Basic Hematological Methods of Examination, Quality Assurance Program, Collection of Blood, and Anticoagulant Flashcards

1
Q

Basic screening test and is one of the most frequently ordered laboratory procedure.

A

Complete Blood Count

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2
Q

RBC Parameters

A

RBC Count
HGB
HCT
MCV
MCH
MCHC
RDW
RETIC

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3
Q

Platelets Parameters

A

PLT Count
MPV

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4
Q

WBC Parameters

A

WBC Count
NEUT Count: % and absolute
LYMPH Count: % and absolute
MONO Count: % and absolute
EO and BASO Count: % and absolute

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5
Q

The main component of erythrocytes, serves as the vehicle for the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

A

Hemoglobin

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6
Q

Serves as an important buffer in the
extracellular fluid.

A

Hemoglobin

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7
Q

Measurement of the concentration of Hgb in the blood

A

Hemoglobin Determination

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8
Q

Used to screen for disease associated with anemia and to evaluate polycythemia

A

Hemoglobin Determination

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9
Q

Hemoglobin Determination is used to screen for disease associated with _____ and to evaluate _____

A

Anemia
Polycythemia

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10
Q

The ratio of the volume of packed RBCs to the volume of whole blood.

A

Hematocrit

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11
Q

Hematocrit is also called _____

A

Packed Cell Volume (PCV)

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12
Q

Hct test is part of the _____

A

CBC

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13
Q

This test indirectly measures the RBC mass

A

Hct Test

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14
Q

Hematocrit Determination results are expressed as the _____

A

Percentage by volume of packed RBCs in the whole blood

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15
Q

Hematocrit Determination is an important measurement in the determination of _____ or _____

A

Anemia
Polycythemia

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16
Q

Blood test used to find out how many RBCs

A

RBC Count

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17
Q

RBC Count is also known as _____

A

Erythrocyte Count

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18
Q

RBC Count is important because RBCs contain _____ which carries oxygen to your body tissues

A

Hgb

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19
Q

The RBC Count is reported in:

A

Cells per microliter (μL, mcL, also called cubic millimeter, mm3)
Milliliter (mL, also called cubic centimeter, or cc)
Liter (L)

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20
Q

Increased RBC indicates _____

A

Polycythemia Vera

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21
Q

Decreased RBC indicates _____

A

Anemia

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22
Q

WBCs may be counted visually using a _____ and _____

A

Microscope
Hemacytometer

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23
Q

WBC Count technique is the same as RBC Count, but the typical dilution is _____, and the diluent is a _____

A

1:20
Dilute Acid Solution

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24
Q

Serves as a useful guide to the severity of the disease process.

A

WBC Count

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25
Q

WBC Count is also known as the _____

A

Leukocyte Count

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26
Q

A test that measures the number of WBC

A

WBC Count

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27
Q

A WBC Count detects _____

A

Hidden Infections

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28
Q

Percentage of each type of WBC

A

Differential Count

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29
Q

Differential Count can detect _____ and _____

A

Immature WBC and abnormalities

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30
Q

Neutrophils Differential Count detects _____

A

Pyogenic Infection

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31
Q

Eosinophils Differential Count detects _____

A

Allergic Disorder
Parasitic Infestation

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32
Q

Basophils Differential Count detects _____

A

Parasitic Infection

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33
Q

Lymphocytes Differential Count detects _____

A

Viral Infection

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34
Q

Monocytes Differential Count detects _____

A

Severe Infection by Phagocytosis

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35
Q

Use to assess the erythropoietic activity of the bone marrow

A

Reticulocyte Count

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36
Q

Reticulocyte Count uses what type of specimen?

A

Whole blood, anticoagulated with EDTA

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37
Q

In Reticulocyte Count, the whole blood, anticoagulated with EDTA is stained with a _____

A

Supravital Stain

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38
Q

Example of Supravital Stain

A

New Methylene Blue
Brilliant Cresyl Blue
Pure Azure Blue

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39
Q

Rate at which red blood cells sediment in a period of one hour.

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

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40
Q

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate is the rate at which red blood cells sediment in a period of _____

A

One hour

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41
Q

Common Hematology test and nonspecific measure of inflammation

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

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42
Q

One of the oldest Hematology tests that detects inflammation and roughly estimates its intensity

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

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43
Q

The Osmotic Fragility Test uses _____ to detect Spherocytes in heridetary Spherocytosis or Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A

Graduated Concentration of Saline Solutions

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44
Q

These are RBCs with proportionally reduced surface membrane area

A

Spherocytes

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45
Q

The Osmotic Fragility Test uses graduated concentrations of saline solutions to detect _____ in heridetary Spherocytosis or Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A

Spherocytes

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46
Q

The Osmotic Fragility Test uses graduated concentrations of saline solutions to detect Spherocytes in _____ or _____

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis
Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

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47
Q

Phenotypically detects an inherited RBC enzyme deficiency causing severe episodic hemolytic anemia

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Assay

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48
Q

The Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Assay phenotypically detects an inherited RBC enzyme deficiency causing _____

A

Severe Episodic Hemolytic Anemia

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49
Q

The Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Assay most commonly affects:

A

Male individuals of African, Mediterranean, and Asian Descent

50
Q

Used to detect and diagnose sickle cell anemia and other inherited qualitative hemoglobin abnormalities and thalassemia’s

A

Sickle Cell Solubility Screening Assay and its follow-up Tests
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis
High Performance Liquid Chromatography

51
Q

The sum of all those activities in which the laboratory is engaged to ensure that information generated by the laboratory is correct.

