Bacteriology and Mycology Flashcards

1
Q

Specimen collection is collected during:

A

acute phase of illness; within 72 hours of illness

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2
Q

Collected samples must be transported without delay within _________

A

30 mins to 2 hrs

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3
Q

Level of prioritization: Critical/Invasive specimen (1)

A

CSF
Amniotic fluid
Blood
Pericardial fluid
Heart valves

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4
Q

Level of prioritization: Unpreserved (2)

A

Feces
Sputum
Wound drainage

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5
Q

Level of prioritization: Quantitation required (3)

A

Catheter tip
Urine
Tissues for quantitation

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6
Q

Level of prioritization: Preserved (4)

A

Urine
Feces
Swab in holding media

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7
Q

Level of prioritization: Batch processing (5)

A

Sputum
AFB culture

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8
Q

Specimen for culture:

A

Blood
CSF
Sputum
Throat swab
Nasopharyngeal swab
Cotton swab
Endotracheal aspirate
Calcium alginate swab
Stool

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9
Q

Specimen to rule out bacteremia, septicemia, and sepsis

A

Blood

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10
Q

Most common cause of sepsis normal flora:

A

E.coli, S. aureus

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11
Q

Blood pathogen that is never a normal flora

A

P. aeruginosa

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12
Q

Cleansing procedure before collecting blood for blood culture

A

70-95% alcohol -iodine scrub- alcohol rinse

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13
Q

Common contaminants of blood culture

A

Viridans
S.epidermidis
Cutibacterium acnes (P. acnes)

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14
Q

Dilution of blood to media

A

1:10

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15
Q

Result for blood culture:

A

7 days

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16
Q

Detection days for Brucellosis:

A

3-4 weeks

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17
Q

Detection days for leptospirosis

A

8 weeks

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18
Q

Microscopic agglutination test for leptospirosis uses:

A

Live leptospira antigen to patient’s serum

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19
Q

Macroscopic identification test for leptospirosis

A

Heat killed leptospira

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20
Q

Rapid Test for Brucellosis

A

Serum Agglutination Test

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21
Q

4 significant Brucella (scam)

