyme is osteoclast: defect leads to Pyncodysostosis

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23
Q

What will stain for in leiomyosarcoma?

A

Leio- means smooth muscle

- Will stain positive for smooth muscle Actin

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24
Q

Aging Disk

A

Decrease CS, Increase KS, increase COL 1

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25
Q

Rickets

A

Primary cause low Calcium

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26
Q

Lateral Condyle Fx- Lateral Spurring

A
  • Initial Fx Displacement
  • Not srgical intervention
  • Does not affect final ROM
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27
Q

What is in DNA

What is in RNA

A

DNA Thyamine, guanine, adenosine, cytosiene

RNA, URACIL, cytosience, adenosine, guanine

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28
Q

Monoclonal Antibody to Sclerostin?

A

Romosumab: Therefore will increase in b0ne formation

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29
Q

What can also be seen in benign hemangioms along with endothelial cells and blood?

A

phleboliths

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30
Q

Destructive Lesions YOUNG

A

Osteosarcoma, Ewings, Leukemia, Lymphoma (Eosiphililc Granulma, ostemyleitis - benign)

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31
Q

Atypical Lipomatous Tumor Staind

A

MDM2

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32
Q

S-100 , CD1A

A

Langerhans Cell Histrocytosis (Eosinophilic Granuloma)

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33
Q

What receptor does BMP use and what does it result in?

A
  • Pluripotent cells to form into bone forming cells

- Serine- Threonin Kinases receptors

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34
Q

Negative Pressure Dressing

A
  • Decrease interstitial fluid, increase vascularity
  • NO decrease in baterai counts
  • Accelerates granulation tissue
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35
Q

CD 20 positive?

A

Lymphoma

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36
Q

Myeloma Stain

A

CD 138

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37
Q

Competitive Ligand agaist WNT?

A

Sclerostin: decreased bone formation

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38
Q

Location of Calcitonin Receptor?

A

Osteoclast

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39
Q

Myxoid Liposarcoma Mutation

A

12;16

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40
Q

Type of Collgen important for mineralization

A

Type 10 (X)

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41
Q

What was Calcitonin do?

A

It inhibits osteoblast maturation, decrase serum calcium level, works against pTH

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42
Q

RankL made where?

A

Made at osteblasst from Vita D, PTh input. Receptor on Osteoclast

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43
Q

Differential of Tibial Lesion

A

Osteofibrous dysplasia
Fibrous dysplasia
Adamantinoma
Osteomyelitis

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44
Q

Which Soft tissue sacromas Metastasis to Lymph nodes?

A 
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Clear cell sarcoma
Synovial Sarcoma
Epitheliod Sarcoma 
R C S E
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45
Q

Nitrogen Containing Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate, Zolendronate: FPP Patway

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46
Q

Malignant Lesions in Adult

A 
Mets
Myeloma
Lymphoma
Chondrosarcoma 
Pleomorphic Sarcoma
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47
Q

Iliopectineal Fascia

A

Separates Lateral Iliopsoas and femoral nerve from medial iliac vessels

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48
Q

Closest to Posterior Knee Capsule

A

Popliteal Artery Lateral

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49
Q

Corona Mortis

A

Obturator –> Inferior epigastric or external iliac

50
Q

Lymphoma

A

CD-20 histostaind

51
Q

Brachialis Dual Innervation

A

MCTN and Radial Nerve (Inferolateral)

52
Q

Ewings Sarcoma Mutation

53
Q

Non-Nitrogen Containing Bisphosphonates

A

Etindronate, tiludanate;Osteoclast apoptosis due to toxic ATP analoge

54
Q

Stages of OA?

A

1: Increase H20, Decrease PGs
2. Chondrocytes release mediators
3. Proliferative repsponse and anaboli decrease

55
Q

Main Problem is Rickets/Ostemalacia?

A

Lack of mineralizationn of bone. Increase unmineralized matrix

56
Q

What is most common NCP?

A

Osteocalcin- Controls size of apatite crystals

57
Q

CD99

A

Ewings Sarcoma

58
Q

Eccentric, Metaphyseal, Sclerotic border, thinned cotex/intact

59
Q

What tumor has highest local recurrance rate

60
Q

Phleboliths in soft tissue

61
Q

Synovial Sarcoma Mutation

62
Q

Diseases of reserve zone

A

diastrophic dysplasia

63
Q

Hypertrophic Zone

64
Q

Sacral Lesions Diff

A
  1. Chondroma- psylicerous cells
  2. Metastases
  3. Myeloma,
  4. Lymphoma
  5. Chondrosarcoma
65
Q

Nerve Sheath TUmor Staind

66
Q

Nerve piercing Iliopsoas (l1/2)

A

Genitofemoral

- Ilioinguinal. LFC< iliohypogastric is posterior to IP

67
Q

Role of BCatenin?

A

Form WNT pathway, BONE FORMATION

68
Q

Plasma Cells

A

Eccentric nucleus, clock fact nucleous, Multple myleoma

69
Q

Enzyme that lowers pH at ruffled border?

A

Carbonic anhydrase: defect leads to Osteopetrosis

70
Q

Soft tissue mass low on T1, High on T2

A 
Myxoma 
Sarcoma
neurofibroma
Nodular fascitis 
Giant Cell Tumor
71
Q

Benign Lesions in Adult

A 
Enchondroma
infracts
Pagets
Hyperparathyroidism
Bone Islands
72
Q

EIP/EDC

A

EIP most distl muscle belly, EIP is ulnar and deep to EDC

73
Q

Ewings Stain

74
Q

What substance keeps chondrocyte phase alive (physis open)

75
Q

Farnesyl Pyrophosphate

A

Bisphosphnates. NITROGEN Containing

76
Q

Clear Cell Sarcoma Translocation

77
Q

What can bisphosphonates do to redce 1 yar nad 3 year risk of vertebral fractures/.

A

Decrease by 65% in one yaer

Decrease by 40% at three years

78
Q

What extensor tendon is at most risk for rupture at hand in Rhuematoid?

A

Extensor digiti quinti

Vaughan Jackson Syndrome

79
Q

Bacitracin mechonism of action at the bacterial level?

A

Increases cell wall permeability

80
Q

Tetracyclines (Doxy) can be used in addition to MTX in which disorder?

81
Q

Level of Evidence I, II, III

A

I- RCT
II: Prospective Cohort Studies
III: Case-control or retrospective cohort studies

82
Q

What is the dosage for CRPS and drug?

A

Vitamin C, 500mg for 50 days

83
Q

Which enzyme does warfarin inhibit specifically?

A

Vitamine K 2,3 epoxide reductase (deplete carbodylation of Vitakime K depended clottin factors

84
Q

At what level does clopidogrel activity ?

A

Binds to ADP at the level of platelets

85
Q

Synovium cell types

A

Synoviaum DOES NOT have true basement membrane
Type A_ macrophages
Type B- Produce fluid
NON Newtonian fluid

86
Q

What is Factor 1A in clottin cascade?

A

Fibrin

- TXA blocks its breakdown

87
Q

Dabigatran

A

Direct Thrombin inhibitor

88
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

is direct factor Xa inhibitor

89
Q

Fondiparanox

A

Indirect factor Xa inhibotr

90
Q

Entanaracept

Anakinra?

A

TNF alpha antagonist - competes againts

IL-1 receptor antagonist

91
Q

SUn ad Vita D

A

SUN: 7 deoxychoesterol–> cholcalciferol (D3)
THEN LIVER: D3–>25, Hydroxyvitamin D
THEN to KIDNEY–> 1,15 Hydoryvitamin D

92
Q

Anti CCP best used for diagnosis and prognosis of what?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

93
Q

What is DNA Gyrase and what inhibits it?

A

Tpye II topoisomerase that unwinds DNA for replication

- inhibited by Floruoquinilones

94
Q

What is Souther BLot used for?

A

Detection of amount of DNA

95
Q

What is a Western Blot used for ?

A

Protein level expression inside the cells

96
Q

Elisa is used for what?

A

THe detection of antiboy of immunoglobulin

97
Q

What test is used to detect mRNA in a sample

98
Q

What happen in renal osteodystrophy?

Causes secondary HYPERPARATHYROIDism

A
  • Wasting of calcium
  • Elevated Phosphorus
  • PTH responds (high)-
99
Q

Metal on metal hips have

A
  • steady state of wear after one yare
  • small wear particles
  • volumetric wear is greater than ceramic on metal
100
Q

What is scleraxis associated with?

A

Tendon and ligament formation

101
Q

2mm of shortenintg is how much extenosr lag?

102
Q

Atypical Lipomatous Tumor Mutation?

103
Q

Primary bone sarcoma staging

A

Biopsy
Ct Chest
Whole Body Scan
No need to CT C/A/P

104
Q

Defect in Ehlors Danlos

A

Type III Collagen

105
Q

Soft tissue sarcoma staging?

A

CT Chest, Chest Xray,
Lymph Nodes
NO WHole body scan unlles myxoid liposarcoma

106
Q

What call are involved in hypersensitivty reaction to ortho implants?

A

T Lymphocytes

107
Q

What is patellar clunck assocated with ?

A

Small patellar poly

Valgus offset, posterior stabilized knees

108
Q

What separates the femoral nerve from vein in middle window? Which structure is more lateral?

A

Iliopectineal fascia

The nerve is more lateral

109
Q

What do osteoid osteoms produce?

A

Prostoglandin E2

110
Q

Lateral patellorfemoral angle normal?

111
Q

Enteracept MOA?

A

TNF-Alpha antagonists

112
Q

Type I adn Type II Vitamin D dependent Ricketts?

A

Both AR
Type I: 25 Vit D OH alpha hydroxylase
Type II: Receptor for 1,25 OH Vit D

113
Q

What should the humeral head thickness be compared to humeral head component radous of curvature?

A

70-75%

There fore 48mm humeral head–24mm radius curavture: 75% of 24mm

114
Q

What bud is commonly assocaited with glycocalyx?

A

S. Epidermidis

115
Q

What does ascorbic acid do?

A

Plays role in hydoxylation of lysine and proline in colagen cross linkings

116
Q

EXT 1 (8), EXT 2 (11) reduces what proteglycan?

A

Heparin Sulfate

117
Q

Polyglycolic acid versus polylactic acid?

A

Polyglycolis is STIFFER, and resorbs FASTER

118
Q

Self Mutiliation/Aggressice behavior/retardation/scoliosis?

A

Lesh-Nyham syndrome

X-Linked REcessive

119
Q

Zirconia goes from___phase to ___phase after inplantation resulting in increase surface roughness?

A

Tetragonal to monoclinic phases

120
Q

What is most common morphologic finding is isolated CAM lesion?

A

Acetabular cartical separation from the labrum

121
Q

Where is the most common place for intraoperative fractures in TKA?

122
Q

Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia defect?

Have to differentiate from SEP (Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia)

A

Type II

Matrillin -3

OITE Prep Fredericks (15 decks)

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