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MTAP 1 MIDTERMS > Bacteriology and Mycology > Flashcards

Bacteriology and Mycology Flashcards

1
Q

Specimen collection is collected during:

A

acute phase of illness; within 72 hours of illness

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2
Q

Collected samples must be transported without delay within _________

A

30 mins to 2 hrs

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3
Q

Level of prioritization: Critical/Invasive specimen (1)

A

CSF
Amniotic fluid
Blood
Pericardial fluid
Heart valves

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4
Q

Level of prioritization: Unpreserved (2)

A

Feces
Sputum
Wound drainage

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5
Q

Level of prioritization: Quantitation required (3)

A

Catheter tip
Urine
Tissues for quantitation

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6
Q

Level of prioritization: Preserved (4)

A

Urine
Feces
Swab in holding media

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7
Q

Level of prioritization: Batch processing (5)

A

Sputum
AFB culture

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8
Q

Specimen for culture:

A

Blood
CSF
Sputum
Throat swab
Nasopharyngeal swab
Cotton swab
Endotracheal aspirate
Calcium alginate swab
Stool

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9
Q

Specimen to rule out bacteremia, septicemia, and sepsis

A

Blood

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10
Q

Most common cause of sepsis normal flora:

A

E.coli, S. aureus

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11
Q

Blood pathogen that is never a normal flora

A

P. aeruginosa

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12
Q

Cleansing procedure before collecting blood for blood culture

A

70-95% alcohol -iodine scrub- alcohol rinse

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13
Q

Common contaminants of blood culture

A

Viridans
S.epidermidis
Cutibacterium acnes (P. acnes)

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14
Q

Dilution of blood to media

A

1:10

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15
Q

Result for blood culture:

A

7 days

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16
Q

Detection days for Brucellosis:

A

3-4 weeks

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17
Q

Detection days for leptospirosis

A

8 weeks

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18
Q

Microscopic agglutination test for leptospirosis uses:

A

Live leptospira antigen to patient’s serum

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19
Q

Macroscopic identification test for leptospirosis

A

Heat killed leptospira

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20
Q

Rapid Test for Brucellosis

A

Serum Agglutination Test

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21
Q

4 significant Brucella (scam)

A

B. Suis
B. Canis
B. Abortus
B. Melitensis

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22
Q

of sets to be collected for blood culture

A

2-3 sets

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23
Q

Hours of interval for blood cultures collected at 2 different sites

A

1 hour

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24
Q

Amount to be collected for blood culture: Adult

A

> 20 mL

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25
Q

Amount to be collected for blood culture: Pediatric

A

1-10 mL

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26
Q

Amount to be collected for blood culture: infants

A

0.5 mL to 1.0 mL

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27
Q

Anticoagulant for blood culture

A

0.025% SPS

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28
Q

SPS disadvantages

A

Inhibits other bacteria: Neisseria, G. vaginalis

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29
Q

Remedy for SPS inhibition

A

1% gelatin

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30
Q

Anticoagulant not used for bacterial culture

A

EDTA and Citrate

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31
Q

Procedure for blood culture that uses white top tube with EDTA

A

PCR procedure

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32
Q

Volume collected in blood culture in emergency cases

A

40 mL

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33
Q

Collect blood sample during:

A

peak of fever

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34
Q

Media for Blood culture (bacte)

A

TSB
BHI
Brucella broth
Castañeda bottle (biphasic media- both liquid and solid)

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35
Q

specimen to rule out meningitis

A

CSF

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36
Q

CSF tube intended for micro

A

Tube 2

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37
Q

Storage for CSF

A

37 deg C

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38
Q

Specimen for CSF smear preparation and culture

A

sediments

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39
Q

Cause of neonatal meningitis

A

S. agalactiae

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40
Q

Cause of meningitis for children < 5 years old

A

H. influenzae serotype b

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41
Q

Cause of meningitis for adult meningitis >29 years old

A

S. pneumoniae

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42
Q

Cause of meningitis for 5-29 years old

A

N. meningitidies

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43
Q

Cause of meningitis for elderly/immunocompromised

A

L. monocytogenes

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44
Q

Added to CSF collection from a shunt

A

thioglycollate

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45
Q

Thioglycollate allows the growth of

A

Facultative anaerobes
Strict aerobes
anaerobes

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46
Q

Specimen of choice for urine

A

clean catch midstream

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47
Q

Unable to void urine specimen

A

catheterized

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48
Q

Specimen of choice for anaerobic culture of urine

A

Suprapubic urine

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49
Q

Specimen for molecular studies like PCR in urine

A

1st morning urine

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50
Q

Usual request for urine

A

culture and sensitivity

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51
Q

1 cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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52
Q

UTI in females and elderly women with catheter

A

S. saphrophyticus

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53
Q

Other causes of UTI:

A

Klebsiella, E. faecalis (gram positive cocci)

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54
Q

Media used for susceptibility test for kirby bauer

A

MHA

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55
Q

Used for determining the dilution factor of urine sample

A

Calibrated loop

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56
Q

1 ul loop dilution factor

A

1000

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57
Q

10 ul loop dilution factor

A

100

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58
Q

Computation for colony count:

A

Colonies x dilution factor = colony count/mL of urine

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59
Q

Colony count considered as UTI

A

> 100,000

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60
Q

Urine without preservative: ___ priority

A

2nd

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61
Q

Urine with preservative: ______ priority

A

4th

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62
Q

Preferred preservative for urine culture

A

boric acid

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63
Q

Maintains accurate colony count preservative

A

Boric acid

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64
Q

Sputum is used to rule out:

A

Lower respiratory tract infections (pneumonia, bronchitis, TB)

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65
Q

Patient must be instructed to _______ with water prior to collection and cough deeply into container

A

rinse/gargle

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66
Q

Sputum volume requirement:

A

5 to 10 mL

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67
Q

Bartlett’s classification is used to differentiate

A

sputum and saliva

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68
Q

Bartlett’s classification: not a respiratory sample

no of SEC and PMN

A

no of SEC: >10
no of PMNs: <25

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69
Q

Cell that can be seen to confirm for true respiratory sample

A

Alveolar macrophage

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70
Q

Usual cause of pneumonia

A

K. pneumoniae
P. Aeruginosa
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

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71
Q

Causes pneumonia to those with cystic fibrosis

A

P. aeruginosa

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72
Q

1 cause of ventilator associated/intubated pneumoniae

A

P. aeruginosa

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73
Q

Process that should be done to sputum for detecting M. tuberculosis

A

Decontamination and Digestion

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74
Q

Process of removing contaminants and normal flora

A

Decontamination

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75
Q

Process of liquefying sample and free any trapped organism to make it detectable

A

Digestion

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76
Q

Gold standard for decontamination and digestion

A

N-acetyl-L-cysteine (mucolytic agent to digest) + NaOH (acts as decontaminant)

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77
Q

Other agents for decontamination and digestion

A

Z-TSP

4% NaOH

Cetylpyridium chloride Sodium chloride method

5% oxalic acid

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78
Q

BSL for contaminants

A

BSL 1

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79
Q

BSL for mucous membrane, ingestion, exposure

A

BSL 2

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80
Q

BSL for acquired aerosol transmission, inhalation

A

BSL 3

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81
Q

Specimen collection of SPUTUM according to Bailey’s and positive result

A

1 sputum in 3 days (1 per day)

positive: 2/3

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82
Q

DOH collection of SPUTUM; positive result

A

1st collection: morning

2nd collection: random

Positive: 1/2

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83
Q

Specimen of choice for detecting streptococcal infection and C. diphteriae

A

Throat swab

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84
Q

Major throat pathogen

A

S. pyogenes

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85
Q

Pharyngitis is caused by bacteria

A

S. pyogenes

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86
Q

Major throat flora

A

Viridans strep (S. mitis, S. mutans, S. salivarius)

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87
Q

No.1 cause of SBE and causes dental caries

A

Viridans

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88
Q

Viridans produces ______ and ______ which enhances attachments to teeth

A

Glucans and Dextrans

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89
Q

Specimen of choice for detecting B. pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

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90
Q

Causes whooping cough

A

B. pertussis

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91
Q

N. meningitidies is a normal flora from

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx

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92
Q

N. meningitidis is pathogen seen

A

CSF

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93
Q

Capsulated form of N. meningitidis

A

pathogenic

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94
Q

No capsule form of N. meningitidis

A

normal flora

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95
Q

Toxic to neisseria

A

Cotton swab

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96
Q

To collect N. meningitidis use:

A

Dacron
Calcium alginate

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97
Q

Component of cotton swab that is toxic to Neisseria

A

Fatty Acids

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98
Q

Specimen to collect when patient is on ventilator/intubated

A

Endotracheal aspirate

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99
Q

Not to be used for viruses as inhibits/prevent replication

A

Calcium alginate

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100
Q

Primarily used for aerobic bacteria

A

Swab

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101
Q

Anaerobic specimen should be rejected if it is collected using

A

SWAB

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102
Q

Specimen of choice for detecting GIT pathogens

A

Stool

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103
Q

Normally detected GIT pathogens

A

salmonella, shigella

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104
Q

Invasive bloody diarrhea

A

Shigella

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105
Q

4 serogroups of Shigella (d,f,b,s)

A

A: S. dysenteriae
B: S. flexneri
C: S. boydii
D: S. Sonnei

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106
Q

Serogroup of shigella that is a late lactose fermenter

A

S. Sonnei

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107
Q

Human pathogen of Salmonella

A

S. enterica

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108
Q

Animal pathogen of Salmonella

A

S. bongori

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109
Q

If stool specimen is not possible, specimen can be collected in

A

rectal swab

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110
Q

Media for stool specimen

A

EMB
MAC
SSA

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111
Q

Semi-quantitation technique for stool:

A

isolation streak (4 quadrants)

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112
Q

Critical values in Microbiology:

Positive

A

blood culture

CSF gram stain or culture

Cryptococcal antigen test or culture

blood smear for malaria

S. pyognes from a sterile site

Acid-fast smears or Mycobacterium culture

S. agalactiae or herpes simplex from genital site of a pregnant woman at term

Detection of significant pathogen (i.e., B. pertussis, Brucella, Legionella)

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113
Q

mostly used in laboratory; readily available for decontamination and digestant of sputum

A

4% NaOH

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114
Q

Agent added to sputum likely to contain P.aerugenosa

A

5% oxalic acid

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115
Q

Types of bacteria that is usually encountered in laboratory

A

Facultative anaerobes, aerobes, strict aerobes

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116
Q

Aerobes requirement:

A

21% O2 and 0.03% CO2

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117
Q

CAPNOPHILIC bacteria requires:

A

↑CO2

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118
Q

indicators of Gaspak Jar

A

Methylene blue and
Resazurin

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119
Q

Color of Resazurin in presence of oxygen

A

Pink

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120
Q

Color of Methylene blue in presence of oxygen

A

Blue

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121
Q

Absence of oxygen color in gaspak jar

A

colorless

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122
Q

Component of Gaspak Jar that maintais anaerobiasis

A

Palladium pellets

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123
Q

Common failure of gaspak jar

A

inactivation of catalyst due to repeated use

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124
Q

Anaerobic culture % of components

A

5% CO2
10%H2
85% N2

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125
Q

For detecting capnophylic (Neisseria) and microaerophilic

A

Candle Jar

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126
Q

microaerophilic requirements

A

5-10% CO2
5% O2

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127
Q

Darting motility
causes gastroenteritis
wings of seagull appearance
both microaerophilic and capnophilic

A

Campylobacter

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128
Q

Lowest concentration that inhibited bacterial growth of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

A

MIC (minimum inhibited)

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129
Q

Lowest concentration of antibiotic that can kill bacteria antibiotic susceptibility test

A

MBC (minimum bactericidal) /MLC (Minimum Lethal)

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130
Q

AST: can act against many bacteria

A

Broad Spectrum

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131
Q

AST: limited range of action

A

Narrow

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132
Q

Inhibitory effect of AST

A

Bacteriostatic

133
Q

Killing effect of AST

A

Bactericidal

134
Q

Media for Kirby Bauer Technique

A

Mueller Hinton Agar (MHA)

135
Q

AST: Depth of agar

A

3-5 mm

136
Q

AST: Size of antibiotic

A

6 mm

137
Q

AST: streaking method

A

Overlap streaking

138
Q

AST: Distance of disk from center

A

24 mm

139
Q

AST: distance between 2 disk

A

15 mm

140
Q

AST: incubation time and temperature

A

37 dec C for 16-18 hours

141
Q

Plates should not be more than

A

5 stacks

142
Q

Measure the zone of inhibition using

A

ruler or caliper

143
Q

AST: sensitive measurement

A

> 16

144
Q

AST: resistant measurement

A

< 16

145
Q

Too thin, very dry agar surface, and too light inoculum effect in Kirby Bauer technique

A

False Sensitive/ Larger zone of inhibition

146
Q

Too thick agar, too much moisture on agar surface, too heavy inoculum, and too long incubation time effect in Kirby Bauer technique

A

False Resistant/ Smaller zone

147
Q

Swarming on Kirby Bauer should be

A

ignored

148
Q

of antibiotic disk on a 150 mm plate

A

No more than 12 disk

149
Q

Distance of disk on 100mm plate

A

5 mm

150
Q

storage temp for antibiotic disk- working supply

A

2-8 deg C

151
Q

Cell wall inhibitors: Beta-lactams

A

Penicilin Cephalosphorins
Carbapenems

152
Q

Cell wall inhibitors: Glycopeptide

A

Vancomycin

153
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors

A

Aminoglycosides Tetracycline
MLS (Macrolide lincocymide streptogamin)

154
Q

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors: Aminoglycosides

A

gentamycin

155
Q

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors: MLS (Macrolide lincocymide streptogamin)

A

erythromycin
clarithromycin

156
Q

AST of Streptococci is fastidious; media is mixed with

A

Blood supplement

157
Q

To detect inducible clindamycin resistance among strains of S. aureus

A

Double disk diffusion test (D-test)

158
Q

Done if initial/after doing AST, erythromycin and clindamycin is discrepant

A

D-Test

159
Q

D-test positive result

A

Blunting or Flattening (looks like D)

160
Q

Gene that activates resistance to clindamycin

A

ERM gene

161
Q

Quantitative - dilution method:

Uses a strip with single antibiotic of different concentrations along its length

A

E-Test / MIC on a Stick

162
Q

(+) result of E-test/ MIC on a stick

A

Ellipse of growth inhibition

163
Q

Used for research rather than routine laboratory testing of antibiotic susceptibility

A

E-Test/ MIC on a stick

164
Q

Serum bactericidal Test is also known as

A

Schlicter test

165
Q

Measures activity of antibiotics in patient’s own serum against the pathogen, to detect if patient receiving effective treatment for infection

A

Schlicter Test (Serum Bactericidal Test)

166
Q

Screening for carbapenemase producing bacteria

Detect the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme carbapenemase

A

Modified hodge test

167
Q

First inoculated on MHA for Modified Hodge Test

A

E. coli

168
Q

Carbapenem disk for modified hodge test

A

Imipinem, meropenem

169
Q

Positive result of a modified hodge test

A

clover leaf like pattern of zone of inhibition

170
Q

Fungi belong to plant kingdom without roots and stems and are referred to as

A

thallophytes

171
Q

resembles keratin as to function but not composition

A

Chitin

172
Q

Existing only as Yeast or Mold

A

monomorphism

173
Q

Existing either as Yeast or Mold:

A

dimorphism

174
Q

Temperature dependent fungi

A

dimorphism

175
Q

Colonies are moist, creamy, opaque, and pasty

A

Yeast

176
Q

Fungi that grows at 37 deg C

A

Yeast

177
Q

Colonies are fluffy, cottony, wooly, or powdery

A

Mold

178
Q

Grows at room temperature

A

Mold

179
Q

Fundamental unit of fungi

A

hyphae

180
Q

Hyphae function

A

absorption of nutrients in the environment

181
Q

Mass of countless hyphae

A

Mycelium

182
Q

mycelium that penetrates medium and absorbs nutrients

A

Vegetative (thalus)

183
Q

Mycelium part extending above the surface of the colony; usually contains the fruiting buddies that produces spores

A

Aerial (reproductive)

184
Q

structure for reproduction of fungi

A

spores

185
Q

Type of hyphae: no cross walls

A

aseptate (coenocytic)

186
Q

Aseptated hyphae are exhibited by

A

zygomycota

187
Q

Hyphae divided into cells by crosswalls

A

Septate

188
Q

Spiral (coiled) hyphae is seen in:

A

trichophyton mentagrophytes

189
Q

Nodular bodies hyphae are seen in

A

Microsporum canis

190
Q

Hyphae with club shaped areas

A

Racquet

191
Q

Racquet hyphae are exhibited by:

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

192
Q

Broken comb appearance of hyphae

A

Pectinate body

193
Q

Pectinate body is seen in

A

M. audouinii

194
Q

curved, freely branching hyphae

A

Favic chandeliers/antler

195
Q

Favic chandeliers/antler is seen in:

A

T. schoenleini and T. violaceum

196
Q

Sexual and asexual spores (perfect fungi)

A

Synanomorphs/Polymorphs

197
Q

only sexual spores

A

teleomorphs

198
Q

produced during asexual reproduction

A

anamorph

199
Q

Made during sexual reproduction

Produced through meiosis

Produced as a result of nuclear fusion

A

Sexual spores

200
Q

formed within a SAC like structure called ASCUS; usually in a fixed # of eight

A

Ascospores

201
Q

formed within a club shaped structure called basidium

A

Basidiospores

202
Q

Formed from the union of the two undifferentiated or identical hyphal cells (similar)

A

Zygospores

203
Q

formed from the union of 2 differentiated (not identical)

A

Oospores

204
Q

Produced during asexual reproduction

Formed by/produced as a result of mitosis

Without nuclear fussion

A

Asexual spores

205
Q

asexual spores produced singly or in groups specialized vegetative hyphal strands called conidiophores

A

Conidia

206
Q

type that is unicellular

pyriform or elliptoid shape

A

Microconidia

207
Q

larger, spindle shape, multicellular hyphae

A

Macroconidia

208
Q

Formed through fragmentation of hyphal cells

A

Arthroconidia

209
Q

Arthroconidia is exhibited by:

A

trichosporon
geotichum
coccidiodes

210
Q

Produced through budding process

A

Blastoconidia

211
Q

Blastoconidia is seen in

A

Candida albicans

212
Q

formed from the enlargement of the hyphal cells

A

Chlamydoconidia

213
Q

within the hyphae of chlamydoconidia

A

intercallary

214
Q

Seen in the lateral part of the hyphae of chlamydoconidia

A

Sesile

215
Q

Seen in the end part of the hyphae of chlamydoconidia

A

terminal

216
Q

Formed within the sporangium

A

Sporangiospores

217
Q

Sporangiospores is seen in

A

Zygomycetes

218
Q

Zygomycota (conjugation fungi) genera:

A

Rhizopus
Absidia
Mucor

219
Q

Ascomycota (sac fungi) genera/species:

A

Aspergillus
Saccharomyces
Histoplasma capsulatum

220
Q

Basidiomycota (club fungi) genera/species:

A

C. neoformans

221
Q

Deuteromycota (fungi imperfecti) genera/species:

A

Dermatophytes: I.e. Fusarium

222
Q

Fungal infection affecting the lungs; collect respiratory secretions

A

Systemic mycosis

223
Q

may be collected using fine needle and inoculated at bedside

A

corneal scrapings

224
Q

may be collected by aspiration

A

pus

225
Q

use of cotton swabs may give false ____ microscopic results for pus

A

positive

226
Q

Most common specimen collected for fungal culture

A

Respiratory tract secretions

227
Q

Recovery of fungal agents causing systemic mycoses

A

Respiratory tract secretions

228
Q

Agent of fungal meningitis in immunocompromised people

A

C. neoformans

229
Q

If the CSF quantity is not sufficient, the priority is for

A

Micro

230
Q

Collected sample of CSF may be processed either through

A

Filtration or sedimentation (do centrifugation)

231
Q

Sediments of CSF are used for

A

smear preparation and culture

232
Q

Supernatant of CSF is used for

A

serologic testing

233
Q

CSF uses filter with a pore diameter of

A

.45 micra

234
Q

BACTEC for blood is used to rule out

A

disseminated infection

235
Q

blood lysis centrifugation system is used for the recovery of

A

dimorphic fungi

236
Q

Vaginal specimens and urine must be transported within ____ following collection

A

24 hours

237
Q

Vaginal secretion should be screened for

A

yeast

238
Q

These are collected for recovery of dermatophytes

A

Hair, Skin, Nails

239
Q

Tissue, Bone Marrow, and sterile body fluids must be minced or use high speed blender to get

A

cytoplasmic content

240
Q

Tissue samples must be inoculated on

A

agar

241
Q

Temporary mount for microscopic examination of fungi (%,L,I,C)