A

B. Suis
B. Canis
B. Abortus
B. Melitensis

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22
Q

of sets to be collected for blood culture

A

2-3 sets

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23
Q

Hours of interval for blood cultures collected at 2 different sites

A

1 hour

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24
Q

Amount to be collected for blood culture: Adult

A

> 20 mL

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25
Amount to be collected for blood culture: Pediatric
1-10 mL
26
Amount to be collected for blood culture: infants
0.5 mL to 1.0 mL
27
Anticoagulant for blood culture
0.025% SPS
28
SPS disadvantages
Inhibits other bacteria: Neisseria, G. vaginalis
29
Remedy for SPS inhibition
1% gelatin
30
Anticoagulant not used for bacterial culture
EDTA and Citrate
31
Procedure for blood culture that uses white top tube with EDTA
PCR procedure
32
Volume collected in blood culture in emergency cases
40 mL
33
Collect blood sample during:
peak of fever
34
Media for Blood culture (bacte)
TSB BHI Brucella broth Castañeda bottle (biphasic media- both liquid and solid)
35
specimen to rule out meningitis
CSF
36
CSF tube intended for micro
Tube 2
37
Storage for CSF
37 deg C
38
Specimen for CSF smear preparation and culture
sediments
39
Cause of neonatal meningitis
S. agalactiae
40
Cause of meningitis for children < 5 years old
H. influenzae serotype b
41
Cause of meningitis for adult meningitis >29 years old
S. pneumoniae
42
Cause of meningitis for 5-29 years old
N. meningitidies
43
Cause of meningitis for elderly/immunocompromised
L. monocytogenes
44
Added to CSF collection from a shunt
thioglycollate
45
Thioglycollate allows the growth of
Facultative anaerobes Strict aerobes anaerobes
46
Specimen of choice for urine
clean catch midstream
47
Unable to void urine specimen
catheterized
48
Specimen of choice for anaerobic culture of urine
Suprapubic urine
49
Specimen for molecular studies like PCR in urine
1st morning urine
50
Usual request for urine
culture and sensitivity
51
#1 cause of UTI
E. coli
52
UTI in females and elderly women with catheter
S. saphrophyticus
53
Other causes of UTI:
Klebsiella, E. faecalis (gram positive cocci)
54
Media used for susceptibility test for kirby bauer
MHA
55
Used for determining the dilution factor of urine sample
Calibrated loop
56
1 ul loop dilution factor
1000
57
10 ul loop dilution factor
100
58
Computation for colony count:
Colonies x dilution factor = colony count/mL of urine
59
Colony count considered as UTI
>100,000
60
Urine without preservative: ___ priority
2nd
61
Urine with preservative: ______ priority
4th
62
Preferred preservative for urine culture
boric acid
63
Maintains accurate colony count preservative
Boric acid
64
Sputum is used to rule out:
Lower respiratory tract infections (pneumonia, bronchitis, TB)
65
Patient must be instructed to _______ with water prior to collection and cough deeply into container
rinse/gargle
66
Sputum volume requirement:
5 to 10 mL
67
Bartlett’s classification is used to differentiate
sputum and saliva
68
Bartlett's classification: not a respiratory sample no of SEC and PMN
no of SEC: >10 no of PMNs: <25
69
Cell that can be seen to confirm for true respiratory sample
Alveolar macrophage
70
Usual cause of pneumonia
K. pneumoniae P. Aeruginosa S. pneumoniae H. influenzae
71
Causes pneumonia to those with cystic fibrosis
P. aeruginosa
72
1 cause of ventilator associated/intubated pneumoniae
P. aeruginosa
73
Process that should be done to sputum for detecting M. tuberculosis
Decontamination and Digestion
74
Process of removing contaminants and normal flora
Decontamination
75
Process of liquefying sample and free any trapped organism to make it detectable
Digestion
76
Gold standard for decontamination and digestion
N-acetyl-L-cysteine (mucolytic agent to digest) + NaOH (acts as decontaminant)
77
Other agents for decontamination and digestion
Z-TSP 4% NaOH Cetylpyridium chloride Sodium chloride method 5% oxalic acid
78
BSL for contaminants
BSL 1
79
BSL for mucous membrane, ingestion, exposure
BSL 2
80
BSL for acquired aerosol transmission, inhalation
BSL 3
81
Specimen collection of SPUTUM according to Bailey's and positive result
1 sputum in 3 days (1 per day) positive: 2/3
82
DOH collection of SPUTUM; positive result
1st collection: morning 2nd collection: random Positive: 1/2
83
Specimen of choice for detecting streptococcal infection and C. diphteriae
Throat swab
84
Major throat pathogen
S. pyogenes
85
Pharyngitis is caused by bacteria
S. pyogenes
86
Major throat flora