A

Quality Assessment

52
Q

The real purpose of Quality Assessment Program is to _____

A

Determine how correct/incorrect the result is

53
Q

What are the 3 Major Activities under Quality Assessment Program?

A

Preventive
Assessment
Corrective

54
Q

Activities done in prior to the examination of the specimen or sample that is intended to establish system conducive to accuracy testing.

A

Preventive

55
Q

Activities done during testing to determine whether the test systems are performing correctly.

A

Assessment

56
Q

Done when error is detected to correct the system.

A

Corrective

57
Q

An example of Corrective Major Activity under the Quality Assessment Program is _____

A

Recalibration of the instrument/machine

58
Q

Quality Assessment in Hematology Laboratory:

A
  • Intended to ensure the reliability of the laboratory test.
  • Objective is to achieve precision and accuracy.
59
Q

The closeness to the estimated value to the true mean.

A

Accuracy

60
Q

The reproducibility of a result, whether accurate or inaccurate.

A

Precision

61
Q

In Skin Puncture, the blood sample collected is called _____

A

Peripheral Blood

62
Q

In Skin Puncture, the blood sample is a mixture of _____, _____, and _____ with _____ and _____

A

Capillary Blood
Venous Blood
Arterial Blood
Interstitial Fluid
Intracellular Fluid

63
Q

Sites of Skin Puncture: (Specific)

A

Finger (Middle or Ring Finger)
Earlobe
Lateral portion of the Plantar Surface of the Heel/Toe

64
Q

Why Earlobe is possible to be a site of Skin Puncture?

A

Less nerve ending
Less pain
Less tissue

65
Q

If the patient if less than 1 year old, what is the preferred site for Skin Puncture?

A

Lateral portion of the Plantar Surface of the Heel/Toe

66
Q

Method of Skin Puncture: (Specific)

A

Heel Stick Procedure
Finger Puncture (3rd or 4th Finger of the non-dominant Hand)
Earlobe Puncture (Detects abnormalities in WBC and Histiocytes)

67
Q

Sites to avoid in Skin Puncture:

A
  • Inflamed and pallor areas
  • Cold and cyanotic areas
  • Congested and edematous areas
  • Scarred and heavily calloused areas
68
Q

Order of Draw for Skin Puncture:

A
  1. Tube for blood glass analysis
  2. Slides, unless made from specimen in the EDTA microcollection
  3. EDTA microcollection tube
  4. Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulant
  5. Serum microcollection tubes
69
Q

Manner of inserting a needle attached to a syringe to a palpable vein to collect blood for laboratory testing

A

Venipuncture

70
Q

The blood sample collected in the Venipuncture process is _____

A

Venous Blood

71
Q

3 Factors involved in a Good Venupuncture

A

Phlebotomist
Patient and his/her vein
The equipment needed

72
Q

The preferred angle insertion for a routine venipuncture?

A

30 degrees

73
Q

In the Venipuncture process, the needle should be (bevel up or bevel down)?

A

Bevel up

74
Q

Preferred length of needle for a Venipuncture

A

1 to 1.5 inches

75
Q

Time of tourniquet for the Venipuncture process

A

1 minute

76
Q

Blood pressure cuff for the Venipuncture process

A

40 to 60 mmHg

77
Q

Number of attempts in a Venipuncture process

A

Maximum of 2 attempts only

78
Q

Order of Draw for Venipuncture:

A
  • Blood culture (yellow stopper)
  • Coagulation tube (blue)
  • Serum tubes with or without activator (red)
  • Heparin (green)
  • EDTA (lavender)
  • Sodium fluoride tube with or without
    EDTA or oxalate (gray)
79
Q

Methods of Collection for Venipuncture:

A
  1. Syringe Method
  2. Evacuated Tube System Method (ETS Method)
  3. Winged Blood Collection Set (Butterfly Method)
80
Q

Sites of Venipuncture for newborn infants up to 18 months old:

A

External Jugular Vein
Temporal Vein or Scalp Vein
Superior Longitudinal Sinus

81
Q

Sites of Venipuncture for older children (18 months to 3 years old):

A

Femoral Vein
Long Saphenous Vein
Popliteal Vein
Ankle Vein

82
Q

Sites of Venipuncture for 3 years old to adult life:

A

Wrist Vein
Dorsal Vein of the Hand
Dorsal Vein of the Ankle

83
Q

Two patterns of Vein:

A

“H” Pattern
“M” Pattern

84
Q

Veins included in the “H” Pattern in the Antecubital Fossa

A

Median Cubital Vein
Cephalic Vein
Basilic Vein

85
Q

Veins included in the “M” Pattern in the Antecubital Fossa

A

Median
Accessory Cephalic Vein
Basilic Vein

86
Q

Most commonly used Anticoagulant in Hematology

A

Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA)

87
Q

Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid is also known as ______ or _____

A

Versene
Sequestrene

88
Q

Mode of Action of Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA)

A

Bind to non-ionized form of Calcium then chelates Calcium

89
Q

3 Forms of Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA)

A

Dipotassium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid
Disodium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid
Tripotassium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid

90
Q

In the 3 Forms of Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA), this is the most preferred.

A

Dipotassium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid

91
Q

Tripotassium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid recommended amount:

A

1.2 mg/dl of Blood

92
Q

The Tripotassium Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA) is used for:

A

CBC
ESR
Platelet Count
PBS

93
Q

Advantages of using Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA):

A
  1. Preserve cellular morphology when smears are prepared within 2 hours
  2. Prevent platelet aggregation
  3. Prevents artefact formation even on long standing
  4. Cell count, HbF, blood grouping, and electrophoresis
  5. Has a few toxic effects
94
Q

Disadvantages of using Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA):

A
  1. After 6 hours: Inc MCV, Inc OFT, Decreased ESR
  2. Causes decrease PCV
  3. Not suitable for coagulation studies
95
Q

An anticoagulant that is most common and preferred anticoagulant for coagulation studies

A

Citrate

96
Q

Mode of Action of Citrate:

A

Bind Calcium

97
Q

Anticoagulant buffer of Citrate:

A

3.8%/0.109 M Na Citrate

98
Q

What is the color of Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid (EDTA) stopper?

A

Lavender

99
Q

What is the color of Citrate stopper?

A

Light blue top

100
Q

Concentration of Citrate if used for Westergren Method of ESR

A

1 part of 3.8 % Disodium or Trisodium Citrate and 4 parts blood

101
Q

Concentration of Citrate if used for Coagulation Testing such as PTT and APTT Test

A

1 part of 3.8 % (.109 M) of 3.2 % (.109 M) aqueous solution Disodium Citrate or Trisodium Citrate and 9 parts of blood

102
Q

Advantages of Citrate Blood Collection Tube:

A
  1. For blood transfusion because citrate is less toxic.
  2. Trisodium Citrate is used for blood coagulation and platelet function test.
  3. Buffered citrate is now commonly used because it helps stabilize plasma pH. Buffered citrate is prepared by adding citric acid to Na citrate. Buffered citrate will increase stability of Factor V and VIII.
  4. For investigation of clotting disorders. No known disadvantage because it has specific use.
103
Q

A blood collection tube that is most commonly used for Osmotic Fragility Testing and Immunotyping

A

Heparin

104
Q

Heparin is most commonly used for _____ and _____

A

Osmotic Fragility Testing
Immunotyping

105
Q

Mode of Action of Heparin

A

Bind Thrombin

106
Q

What are the 2 Forms of Heparin?

A

Litium Heparin
Sodium Heparin

107
Q

What is the color of stopper in Heparin Tubes?

A

Green

108
Q

Uses of Heparin Blood Collection Tube:

A

RBC Count
Haemoglobin
Hematocrit
ESR and OFT
Electrolytes

109
Q

Disadvantages of using Heparin Tubes:

A
  1. Not recommended for coagulation studies because it affects all stages of blood coagulation
  2. Not for WBC
  3. Not recommended for blood smear preparation
  4. Most expensive
110
Q

What is the color of stopper in Oxalates Blood Collection tube?

A

Gray

111
Q

Mode of Action in Oxalates Tube

A

Binds Calcium

112
Q

Recommended concentration of Oxalates

A

1-2 mg/ml of blood

113
Q

3 Forms of Oxalate:

A

Double Oxalate
Lithium Oxalate
Sodium Oxalate

114
Q

Double Oxalate is also known as _____

A

Paul Heller

115
Q

Salts of Ammonium and Potassium

A

Double Oxalate

116
Q

When Double Oxalate is used separately:

A

Ammonium Oxalate - RBC Swells
Potassium Oxalate - RBC Shrinks

117
Q

Double Oxalate or Paul Heller is also known as _____

A

Balance Oxalate

118
Q

Uses of Double Oxalate or Paul Heller:

A

All RBC Evaluation Tests since there is no effect on RBC

119
Q

Disadvantages of Double Oxalate or Paul Heller:

A
  1. Not recommended for blood transfusions
  2. Causes agglutination or clumping of WBCs and platelets
  3. Not recommended for peripheral blood smear preparation
120
Q

The preferred angle insertion for a donor bleeding venipuncture?

A

45 degrees