bacte practice ques Flashcards

1
Q

What are the structure seen in a red staining organism such as Escherichia coli:
a. Nucleoid region
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. Cell wall
e. Outer membrane

A

b. All of these

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2
Q

Gram positive bacilli EXCEPT:
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Acinetobacter baumani
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

c. Acinetobacter baumani

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3
Q

Gram positive cocci
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Veillonella parvula
d. Escherichia coli
e. Neisseria meningitidis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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4
Q

Used for bacterial attachment and conjugation:
a. None
b. All of these
c. Pili
d. Common pili
e. Sex pili

A

b. All of these

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5
Q

A long chain fatty acid responsible for acid-fastness of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and its resistance to drying and chemical agents:
a. Murine layer
b. Mycolic acid
c. Slime layer
d. Peptidoglycan layer
e. Periplasmic space

A

b. Mycolic acid

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6
Q

Extra chromosomal DNA:
a. RNA
b. Transposons
c. Plasmid
d. SNIPS
e. mRNA

A

c. Plasmid

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7
Q
A
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8
Q

Lacks true nucleus:
a. Tapeworms
b. Coronavirus
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Hepatocytes
e. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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9
Q

This/se organism/s develop/s inhibits the action of the white cells specially the neutrophil in destroying invading bacteria that possesses a slime layer in its structure:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. All of these
d. Haemophilus ducreyi
e. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

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10
Q

This is TRUE for organisms that possesses capsule:
a. Susceptible against phagocytosis
b. None of these
c. Seen only on gram positive bacteria
d. All of these
e. Also known as Glycocalyx

A

Also known as Glycocalyx

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11
Q

This enhances the affinity of the primary stain EXCEPT:
a. Mordant
b. All of these
c. Gram’s lodine
d. None of these
e. Crystal violet

A

Crystal violet

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12
Q

All has cell wall EXCEPT
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. None of these
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e. Micrococcus luteus

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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13
Q

Composition of an endospore
a. Sodium dipicolinate
b. Polysaccharide gel
c. Phospholipid bilayer
d. DNA, RNA and Proteins
e. Polyphosphate and Lipids

A

Sodium dipicolinate

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14
Q

Causes infection to human upon entry of viable cells to the host:
a. Bacteria
b. All of these
c. Prions
d. Virus
e. None of these

A

a. Bacteria

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15
Q

An 18 years-old male patient with promiscuous activity was admitted to the hospital for evaluation and treatment with
complaints of fever and painful urination with a yellow mucopurulent urethral discharge. A dacron swab of the urethral
discharge was sent to the laboratory for gram staining evaluation of the possible etiologic agent. Give the complete gram staining morphology of the organism pointed:
a. Gram negative bacilli in pairs
b. Gram positive cocci in chains
c. Gram positive bacilli in chains
d. Gram variable cocci in chains or in pairs
e. Gram negative cocci in pair

A

Gram negative cocci in pair

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16
Q

Contests the Theory of Spontaneous Generation by scientific works:
a. Elon Musk
b. Plato
c. Oliver Swift
d. Francesco Redi
e. Robert Koch

A

d. Francesco Redi

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17
Q

Germ Theory of the disease EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. Microbes can spread from one individual to another
c. A specific microbe causes specific disease
d. Diseases are caused by “animacules”
e. Diseases are caused by microbes

A

Diseases are caused by “animacules”

18
Q

He proposed that mice arise from dirty hay:
a. Socrates
b. Voltaire
c. Plato
d. Aristotle
e. Democrates

A

Aristotle

19
Q

Identify
a. Curvularia
b. Bacilli
c. Cocci
d. Spirochetes
e. Coccobacilli

A

Spirochetes

20
Q

Scientist who are dedicated and pioneered antisepsis.
a. Joseph Lister
b. Both
c. Neither
d. Ignaz Semmelweis

A

b. Both

21
Q

A pathogen that usually causes a serious human or animal disease but does not ordinarily spread from one infected individual to another
a. Risk group 3
b. Risk group 4
c. Risk group 2
d. Risk group 1

A

Risk group 3

22
Q

An autoclave spore testing should be conducted every
a. Monthly
b. Yearly
c. Weekly
d. Every 6 months

A

c. Weekly

23
Q

BSC I:
a. Do not protect the person and the product but protect
the environment
b. protect the person but not product and environment
c. protect the product from contamination but not the
environment and the person
d. does not protect the product environment and the
person

A

Do not protect the person and the product but protect
the environment

24
Q

Direct examination of mycobacterium tuberculosis:
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 2
c. biosafety Level 3
d. biosafety level 1

A

b. biosafety level 2

25
Q

HBV is considered a
a. BSL 3 Organism
b. BSL 4 Organism
c. BSL 1 Organism
d. BSL 2 Organism

A

BSL 2 Organism

26
Q

Ebola virus is considered
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 2
c. biosafety level 1
d. biosafety Level 3

A

a. biosafety level 4

27
Q

manipulating mycobacterium tuberculosis cultures should be done in
a. biosafety level 4 containment facility
b. biosafety level 2 containment facility
c. biosafety Level 3 containment facility
d. biosafety level 1 containment facility

A

biosafety Level 3 containment facility

28
Q

this is considered as the primary barrier in biosafety level
a. Safety equipment
b. laboratory facility
c. laboratory procedure
d. laboratory practice

A

Safety equipment

29
Q

bacillus anthracis grown in large quantities
a. biosafety level 4
b. biosafety level 3
c. biosafety level 1
d. biosafety level 2

A

biosafety level 3

30
Q

high individual risk and high community risk
a. risk group 2
b. risk Group 1
c. risk Group 3
d. risk Group 4

A

risk Group 4

31
Q

which of the following is checked annually for quality control?
a. RPM of centrifuge
b. Balances
c. recently adjusted bsc cabinet
d. microscope

A

Balances

32
Q

True about the risk group 2 except:
a. laboratory exposures may cause serious infection,
but effective treatment and preventive measures are
available
b. a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease
that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory
workers
c. agents with available preventive and therapeutic
interventions
d. agents associated with human disease that is rarely
serious

A

a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease
that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory
workers

33
Q

bacillus subtilis:
a. biosafety level 2
b. biosafety level 4
c. biosafety level 3
d. biosafety level 1

A

biosafety level 1

34
Q

The pore size effective to remove most bacteria
a. 1 um
b. 0.50 um
c. 0.01 um
d. 0.22 um

A

0.22 um

35
Q

Which of the following is considered as droplet precaution
a. Rubeola
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. MRSA

A

Neisseria meningitidis

36
Q

Denatures proteins and disrupts the metabolism of the cell
a. Phenol
b. Acetone
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. QUATS

A

Acetone

37
Q

Principle involved in phenol which is found in lysol
a. damage the cell membrane
b. bacteriostatic
c. denature protein
d. modify functional groups of proteins & and
nucleic acids

A

damage the cell membrane

38
Q

Airborne precaution
a. vancomycin resistant enterococci
b. rubella
c. varicella
d. influenza virus

A

varicella

39
Q

Part of biosecurity
a. proper shipping procedure
b. engineering control
c. security guard
d. proper disposal of ways

A

security guard

40
Q

this falls under biosafety and biosecurity
a. access control
b. PPE
c. engineering control
d. alarm

A

access control

41
Q

Principal involved in fractional sterilization
a. ionizing radiation
b. dry heat
c. moist heat

A

moist heat

42
Q

institutional and personal security measures designed to prevent
the loss theft misuse diversion or intentional release of pathogens
and toxins
a. lab biosafety and biosecurity
b. lab biohazard
c. lab biosecurity
d. lab biosafety

A

lab biosecurity