Viridans strep (S. mitis, S. mutans, S. salivarius)
87
No.1 cause of SBE and causes dental caries
Viridans
88
Viridans produces ______ and ______ which enhances attachments to teeth
Glucans and Dextrans
89
Specimen of choice for detecting B. pertussis
Nasopharyngeal swab
90
Causes whooping cough
B. pertussis
91
N. meningitidies is a normal flora from
nasopharynx, oropharynx
92
N. meningitidis is pathogen seen
CSF
93
Capsulated form of N. meningitidis
pathogenic
94
No capsule form of N. meningitidis
normal flora
95
Toxic to neisseria
Cotton swab
96
To collect N. meningitidis use:
Dacron Calcium alginate
97
Component of cotton swab that is toxic to Neisseria
Fatty Acids
98
Specimen to collect when patient is on ventilator/intubated
Endotracheal aspirate
99
Not to be used for viruses as inhibits/prevent replication
Calcium alginate
100
Primarily used for aerobic bacteria
Swab
101
Anaerobic specimen should be rejected if it is collected using
SWAB
102
Specimen of choice for detecting GIT pathogens
Stool
103
Normally detected GIT pathogens
salmonella, shigella
104
Invasive bloody diarrhea
Shigella
105
4 serogroups of Shigella (d,f,b,s)
A: S. dysenteriae B: S. flexneri C: S. boydii D: S. Sonnei
106
Serogroup of shigella that is a late lactose fermenter
S. Sonnei
107
Human pathogen of Salmonella
S. enterica
108
Animal pathogen of Salmonella
S. bongori
109
If stool specimen is not possible, specimen can be collected in
rectal swab
110
Media for stool specimen
EMB MAC SSA
111
Semi-quantitation technique for stool:
isolation streak (4 quadrants)
112
Critical values in Microbiology: Positive
blood culture CSF gram stain or culture Cryptococcal antigen test or culture blood smear for malaria S. pyognes from a sterile site Acid-fast smears or Mycobacterium culture S. agalactiae or herpes simplex from genital site of a pregnant woman at term Detection of significant pathogen (i.e., B. pertussis, Brucella, Legionella)
113
mostly used in laboratory; readily available for decontamination and digestant of sputum
4% NaOH
114
Agent added to sputum likely to contain P.aerugenosa
5% oxalic acid
115
Types of bacteria that is usually encountered in laboratory
Facultative anaerobes, aerobes, strict aerobes
116
Aerobes requirement:
21% O2 and 0.03% CO2
117
CAPNOPHILIC bacteria requires:
↑CO2
118
indicators of Gaspak Jar
Methylene blue and Resazurin
119
Color of Resazurin in presence of oxygen
Pink
120
Color of Methylene blue in presence of oxygen
Blue
121
Absence of oxygen color in gaspak jar
colorless
122
Component of Gaspak Jar that maintais anaerobiasis
Palladium pellets
123
Common failure of gaspak jar
inactivation of catalyst due to repeated use
124
Anaerobic culture % of components
5% CO2 10%H2 85% N2
125
For detecting capnophylic (Neisseria) and microaerophilic
Candle Jar
126
microaerophilic requirements
5-10% CO2 5% O2
127
Darting motility causes gastroenteritis wings of seagull appearance both microaerophilic and capnophilic
Campylobacter
128
Lowest concentration that inhibited bacterial growth of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing
MIC (minimum inhibited)
129
Lowest concentration of antibiotic that can kill bacteria antibiotic susceptibility test
MBC (minimum bactericidal) /MLC (Minimum Lethal)
130
AST: can act against many bacteria
Broad Spectrum
131
AST: limited range of action
Narrow
132
Inhibitory effect of AST
Bacteriostatic
133
Killing effect of AST
Bactericidal
134
Media for Kirby Bauer Technique
Mueller Hinton Agar (MHA)
135
AST: Depth of agar
3-5 mm
136
AST: Size of antibiotic
6 mm
137
AST: streaking method
Overlap streaking
138
AST: Distance of disk from center
24 mm
139
AST: distance between 2 disk
15 mm
140
AST: incubation time and temperature
37 dec C for 16-18 hours
141
Plates should not be more than
5 stacks
142
Measure the zone of inhibition using
ruler or caliper
143
AST: sensitive measurement
> 16
144
AST: resistant measurement
< 16
145
Too thin, very dry agar surface, and too light inoculum effect in Kirby Bauer technique
False Sensitive/ Larger zone of inhibition
146
Too thick agar, too much moisture on agar surface, too heavy inoculum, and too long incubation time effect in Kirby Bauer technique
False Resistant/ Smaller zone
147
Swarming on Kirby Bauer should be
ignored
148
of antibiotic disk on a 150 mm plate
No more than 12 disk
149
Distance of disk on 100mm plate
5 mm
150
storage temp for antibiotic disk- working supply
2-8 deg C
151
Cell wall inhibitors: Beta-lactams
Penicilin Cephalosphorins Carbapenems
152
Cell wall inhibitors: Glycopeptide
Vancomycin
153
Protein synthesis inhibitors
