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Basic Science Flashcards

1
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma Stain

A

Desmin

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2
Q

Bone Content?

A

5-8% Water
20-25% Collage
60-70% Inorganic

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3
Q

Metastatic Cancer Staind

A

Keratin

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4
Q

What is the daily calcium recomendations for adults and lactating women?

A
  • Adults: 1200-1500

- Lactating Women: 2000mg/d

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5
Q

Disease of Proliferative Zone

A

Achondroplasia

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6
Q

Schwanoma

A

antoni A/Antonia B- Cellular and acelullar

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7
Q

Keratin Positive Cells

A

Metastasis is one

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8
Q

Pagets Disease

A

Thickening of Cortices

Coarsening of trabeculi

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9
Q

Osteoblast Makes?

A

Type I Collagen, No callagenous proteitns (TGFbeta, BMPs, Ostecalcin, Ostonectin, IGF)

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10
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas most usualy metastasis to where?

A

LUNG

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11
Q

Attachment of osteoclasts to bone?

A

Integrins: Vitronectrin, Fibronectin

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12
Q

Ewings Treatment?

A

Chemo
Wide Resection
Chemo

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13
Q

T1 T2 Bone Island

A

Dark/Dark

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14
Q

What does CD1 mark?

A
  • Eosinophillic Granuloma

- Langherann Cell Histiocytosis

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15
Q

Wnt Pathway Receptor?

A

LRP 5/6: causes BCatenin to accumulate is cytoplasm

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16
Q

PTH pulses vs Continuous

A

Conitnuous- catabolic, bone resorbtion, osteoclasts

Pulses- Osteblasts, anabolic, bone formation

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17
Q

What is CD138 mark

A
  • Multiple Myeloma
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18
Q

Distal 1/3 pediatric Clavicle Fx

A

Periosteal sleeve intact, SH2 through physis, CC ligaments usually intact

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19
Q

High Signal on T1 AND T2

A

hemangioma, chronic hematoma

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20
Q

Immunostain: Langerhans Cell

A

s-100

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21
Q

Wake Up Test

A

Sustained SSEPs decrease > 50% amplitude OR

tceMEPs decrase >75% (tceMEPs most sensitive)

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22
Q

Cathepsin K

A

Enzyme is osteoclast: defect leads to Pyncodysostosis

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23
Q

What will stain for in leiomyosarcoma?