A

10-20% KOH
Lactophenol Cotton Blue
India ink/ Nigrosin
Calcofluor white stain

242
Q

dissolve the non-fungal material, digest the debris, make fungal structure more visible

A

10-20% KOH

243
Q

Concentration of KOH for skin and hair

A

10%

244
Q

Concentration of KOH for nails

A

20%

245
Q

Purpose of heating KOH smears

A

increase the rate of clearing

246
Q

Most widely used staining method for fungi (both preservative and stain)

A

Lactophenol Cotton Blue

247
Q

acts as preservative in lactophenol cotton blue

A

lactic acid

248
Q

acts as killing agent in lactophenol cotton blue

A

phenol

249
Q

acts as stain in lactophenol cotton blue

A

cotton blue

250
Q

Negative stain (only background is stained); to demonstrate the capsule of C. neoformans

A

India ink/ Nigrosin

251
Q

India ink in histopath is used as

A

intravital stain

252
Q

Fluorochrome dye; best for direct microscopy; will produce fluorescence; demonstrate chitin in cell wall

A

Calcofluor white stain

253
Q

Permanent mounts:

A

Gram Stain (Hucker modification)
Periodic acid Schiff
Gomori Methenamine silver
Acid Fast (Kinyoun’s )
Giemsa or Wright’s
Acridine Orange
Fontana Masson
H&E
Mayer’s Mucicarmine
Gridley’s stain

254
Q

Components of Hucker modification

A

Primary dye: Crystal Violet
Mordant: Iodine
Decolorizer: Alcohol/Acetone
Counterstain: safranin

Modified: ammonium oxalate to Crystal violet

255
Q

to demonstrate details of fungal elements; a histologic stain;

A

Periodic acid Schiff

256
Q

PAS will impart color

A

pink-red color bright magenta

257
Q

PAS background stains

A

Green

258
Q

best permanent mount

A

Gomori Methenamine Silver

259
Q

Gomori Methenamine silver imparts

A

brown to black (melanin)

260
Q

Outlines of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver

A

black

261
Q

Internal of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver

A

pink black

262
Q

background stain of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver

A

light green

263
Q

GMS-stained sections are essential for

A

Tissue pathology

264
Q

stain for detection of Nocardia (branching bacteria) and B. dermatitidis

A

Acid Fast (Kinyoun’s )

265
Q

routinely in hematology to stain blood cells

A

Wright

266
Q

stain blood parasite

A

Giemsa

267
Q

demonstrates yeast of histoplasma capsulatum

A

Giemsa/Wright stain

268
Q

Stain for detection of M. furfur (Tinea versicolor)

A

Acridine Orange

269
Q

Acridine orange result color

A

green fluorescent for fungal elements

orange for epithelial cells

270
Q

stain that detects hyphal pigmentation

A

Fontana Masson and H and E

271
Q

non-pigmented or lightly pigmented hyphae

A

Hyaline

272
Q

darkly pigmented hyphae

A

Dematiaceous

273
Q

demonstrate C. neoformans; wood’s lamp to detect fluorescence

A

Mayer’s Mucicarmine

274
Q

Gridley’s stain color for hyphae and yeasts

A

dark blue-pink

275
Q

Gridley’s stain color for tissues

A

deep blue

276
Q

Gridley’s stain color for background

A

yellow

277
Q

Mycology plates and tubes should be incubated in ambient air at what temperature

A

25-30 deg C (room temperature)

278
Q

some fungi grow slowly, cultures should not be discarded for

A

4-6 weeks

279
Q

Culture is held for

A

30 days

280
Q

prevents saprophytic fungi in fungi culture

A

cycloheximide

281
Q

General purpose media

A

Sabaouraud’s Dextrose Agar

282
Q

pH of Sabaouraud’s Dextrose Agar

A

5 to 6

283
Q

Screening media for dermatophytes

phenol red

A

DTM/ Dermatophyte Test Medium

284
Q

Recovery of dermatophytes

Sabaorauds with chloramphenicol and cyxloheximide

A

Mycosel/ Mycobiotic agar

285
Q

inhibit bacterial growth in mycosel

A

chloramphenicol

286
Q

prevents saprophytic fungi in mycosel

A

cyxloheximide

287
Q

Used for stimulating chlamydospore formation of C. albicans

A

Cornmeal agar

288
Q

Isolating aspergillus spp.