Aminoglycosides Tetracycline MLS (Macrolide lincocymide streptogamin)
154
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors: Aminoglycosides
gentamycin
155
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors: MLS (Macrolide lincocymide streptogamin)
erythromycin clarithromycin
156
AST of Streptococci is fastidious; media is mixed with
Blood supplement
157
To detect inducible clindamycin resistance among strains of S. aureus
Double disk diffusion test (D-test)
158
Done if initial/after doing AST, erythromycin and clindamycin is discrepant
D-Test
159
D-test positive result
Blunting or Flattening (looks like D)
160
Gene that activates resistance to clindamycin
ERM gene
161
Quantitative - dilution method: Uses a strip with single antibiotic of different concentrations along its length
E-Test / MIC on a Stick
162
(+) result of E-test/ MIC on a stick
Ellipse of growth inhibition
163
Used for research rather than routine laboratory testing of antibiotic susceptibility
E-Test/ MIC on a stick
164
Serum bactericidal Test is also known as
Schlicter test
165
Measures activity of antibiotics in patient’s own serum against the pathogen, to detect if patient receiving effective treatment for infection
Schlicter Test (Serum Bactericidal Test)
166
Screening for carbapenemase producing bacteria Detect the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme carbapenemase
Modified hodge test
167
First inoculated on MHA for Modified Hodge Test
E. coli
168
Carbapenem disk for modified hodge test
Imipinem, meropenem
169
Positive result of a modified hodge test
clover leaf like pattern of zone of inhibition
170
Fungi belong to plant kingdom without roots and stems and are referred to as
thallophytes
171
resembles keratin as to function but not composition
Chitin
172
Existing only as Yeast or Mold
monomorphism
173
Existing either as Yeast or Mold:
dimorphism
174
Temperature dependent fungi
dimorphism
175
Colonies are moist, creamy, opaque, and pasty
Yeast
176
Fungi that grows at 37 deg C
Yeast
177
Colonies are fluffy, cottony, wooly, or powdery
Mold
178
Grows at room temperature
Mold
179
Fundamental unit of fungi
hyphae
180
Hyphae function
absorption of nutrients in the environment
181
Mass of countless hyphae
Mycelium
182
mycelium that penetrates medium and absorbs nutrients
Vegetative (thalus)
183
Mycelium part extending above the surface of the colony; usually contains the fruiting buddies that produces spores
Aerial (reproductive)
184
structure for reproduction of fungi
spores
185
Type of hyphae: no cross walls
aseptate (coenocytic)
186
Aseptated hyphae are exhibited by
zygomycota
187
Hyphae divided into cells by crosswalls
Septate
188
Spiral (coiled) hyphae is seen in:
trichophyton mentagrophytes
189
Nodular bodies hyphae are seen in
Microsporum canis
190
Hyphae with club shaped areas
Racquet
191
Racquet hyphae are exhibited by:
Epidermophyton floccosum
192
Broken comb appearance of hyphae
Pectinate body
193
Pectinate body is seen in
M. audouinii
194
curved, freely branching hyphae
Favic chandeliers/antler
195
Favic chandeliers/antler is seen in:
T. schoenleini and T. violaceum
196
Sexual and asexual spores (perfect fungi)
Synanomorphs/Polymorphs
197
only sexual spores
teleomorphs
198
produced during asexual reproduction
anamorph
199
Made during sexual reproduction Produced through meiosis Produced as a result of nuclear fusion
Sexual spores
200
formed within a SAC like structure called ASCUS; usually in a fixed # of eight
Ascospores
201
formed within a club shaped structure called basidium
Basidiospores
202
Formed from the union of the two undifferentiated or identical hyphal cells (similar)
Zygospores
203
formed from the union of 2 differentiated (not identical)
Oospores
204
Produced during asexual reproduction Formed by/produced as a result of mitosis Without nuclear fussion
Asexual spores
205
asexual spores produced singly or in groups specialized vegetative hyphal strands called conidiophores
Conidia
206
type that is unicellular pyriform or elliptoid shape
Microconidia
207
larger, spindle shape, multicellular hyphae
Macroconidia
208
Formed through fragmentation of hyphal cells
Arthroconidia
209
Arthroconidia is exhibited by:
trichosporon geotichum coccidiodes
210
Produced through budding process
Blastoconidia
211
Blastoconidia is seen in
Candida albicans
212
formed from the enlargement of the hyphal cells
Chlamydoconidia
213
within the hyphae of chlamydoconidia
intercallary
214
Seen in the lateral part of the hyphae of chlamydoconidia
Sesile
215
Seen in the end part of the hyphae of chlamydoconidia
terminal