A

Leio- means smooth muscle

- Will stain positive for smooth muscle Actin

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24
Q

Aging Disk

A

Decrease CS, Increase KS, increase COL 1

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25
Rickets
Primary cause low Calcium
26
Lateral Condyle Fx- Lateral Spurring
- Initial Fx Displacement - Not srgical intervention - Does not affect final ROM
27
What is in DNA | What is in RNA
DNA Thyamine, guanine, adenosine, cytosiene | RNA, URACIL, cytosience, adenosine, guanine
28
Monoclonal Antibody to Sclerostin?
Romosumab: Therefore will increase in b0ne formation
29
What can also be seen in benign hemangioms along with endothelial cells and blood?
phleboliths
30
Destructive Lesions YOUNG
Osteosarcoma, Ewings, Leukemia, Lymphoma (Eosiphililc Granulma, ostemyleitis - benign)
31
Atypical Lipomatous Tumor Staind
MDM2
32
S-100 , CD1A
Langerhans Cell Histrocytosis (Eosinophilic Granuloma)
33
What receptor does BMP use and what does it result in?
- Pluripotent cells to form into bone forming cells | - Serine- Threonin Kinases receptors
34
Negative Pressure Dressing
- Decrease interstitial fluid, increase vascularity - NO decrease in baterai counts - Accelerates granulation tissue
35
CD 20 positive?
Lymphoma
36
Myeloma Stain
CD 138
37
Competitive Ligand agaist WNT?
Sclerostin: decreased bone formation
38
Location of Calcitonin Receptor?
Osteoclast
39
Myxoid Liposarcoma Mutation
12;16
40
Type of Collgen important for mineralization
Type 10 (X)
41
What was Calcitonin do?
It inhibits osteoblast maturation, decrase serum calcium level, works against pTH
42
RankL made where?
Made at osteblasst from Vita D, PTh input. Receptor on Osteoclast
43
Differential of Tibial Lesion
Osteofibrous dysplasia Fibrous dysplasia Adamantinoma Osteomyelitis
44
Which Soft tissue sacromas Metastasis to Lymph nodes?
``` Rhabdomyosarcoma Clear cell sarcoma Synovial Sarcoma Epitheliod Sarcoma R C S E ```
45
Nitrogen Containing Bisphosphonates
Alendronate, Zolendronate: FPP Patway
46
Malignant Lesions in Adult
``` Mets Myeloma Lymphoma Chondrosarcoma Pleomorphic Sarcoma ```
47
Iliopectineal Fascia
Separates Lateral Iliopsoas and femoral nerve from medial iliac vessels
48
Closest to Posterior Knee Capsule
Popliteal Artery Lateral
49
Corona Mortis
Obturator --> Inferior epigastric or external iliac
50
Lymphoma
CD-20 histostaind
51
Brachialis Dual Innervation
MCTN and Radial Nerve (Inferolateral)
52
Ewings Sarcoma Mutation
11:22
53
Non-Nitrogen Containing Bisphosphonates
Etindronate, tiludanate;Osteoclast apoptosis due to toxic ATP analoge
54
Stages of OA?
1: Increase H20, Decrease PGs 2. Chondrocytes release mediators 3. Proliferative repsponse and anaboli decrease
55
Main Problem is Rickets/Ostemalacia?
Lack of mineralizationn of bone. Increase unmineralized matrix
56
What is most common NCP?
Osteocalcin- Controls size of apatite crystals
57
CD99
Ewings Sarcoma
58
Eccentric, Metaphyseal, Sclerotic border, thinned cotex/intact
NOF
59
What tumor has highest local recurrance rate
Chordoma
60
Phleboliths in soft tissue
Angioma
61
Synovial Sarcoma Mutation
X:18
62
Diseases of reserve zone
diastrophic dysplasia
63
Hypertrophic Zone
Ricketts
64
Sacral Lesions Diff
1. Chondroma- psylicerous cells 2. Metastases 3. Myeloma, 4. Lymphoma 5. Chondrosarcoma
65
Nerve Sheath TUmor Staind
s100
66
Nerve piercing Iliopsoas (l1/2)
Genitofemoral | - Ilioinguinal. LFC< iliohypogastric is posterior to IP
67
Role of BCatenin?
Form WNT pathway, BONE FORMATION
68
Plasma Cells
Eccentric nucleus, clock fact nucleous, Multple myleoma
69
Enzyme that lowers pH at ruffled border?
Carbonic anhydrase: defect leads to Osteopetrosis
70
Soft tissue mass low on T1, High on T2
``` Myxoma Sarcoma neurofibroma Nodular fascitis Giant Cell Tumor ```
71
Benign Lesions in Adult
``` Enchondroma infracts Pagets Hyperparathyroidism Bone Islands ```
72
EIP/EDC
EIP most distl muscle belly, EIP is ulnar and deep to EDC
73
Ewings Stain
CD 99
74
What substance keeps chondrocyte phase alive (physis open)
PTHrP
75
Farnesyl Pyrophosphate
Bisphosphnates. NITROGEN Containing
76
Clear Cell Sarcoma Translocation
12:22
77
What can bisphosphonates do to redce 1 yar nad 3 year risk of vertebral fractures/.
Decrease by 65% in one yaer | Decrease by 40% at three years
78
What extensor tendon is at most risk for rupture at hand in Rhuematoid?
Extensor digiti quinti | Vaughan Jackson Syndrome
79
Bacitracin mechonism of action at the bacterial level?
Increases cell wall permeability
80
Tetracyclines (Doxy) can be used in addition to MTX in which disorder?
RA
81
Level of Evidence I, II, III
I- RCT II: Prospective Cohort Studies III: Case-control or retrospective cohort studies
82
What is the dosage for CRPS and drug?
Vitamin C, 500mg for 50 days
83
Which enzyme does warfarin inhibit specifically?
Vitamine K 2,3 epoxide reductase (deplete carbodylation of Vitakime K depended clottin factors
84
At what level does clopidogrel activity ?
Binds to ADP at the level of platelets
85
Synovium cell types
Synoviaum DOES NOT have true basement membrane Type A_ macrophages Type B- Produce fluid NON Newtonian fluid
86
What is Factor 1A in clottin cascade?
Fibrin | - TXA blocks its breakdown
87
Dabigatran
Direct Thrombin inhibitor
88
Rivaroxaban
is direct factor Xa inhibitor
89
Fondiparanox
Indirect factor Xa inhibotr
90
Entanaracept | Anakinra?
TNF alpha antagonist - competes againts | IL-1 receptor antagonist
91
SUn ad Vita D
SUN: 7 deoxychoesterol--> cholcalciferol (D3) THEN LIVER: D3-->25, Hydroxyvitamin D THEN to KIDNEY--> 1,15 Hydoryvitamin D
92
Anti CCP best used for diagnosis and prognosis of what?
Rheumatoid arthritis
93
What is DNA Gyrase and what inhibits it?
Tpye II topoisomerase that unwinds DNA for replication | - inhibited by Floruoquinilones
94
What is Souther BLot used for?
Detection of amount of DNA
95
What is a Western Blot used for ?
Protein level expression inside the cells
96
Elisa is used for what?
THe detection of antiboy of immunoglobulin
97
What test is used to detect mRNA in a sample
RT- PCR
98
What happen in renal osteodystrophy? | Causes secondary HYPERPARATHYROIDism
- Wasting of calcium - Elevated Phosphorus - PTH responds (high)-
99
Metal on metal hips have
- steady state of wear after one yare - small wear particles - volumetric wear is greater than ceramic on metal
100
What is scleraxis associated with?
Tendon and ligament formation
101
2mm of shortenintg is how much extenosr lag?
7d
102
Atypical Lipomatous Tumor Mutation?
MDM2
103
Primary bone sarcoma staging
Biopsy Ct Chest Whole Body Scan No need to CT C/A/P
104
Defect in Ehlors Danlos
Type III Collagen
105
Soft tissue sarcoma staging?
CT Chest, Chest Xray, Lymph Nodes NO WHole body scan unlles myxoid liposarcoma
106
What call are involved in hypersensitivty reaction to ortho implants?
T Lymphocytes
107
What is patellar clunck assocated with ?
Small patellar poly | Valgus offset, posterior stabilized knees
108
What separates the femoral nerve from vein in middle window? Which structure is more lateral?
Iliopectineal fascia | The nerve is more lateral
109
What do osteoid osteoms produce?
Prostoglandin E2
110
Lateral patellorfemoral angle normal?
> 11d
111
Enteracept MOA?
TNF-Alpha antagonists
112
Type I adn Type II Vitamin D dependent Ricketts?
Both AR Type I: 25 Vit D OH alpha hydroxylase Type II: Receptor for 1,25 OH Vit D
113
What should the humeral head thickness be compared to humeral head component radous of curvature?
70-75% | There fore 48mm humeral head--24mm radius curavture: 75% of 24mm
114
What bud is commonly assocaited with glycocalyx?
S. Epidermidis
115
What does ascorbic acid do?
Plays role in hydoxylation of lysine and proline in colagen cross linkings
116
EXT 1 (8), EXT 2 (11) reduces what proteglycan?
Heparin Sulfate
117
Polyglycolic acid versus polylactic acid?
Polyglycolis is STIFFER, and resorbs FASTER
118
Self Mutiliation/Aggressice behavior/retardation/scoliosis?
Lesh-Nyham syndrome | X-Linked REcessive
119
Zirconia goes from___phase to ___phase after inplantation resulting in increase surface roughness?
Tetragonal to monoclinic phases
120
What is most common morphologic finding is isolated CAM lesion?
Acetabular cartical separation from the labrum
121
Where is the most common place for intraoperative fractures in TKA?
MFC
122
Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia defect? | Have to differentiate from SEP (Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia)
Type II | Matrillin -3

OITE Prep Fredericks (15 decks)

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