bakss2 Flashcards

1
Q

Associated with ototoxicity, hypotension and diffuse hyperemia known as red-man syndrome:
a. Rifampin
b. Penicillin G
c. Tetracyline
d. Vancomycin

A

Vancomycin

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2
Q

Which of the following is a first-generation quinolone?
a. Gatifloxacin, Gemifloxacin and Levofloxacin
b. Enoxacin, Fleroxacin, and Lomefloxacin
c. Nalidixic acid, Cinoxacin, and Oxolinic acid
d. Besifloxacin, Clinafloxacin, and Garenoxacin

A

Nalidixic acid, Cinoxacin, and Oxolinic acid

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3
Q

Mode of action of fluoroqunolone
a. Binds to PBP then inhibits transpeptidase enzyme
activity to activate autolysin
b. Bactericidal analogs of nalidixic acid that interfere
with bacterial DNA synthesis
c. Binds to 30S subunit
d. Acts at the early stage of cell-wall synthesis binding
at the D-ala D-ala pentapeptide

A

Bactericidal analogs of nalidixic acid that interfere with
bacterial DNA synthesis

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4
Q

Which of the following is/are fifth-generation cephalosporin/s?
a. Cefaclor
b. Ceftaroline and Ceftobiprole
c. Cefotaxime and Cefixime
d. Cefipime

A

Ceftaroline and Ceftobiprole

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aminoglycoside?
a. More active at alkaline pH
b. Attach and inhibit the function of the 30S subunit of
the bacterial ribosome
c. Ototoxic and Nephrotoxic
d. attaching to and inhibiting the function of the 50S
subunit of the bacterial ribosome

A

attaching to and inhibiting the function of the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

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6
Q

Most common adverse effect of penicillin:
a. Maculopapular rash
b. Gastointestinal distress
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Instertitial nephritis

A

Hypersensitivity

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7
Q

Associated with gray-baby syndrome:
a. Clindamycin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Rifampin
d. Sulfonamide

A

Chloramphenicol

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8
Q

Mode of action of Penicillin G:
a. Binds to 30S subunit
b. Monobactam inhibitor of transpeptidation
c. Acts at the early stage of cell-wall synthesis binding
at the D-ala D-ala pentapeptide
d. Binds to PBP then inhibits transpeptidase enzyme
activity to activate autolysin

A

Binds to PBP then inhibits transpeptidase enzyme activity to activate autolysin

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9
Q

Which of the following antibiotics target the peptidoglycan?
a. Trimethoprim and Pyrimethamine
b. Fluoroquinolone
c. Phosphonomycin and Cycloserine
d. Doxycycline and Lincosamide

A

Phosphonomycin and Cycloserine

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10
Q

Principle involved in coagulase test:
a. Fribrin is converted to fibrinogen
b. Damage to cell membrane
c. Damage to DNA
d. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

A

Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

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11
Q

Generalized infection widespread including capillaries:
a. Latent
b. Chronic
c. Fuiminating
d. Systemic

A

Systemic

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12
Q

Which of the following is considered an endotoxin enhancer?
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Verotoxin
d. TSST-1

A

TSST-1

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13
Q

Infection that is hidden, inactive, or dormant:
a. Subclinical
b. Chronic
c. Latent
d. Acute

A

Latent

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14
Q

Mechanism of action of rifampin:
a. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
b. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
c. synthesis of Folic acid synthesis
d. Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis

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15
Q

Mechanism of action of Trimetoprim:
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
b. synthesis of Folic acid synthesis
c. Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

A

synthesis of Folic acid synthesis

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16
Q

Stage where there is elimination of the organism and repair of the
damage is done:
a. Convalescent
b. Acute
c. Incubation period
d. Period of lIness

A

Convalescent

17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of endotoxin?
a. Produced by gram positive and gram negative bacteria
b. It has lipopolysaccharide
c. It is heat stable
d. Produced by gram negative bacteria only

A

Produced by gram positive and gram negative bacteria

18
Q

Involve large number of individuals in a short period of time:
a. Endemic
b. Pandemic
c. Sporadic
d. Epidemic

A

Epidemic

19
Q

Which of the following is a neurotoxin?
a. Botolinum toxin
b. Shiga toxin
c. TSST
d. Exotoxin A

A

Botolinum toxin

20
Q

When switching to the 100X lens, what should you use?
A. The 100X lens should be used in conjunction with a
10X eyepiece only
B. 100X lenses should be used with a few drops of
immersion oil to enhance the specimen
C. The 100X lens should only be used with low light
intensity
D. When switching to the 100X lens, a wet cloth should
be used to clean the lens for clarity.

A

B. 100X lenses should be used with a few drops of

21
Q

TCBS uses Bromthymol blue as its pH indicator; XLD is a selective
and differential medium for gram negative enteric organisms.
a. FIRST STATEMENT is TRUE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is TRUE
b. FIRST STATEMENT is TRUE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is FALSE
c. FIRST STATEMENT is FALSE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is TRUE
d. FIRST STATEMENT is FALSE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is FALSE

A

FIRST STATEMENT is TRUE and the SECOND STATEMENT
is TRUE

22
Q

Tetracycline inhibits the swarming of Proteus sp. on Thayer Martin
Medium; Martin Lewis Medium inhibits fungi using Ampothericin B
a. FIRST STATEMENT is TRUE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is TRUE
b. FIRST STATEMENT is TRUE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is FALSE
c. FIRST STATEMENT is FALSE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is TRUE
d. FIRST STATEMENT is FALSE and the SECOND
STATEMENT is FALSE

A

FIRST STATEMENT is FALSE and the SECOND STATEMENT
is FALSE