216
Formed within the sporangium
Sporangiospores
217
Sporangiospores is seen in
Zygomycetes
218
Zygomycota (conjugation fungi) genera:
Rhizopus Absidia Mucor
219
Ascomycota (sac fungi) genera/species:
Aspergillus Saccharomyces Histoplasma capsulatum
220
Basidiomycota (club fungi) genera/species:
C. neoformans
221
Deuteromycota (fungi imperfecti) genera/species:
Dermatophytes: I.e. Fusarium
222
Fungal infection affecting the lungs; collect respiratory secretions
Systemic mycosis
223
may be collected using fine needle and inoculated at bedside
corneal scrapings
224
may be collected by aspiration
pus
225
use of cotton swabs may give false ____ microscopic results for pus
positive
226
Most common specimen collected for fungal culture
Respiratory tract secretions
227
Recovery of fungal agents causing systemic mycoses
Respiratory tract secretions
228
Agent of fungal meningitis in immunocompromised people
C. neoformans
229
If the CSF quantity is not sufficient, the priority is for
Micro
230
Collected sample of CSF may be processed either through
Filtration or sedimentation (do centrifugation)
231
Sediments of CSF are used for
smear preparation and culture
232
Supernatant of CSF is used for
serologic testing
233
CSF uses filter with a pore diameter of
.45 micra
234
BACTEC for blood is used to rule out
disseminated infection
235
blood lysis centrifugation system is used for the recovery of
dimorphic fungi
236
Vaginal specimens and urine must be transported within ____ following collection
24 hours
237
Vaginal secretion should be screened for
yeast
238
These are collected for recovery of dermatophytes
Hair, Skin, Nails
239
Tissue, Bone Marrow, and sterile body fluids must be minced or use high speed blender to get
cytoplasmic content
240
Tissue samples must be inoculated on
agar
241
Temporary mount for microscopic examination of fungi (%,L,I,C)
10-20% KOH Lactophenol Cotton Blue India ink/ Nigrosin Calcofluor white stain
242
dissolve the non-fungal material, digest the debris, make fungal structure more visible
10-20% KOH
243
Concentration of KOH for skin and hair
10%
244
Concentration of KOH for nails
20%
245
Purpose of heating KOH smears
increase the rate of clearing
246
Most widely used staining method for fungi (both preservative and stain)
Lactophenol Cotton Blue
247
acts as preservative in lactophenol cotton blue
lactic acid
248
acts as killing agent in lactophenol cotton blue
phenol
249
acts as stain in lactophenol cotton blue
cotton blue
250
Negative stain (only background is stained); to demonstrate the capsule of C. neoformans
India ink/ Nigrosin
251
India ink in histopath is used as
intravital stain
252
Fluorochrome dye; best for direct microscopy; will produce fluorescence; demonstrate chitin in cell wall
Calcofluor white stain
253
Permanent mounts:
Gram Stain (Hucker modification) Periodic acid Schiff Gomori Methenamine silver Acid Fast (Kinyoun's ) Giemsa or Wright's Acridine Orange Fontana Masson H&E Mayer's Mucicarmine Gridley's stain
254
Components of Hucker modification
Primary dye: Crystal Violet Mordant: Iodine Decolorizer: Alcohol/Acetone Counterstain: safranin Modified: ammonium oxalate to Crystal violet
255
to demonstrate details of fungal elements; a histologic stain;
Periodic acid Schiff
256
PAS will impart color
pink-red color bright magenta
257
PAS background stains
Green
258
best permanent mount
Gomori Methenamine Silver
259
Gomori Methenamine silver imparts
brown to black (melanin)
260
Outlines of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver
black
261
Internal of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver
pink black
262
background stain of the fungi in gomori methenamine silver
light green
263
GMS-stained sections are essential for
Tissue pathology
264
stain for detection of Nocardia (branching bacteria) and B. dermatitidis
Acid Fast (Kinyoun's )
265
routinely in hematology to stain blood cells
Wright
266
stain blood parasite
Giemsa
267
demonstrates yeast of histoplasma capsulatum
Giemsa/Wright stain
268
Stain for detection of M. furfur (Tinea versicolor)
Acridine Orange
269
Acridine orange result color
green fluorescent for fungal elements orange for epithelial cells
270
stain that detects hyphal pigmentation
Fontana Masson and H and E
271
non-pigmented or lightly pigmented hyphae
Hyaline
272
darkly pigmented hyphae
Dematiaceous
273
demonstrate C. neoformans; wood’s lamp to detect fluorescence
Mayer's Mucicarmine
274
Gridley's stain color for hyphae and yeasts
dark blue-pink
275
Gridley's stain color for tissues
deep blue
276
Gridley's stain color for background
