Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BACTERIOLOGY > baksss > Flashcards

baksss Flashcards

1
Q

What are the structure seen in a red staining organism such as Escherichia coli:
a. Nucleoid region
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. Cell wall
e. Outer membrane

A

All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram positive bacilli EXCEPT:
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Acinetobacter baumani
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

Acinetobacter baumani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gram positive cocci:
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Veillonella parvula
d. Escherichia coli
e. Neisseria meningitidis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Used for bacterial attachment and conjugation:
a. None
b. All of these
c. Pili
d. Common pili
e. Sex pili

A

All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A long chain fatty acid responsible for acid-fastness of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and its resistance to drying and chemical agents:
a. Murine layer
b. Mycolic acid
c. Slime layer
d. Peptidoglycan layer
e. Periplasmic space

A

Mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Extra chromosomal DNA:
a. RNA
b. Transposons
c. Plasmid
d. SNIPS
e. mRNA

A

Plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lacks true nucleus:
a. Tapeworms
b. Coronavirus
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Hepatocytes
e. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This/se organism/s develop/s inhibits the action of the white cells specially the neutrophil in destroying invading bacteria that possesses a slime layer in its structure:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. All of these
d. Haemophilus ducreyi
e. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This is TRUE for organisms that possesses capsule:
a. Susceptible against phagocytosis
b. None of these
c. Seen only on gram positive bacteria
d. All of these
e. Also known as Glycocalyx

A

Also known as Glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This enhances the affinity of the primary stain EXCEPT:
a. Mordant
b. All of these
c. Gram’s lodine
d. None of these
e. Crystal violet

A

Crystal violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All has cell wall EXCEPT:
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. None of these
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e. Micrococcus luteus

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Composition of an endospore
a. Sodium dipicolinate
b. Polysaccharide gel
c. Phospholipid bilayer
d. DNA, RNA and Proteins
e. Polyphosphate and Lipids

A

Sodium dipicolinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes infection to human upon entry of viable cells to the host:
a. Bacteria
b. All of these
c. Prions
d. Virus
e. None of these

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An 18 years-old male patient with promiscuous activity was admitted to the hospital for evaluation and treatment with
complaints of fever and painful urination with a yellow mucopurulent urethral discharge. A dacron swab of the urethral
discharge was sent to the laboratory for gram staining evaluation of the possible etiologic agent. Give the complete gram staining morphology of the organism pointed
a. Gram negative bacilli in pairs
b. Gram positive cocci in chains
c. Gram positive bacilli in chains
d. Gram variable cocci in chains or in pairs
e. Gram negative cocci in pair

A

Gram negative cocci in pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contests the Theory of Spontaneous Generation by scientific works:
a. Elon Musk
b. Plato
c. Oliver Swift
d. Francesco Redi
e. Robert Koch

A

Francesco Redi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

He proposed that mice arise from dirty hay:
a. Socrates
b. Voltaire
c. Plato
d. Aristotle
e. Democrates

A

Aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Noticed death rates higher in maternity wards staffed by medical students than in those attended by midwives. Death rates decreased in summer:
a. TJ Jaula
b. Socrates
c. Fe Del Mundo
d. lgnaz Semmelweis
e. Oliver Wendell Hoimes

A

lgnaz Semmelweis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Scientist who are dedicated and pioneered antisepsis.
a. Joseph Lister
b. Both
c. Neither
d. Ignaz Semmelweis

A

b. Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Supports Spontaneous Generation Theory
a. Francesco Redi
b. John Snow
c. Louis Pasteur
d. John Needham
e. Ignaz Semmelweis

A

John Needham

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Termed organisms as “Animacules”:
a. Francesco Redi
b. Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek
c. Aristotle
d. Sherwin Reyes
e. Craig Venter

A

Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What did we learn from Koch’s Postulates:
a. How to isolate and develop pure culture
b. Bacteria outside of host capable of causing disease
when returned to host
c. How to make an agar media
d. All of these
e. All EXCEPT how to make an agar media

A

All of these

22
Q

Which among the pairs are correct:
a. Animacules: Aristotle
b. Koch’s Postulates: Gerhard Domagk
c. Prontosil (dye): Robert Koch
d. Rabies vaccine: Edward Jenner
e. Penicillin: Alexander Flemming

A

Penicillin: Alexander Flemming

23
Q

In BSC II, how many percentage of air is recirculated?
a. 70%
b. 50%
c. 30%
d. 100%

A

70%

24
Q

A pathogen that usually causes a serious human or animal disease but does not ordinarily spread from one infected individual to another
a. Risk group 3
b. Risk group 4
c. Risk group 2
d. Risk group 1