A

Czapek agar

289
Q

Culture medium for C. Neoformans (develops brown pigment)

A

Niger seed agar/ Bird seed agar or Staib’s medium

290
Q

Used for demonstrating pigment production of T. rubrum - capable of producing red pigment

A

Potato dextrose agar

291
Q

unable to produce red pigment in potato dextrose agar

A

T. mentagrophytes

292
Q

Identification of M/ audouinii differentiating it with M. canis

A

Rice medium

293
Q

Not capable of growing in rice medium

A

M. Audouinii

294
Q

Biochemical test media - differentiates T. mentagrophytes (+) from T. rubrum (-)

A

Urea agar

295
Q

Urea agar is also used to isolate

A

C. neoformans

296
Q

General media for yeast species

A

Brain Heart Infusion

297
Q

Medium for Nocardia

A

Casein medium

298
Q

Isolation of M. furfur

A

Malt extract agar

299
Q

Recovery of saprobic(saprophytic) and pathogenic fungi

A

Potato Flake agar

300
Q

Not a fungal media

A

Hay infusion agar

301
Q

All mold cultures must be processed in BSL

A

BSL 2

302
Q

Special test that differentiate T. mentagrophytes (+) and T. rubrum (-)

A

Hair perforation or baiting test

Rapid urease test

303
Q

Hair perforation or baiting test positive result:

A

V shape or conical hair perforation

304
Q

Positive result of Rapid Urease Test:

A

development of pink to purple color

305
Q

All candida are urease negative except

A

C. krusei

306
Q

Positive control for Urease Test

A

C. neoformans

307
Q

Negative control for Rapid Urease Test

A

C. albicans

308
Q

For rapid identification of C. neoformans

A

L-DOPA ferric citrate test

309
Q

Presumptive test for C. albicans and C. dubliniensis

A

Germ Tube Test

310
Q

Positive result for L-DOPA ferric citrate test

A

development of black color (phenol oxidase)

311
Q

Positive result for Germ Tube Test

A

fingerlike extensions/ hyphae like extension of young yeast cell- sperm like

312
Q

a microdiffusion test for serologic confirmation of systemic fungi (+) result presence of precipitin

A

Exoantigen test

313
Q

Test to differentiate C. dubliniensis and C. albicans

A

Temperature studies

314
Q

Able to grow at 42 deg C

A

C. albicans

315
Q

Identify particular carbohydrate that the fungi can use as sole carbon source

A

Carbohydrate assimilation test

316
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
Cellubiose
Galactose
Trehalose
Xylose

Negative for:
Melibiose

A

C. albicans

317
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Cellubiose
Galactose
Trehalose
Xylose

Negative for:
Melibiose
Lactose

A

C. tropicalis

318
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Cellubiose
Galactose
Xylose

Negative for:
Melibiose
Lactose
Trehalose

A

C. keyfer

319
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Galactose
Xylose
Trehalose

Negative for:
Cellubiose
Lactose
Melibiose

A

C. parapsillosis

320
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Galactose
Xylose
Trehalose
Cellubiose
Melibiose

Negative for:
Lactose

A

C. guillermondi

321
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Xylose

Negative for:
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose
Galactose
Trehalose
Cellubiose
Melibiose

A

C. krusei

322
Q

Positive for:
Glucose
Xylose
Trehalose

Negative for:
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose
Galactose
Cellubiose
Melibiose

A

C. glabrata

323
Q

Fungi that may be detected through serological test

A

Agents of systemic mycosis: Blastomyces, Histoplasma

Opportunistic fungis: Cryptococcus, Aspergillus

324
Q

Particularly useful in diagnosing cryptococcal meningitis from CSF specimens

A

Antigen detection

325
Q

Antigen detection test is performed by

A

latex agglutination or immunodiffusion tests

326
Q

Antigen detection is helpful in detecting _____ and _____ in systemic infections

A

aspergillus and candida

327
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions to fungal antigens can be demonstrated by

A

Skin Test

328
Q

Skin test may be performed in the ff:

A

histoplasmosis
candidasis
sporotrichosis
coccidiodomycosis
blastomycosis
paracoccidiodomycosis
dematophytosis

329
Q

Diagnosis of mycoses in a shorter period as well as detect those fungi that are difficult or dangerous to cultivate in vitro

A

Molecular Techniques

MTAP 1 MIDTERMS (6 decks)

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