yellow
277
Mycology plates and tubes should be incubated in ambient air at what temperature
25-30 deg C (room temperature)
278
some fungi grow slowly, cultures should not be discarded for
4-6 weeks
279
Culture is held for
30 days
280
prevents saprophytic fungi in fungi culture
cycloheximide
281
General purpose media
Sabaouraud's Dextrose Agar
282
pH of Sabaouraud's Dextrose Agar
5 to 6
283
Screening media for dermatophytes phenol red
DTM/ Dermatophyte Test Medium
284
Recovery of dermatophytes Sabaorauds with chloramphenicol and cyxloheximide
Mycosel/ Mycobiotic agar
285
inhibit bacterial growth in mycosel
chloramphenicol
286
prevents saprophytic fungi in mycosel
cyxloheximide
287
Used for stimulating chlamydospore formation of C. albicans
Cornmeal agar
288
Isolating aspergillus spp.
Czapek agar
289
Culture medium for C. Neoformans (develops brown pigment)
Niger seed agar/ Bird seed agar or Staib’s medium
290
Used for demonstrating pigment production of T. rubrum - capable of producing red pigment
Potato dextrose agar
291
unable to produce red pigment in potato dextrose agar
T. mentagrophytes
292
Identification of M/ audouinii differentiating it with M. canis
Rice medium
293
Not capable of growing in rice medium
M. Audouinii
294
Biochemical test media - differentiates T. mentagrophytes (+) from T. rubrum (-)
Urea agar
295
Urea agar is also used to isolate
C. neoformans
296
General media for yeast species
Brain Heart Infusion
297
Medium for Nocardia
Casein medium
298
Isolation of M. furfur
Malt extract agar
299
Recovery of saprobic(saprophytic) and pathogenic fungi
Potato Flake agar
300
Not a fungal media
Hay infusion agar
301
All mold cultures must be processed in BSL
BSL 2
302
Special test that differentiate T. mentagrophytes (+) and T. rubrum (-)
Hair perforation or baiting test Rapid urease test
303
Hair perforation or baiting test positive result:
V shape or conical hair perforation
304
Positive result of Rapid Urease Test:
development of pink to purple color
305
All candida are urease negative except
C. krusei
306
Positive control for Urease Test
C. neoformans
307
Negative control for Rapid Urease Test
C. albicans
308
For rapid identification of C. neoformans
L-DOPA ferric citrate test
309
Presumptive test for C. albicans and C. dubliniensis
Germ Tube Test
310
Positive result for L-DOPA ferric citrate test
development of black color (phenol oxidase)
311
Positive result for Germ Tube Test
fingerlike extensions/ hyphae like extension of young yeast cell- sperm like
312
a microdiffusion test for serologic confirmation of systemic fungi (+) result presence of precipitin
Exoantigen test
313
Test to differentiate C. dubliniensis and C. albicans
Temperature studies
314
Able to grow at 42 deg C
C. albicans
315
Identify particular carbohydrate that the fungi can use as sole carbon source
Carbohydrate assimilation test
316
Positive for: Glucose Maltose Sucrose Lactose Cellubiose Galactose Trehalose Xylose Negative for: Melibiose
C. albicans
317
Positive for: Glucose Maltose Sucrose Cellubiose Galactose Trehalose Xylose Negative for: Melibiose Lactose
C. tropicalis
318
Positive for: Glucose Maltose Sucrose Cellubiose Galactose Xylose Negative for: Melibiose Lactose Trehalose
C. keyfer
319
Positive for: Glucose Maltose Sucrose Galactose Xylose Trehalose Negative for: Cellubiose Lactose Melibiose
C. parapsillosis
320
Positive for: Glucose Maltose Sucrose Galactose Xylose Trehalose Cellubiose Melibiose Negative for: Lactose
C. guillermondi
321
Positive for: Glucose Xylose Negative for: Lactose Maltose Sucrose Galactose Trehalose Cellubiose Melibiose
C. krusei
322
Positive for: Glucose Xylose Trehalose Negative for: Lactose Maltose Sucrose Galactose Cellubiose Melibiose
C. glabrata
323
Fungi that may be detected through serological test
Agents of systemic mycosis: Blastomyces, Histoplasma Opportunistic fungis: Cryptococcus, Aspergillus
324
Particularly useful in diagnosing cryptococcal meningitis from CSF specimens
Antigen detection
325
Antigen detection test is performed by
latex agglutination or immunodiffusion tests
326
Antigen detection is helpful in detecting _____ and _____ in systemic infections
aspergillus and candida
327
Delayed hypersensitivity reactions to fungal antigens can be demonstrated by
Skin Test
328
Skin test may be performed in the ff:
histoplasmosis candidasis sporotrichosis coccidiodomycosis blastomycosis paracoccidiodomycosis dematophytosis
329
Diagnosis of mycoses in a shorter period as well as detect those fungi that are difficult or dangerous to cultivate in vitro
Molecular Techniques