A

Risk group 3

25
Q

An autoclave spore testing should be conducted every
a. Monthly
b. Yearly
c. Weekly
d. Every 6 months

A

Weekly

26
Q

BSC I:
a. Do not protect the person and the product but protect
the environment
b. protect the person but not product and environment
c. protect the product from contamination but not the
environment and the person
d. does not protect the product environment and the
person

A

Do not protect the person and the product but protect
the environment

27
Q

Direct examination of mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 2
c. biosafety Level 3
d. biosafety level 1

A

biosafety level 2

28
Q

HBV is considered a
a. BSL 3 Organism
b. BSL 4 Organism
c. BSL 1 Organism
d. BSL 2 Organism

A

BSL 2 Organism

29
Q

Ebola virus is considered
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 2
c. biosafety level 1
d. biosafety Level 3

A

a. biosafety level 4

30
Q

manipulating mycobacterium tuberculosis cultures should be done in
a. biosafety level 4 containment facility
b. biosafety level 2 containment facility
c. biosafety Level 3 containment facility
d. biosafety level 1 containment facility

A

biosafety Level 3 containment facility

31
Q

this is considered as the primary barrier in biosafety level
a. Safety equipment
b. laboratory facility
c. laboratory procedure
d. laboratory practice

A

Safety equipment

32
Q

bacillus anthracis grown in large quantities
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 3
c. biosafety level 1
d. biosafety level 2

A

biosafety level 3

33
Q

high individual risk and high community risk
a. risk group 2
b. risk Group 1
c. risk Group 3
d. risk Group 4

A

risk Group 4

34
Q

which of the following is checked annually for quality control
a. RPM of centrifuge
b. Balances
c. recently adjusted bsc cabinet
d. microscope

A

Balances

35
Q

True about the risk group 2 except:
a. laboratory exposures may cause serious infection,
but effective treatment and preventive measures are
available
b. a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease
that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory
workers
c. agents with available preventive and therapeutic
interventions
d. agents associated with human disease that is rarely
serious

A

a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease
that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory
workers

36
Q

bacillus subtilis:
a. biosafety level 2
b. biosafety level 4
c. biosafety level 3
d. biosafety level 1

A

biosafety level 1

37
Q

The pore size effective to remove most bacteria
a. 1 um
b. 0.50 um
c. 0.01 um
d. 0.22 um

A

0.22 um

38
Q

Which of the following is considered as droplet precaution
a. Rubeola
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. MRSA

A

Neisseria meningitidis

39
Q

Denatures proteins and disrupts the metabolism of the cell
a. Phenol
b. Acetone
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. QUATS

A

Acetone

40
Q

Principle involved in phenol which is found in lysol
a. damage the cell membrane
b. bacteriostatic
c. denature protein
d. modify functional groups of proteins & and
nucleic acids

A

damage the cell membrane

41
Q

Airborne precaution
a. vancomycin resistant enterococci
b. rubella
c. varicella
d. influenza virus

A

varicella

42
Q

this falls under biosafety and biosecurity
a. access control
b. PPE
c. engineering control
d. alarm

A

access control

43
Q

Principal involved in fractional sterilization
a. ionizing radiation
b. dry heat
c. moist heat

A

moist heat

44
Q

institutional and personal security measures designed to prevent
the loss theft misuse diversion or intentional release of pathogens
and toxins
a. lab biosafety and biosecurity
b. lab biohazard
c. lab biosecurity
d. lab biosafety

A

lab biosecurity

45
Q

the mission of OSHA is to protect
a. Workers
b. Patient
c. Company
d. patient and workers

A

Workers

46
Q

This is drug is used primarily to treat mycobacterial infections:
a. Monobactam
b. Vancomycin
c. Ethambutol
d. Aminoglycoside

A

Ethambutol

47
Q

Which of the following is a first-generation cephalosporin?
a. Cefuroxime
b. Ceftriazone
c. Cefipime
d. Cephalexin

A

Cephalexin

48
Q

This is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against gram positive cocci and gram negative rods and does not cross the CNS
a. Cefoperazone
b. Ceftzoxime
c. Ceftriazone
d. Ceftazidime

A

Cefoperazone

49
Q

Trimetoprim inhibits
a. Dihydrofolate reductase
b. PABA
c. Dihydropteroate synthetase
d. Glutamate

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

50
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline:
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
c. Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Synthesis of Folic acid synthesis

A

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

51
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA:
a. Rifampin
b. Vancomycin
c. Penicillin G
d. Tetracyline

A

Vancomycin

BACTERIOLOGY (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions