Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

cdc yellowbook > bacterial infection (P - R) > Flashcards

bacterial infection (P - R) Flashcards

1
Q

which bacteria causes pertussis?

A

bordetella pertussis - gram negative coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who is at high risk of getting pertussis?

A

adolescents and adults who have not received a Tdap booster; infants, too young to be protected by a complete vaccination series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the symptoms of pertussis?

A

7-10 days after exposure; cough develops and becomes paroxysmal, often followed by vomitting.
fever is absent or minimal.
<2 months infant, case-fatality ~1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how to diagnose Pertussis?

A

Culture and PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how to treat Pertussis?

A

macrolide AB (azithromycin, clarithromycin, or erythromycin) for age 1 months and old.
younger than 1 month old - azithromycin is preferred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which vaccines are available for infants and children for pertussis?

A

5 doses of acellular pertussis vaccine (with diphtheria and tetanus- DTaP) at 2, 4, 6, 15-18 months, and at 4-6 years

children 7-10 years - single dose of tetanus toxoid, reduced diph toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what vaccines are available for adolescents and adults for pertussis?

A

11-18 yr: single dose of Tdap
>19 yr who have not previously received Tdap: single dose of Tdap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when should pregnant woman receive Pertussis?

A

at 27-36 weeks’ getation (earlier better)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who should get postexposure prophylaxis for pertussis?

A

all household contacts of cases and for people at high risk of developing severe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which bacterial agent causes Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis - gram negative coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how dose plague transmitted?

A
  • the bite of infected rodent fleas transmit Yersinia pestis
  • handling infected animal tissues, inhaling infectious droplets from cats or dogs with plague; contact with a patient who has pneumonic plague (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is plague endemic in?

A

central and southern Africa (esp.. eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo, NW Uganda, Madagascar);
SW US, NE South America; central Asia, the Indian subcontinent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the three possible clinical presentations of plague?

A

bubonic, pneumonic, septicemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the clinical symptoms of bubonic plague?

A

rapid onset of fever and painful, swollen and tender lymph nodes (axillary, cervical, or inguinal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are symptoms of pharyngeal plague?

A

fever, sore throat, cervical lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the symptoms of pneumonic plague?

A

high fever, overwhelming pneumonia, cough, bloody sputum, and chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the symptoms of septicemic plague?

A

fever, prostration, hemorrhagic or thrombotic phenomena, progressing to acral gangrene.
meningitis can also develop in up to 10% of patients with plague.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how to diagnose plague?

A

Yersinia pestis can be isolated from bubo aspirates, blood cultures, or sputum culture if pneumonic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how to treat plague?

A

1st line: aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones

bubonic or pharyngeal plague - can use doxycycline (not to be used for pneumonic or septicemic plague, or plague meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how to prevent plague?
What is postexposure prophylaxis?

A

reduce contact with fleas and potentially infected rodents and other wildlife.
oral AB including doxycycline, ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin can be Rxed for postexposure propylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what bacteria cause penumococcal disease?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae - gram +, diplococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the major cause of bacterial meningitis and the most common bacterial cause of community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Pneumococcal meningitis outbreak have occurred recently in countries in the meningitis belt of Africa. Infections from pneumococcus also have been reported in travelers attending mass gatherings (Hajj pilgrimage, Olympic Games) due to crowded conditions and limited space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the major clinical syndromes of pneumococcal disease?

A

pneumonia, bacteremia, meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the classical symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

sudden onset of fever, malaise, pleuritic chest pain, cough with purulent or blood-tinged sputum, or dyspnea.
In older people, fever, shortness of breath, or altered mental status are possible initial symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the symptoms of pneumococcal meningitis?
headache, lethargy, vomiting, irritability, fever, neck stiffness, seizures
26
who is at increased risk of pneumococcal meningitis?
people with cochlear implants
27
how to diagnose pneumococcal infection ?
isolation of the organism from blood or other normally sterile body sites (pleural fluid, CSF) tests also available to detect antigen in body fluids (e.g. urine)
28
how to treat community-acquired pneumonia empirically in outpatient settings?
children - amoxicillin healthy adult - macrolides (azithromycin) or doxycycline chronic or immunosuppressing condition - respiratory fluoroquinolone (moxifloxacin, levofloxacin) or a b-lactam plus a macrolide
29
how to treat community-acquired pneumonia empirically in inpatient settings?
initial tx - broad-spectrum cephalosporin plus a macrolide or a respiratory fluoroquinolone alone for some pneumococcal infections, consider adding vancomycin until antimicrobial susceptibility results are available. broad-spectrum cephalosporin + vanco --> pt with presumptive pneumococcal meningitis by CSF staining until susceptibility results are available.
30
who should get 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV 13) - 13 serotypes responsible for most severe illness?
infant immunization schedule adult aged 65 and older adult 19-64 with immunocompromising conditions
31
who should get 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine?
all adults aged 65 and over; 2-64 years with underlying medical conditions
32
who should get PCV 20?
all adults 65 and over and for adults 19-64 with underlying medical conditions - who have not previously received a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine or whose vaccination history is unknown.
33
which bacterial agent cause Q fever?
gram negative intracellular bacterium - Coxiella burnetii
34
how is Q fever transmitted?
inhalation of aerosols or dust contaminated with dried birth fluids or excreta from infected animals - cattle, goats, sheep --> very infectious and persists in the environment. rarely - ingestion of contaminated unpasteurized dairy products and human-to-human transmission via sexual contact
35
which country do not have Coxiella burnetti?
New Zealand!
36
where is Coxiella burnetti most prevalent?
Africa and the Middle East - higher in France and Australia than in US - largest known Q fever outbreak ~4000 humans during 2007-2010 in the Netherlands
37
which occupation is at risk of Q fever?
butchers, farmers, meat packers, vet, seasonal or migrant farm workers soldiers deployed to rural areas travelers with livestock contact and consumption of unpasteurized milk treatment/injection of fetal sheep cells
38
what are the acute symptoms of Q fever?
incubation 2-3 weeks - 50% mild or asymptomatic, self-limiting febrile illness hepatitis or pneumonia if more severe
39
what are the chronic symptoms of Q fever?
endocarditis endovascular infections
40
who are at risk of getting chronic Q fever infections? (after months or years after the initial exposure)
patients with cardiac valvulopathies and vascular abnormalities or immunosuppression
41
which disease can cause risk for adverse pregnancy outcome?
Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)
42
how to diagnose actue Q fever?
serum samples collected 3-4 weeks apart - serologic antibody test (II IgG) plus clinical evidence of infection PCR testing of serum or whole blood is useful for confirmation of acute Q fever if samples are taken 14 or less days after symptom onset.
43
how to diagnose chronic Q fever?
requires a phase I Ig G titer >1:512 and clinical evidence of persistent infection (e.g. endocarditis, infected vascular aneurysm, osteomyelitis) identifying C. burnetii in whole blood, serum, or tissue samples by PCR, immunohistochemical staining, or isolation can be used to confirm chronic disease.
44
how to treat acute Q fever?
doxycycline pregnant, children <8 yrs with mild illness and pt allergic to doxycycline, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is an alternative treatment option no treatment if asymptomatic or symptoms have resolved
45
how to treat chronic Q fever?
long-term combo - doxycycline + hydroxychloroquine for 18 months or longer alternative: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and fluoroquinolones - less effective might need surgery to remove infected tissue.
46
how to prevent Q fever?
vaccine only in Australia no unpasteurized dairy products
47
what bacteria cause rickettsial infections?
Rickettsia, Orientia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, Neoehrlichia, Neorickettsia
48
how are Rickettsia spp. classically divided?
Spotted fever group (SFG) and typhus group
49
how are Rickettsia spp recently divided?
4 groups - 2 classical groups (spotted fever group and typhus group) and scrub typhus group and O. tsutsugamushi
50
which diseases are included in spotted fever group?
African tick-bite fever Aneruptive fever Astrakhan spotted fever Cat flea rickettsiosis Far Eastern spotted fever Flinders Island spotted fever Thai tick typhus Indian tick typhus Israeli tick typhus Japanese spotted fever Lymphangitis-assoicated rickettsiosis Maculatum infection Mediterranean spotted fever (Boutonneuse fever) Mediterranean spotted fever-like illness North Asian tick typhus / Siberian tick typhus Queensland tick typhus Rickettsialpox Rickettsiosis Rocky Mountain spotted fever (also known as Brazilian spotted fever; febre maculosa; Sao Paulo exanthematic typhus; Minas Gerais exanthematic typhus) Tickborne lymphadenopathy (TIBOLA) / Dermacentor-borne necrosis and lymphadenopathy (DEBONEL)
51
which diseases are included in Typhus Group?
Epidemic typhus / Sylvatic typhus Murine typhus
52
which diseases are included in Scrub typhus group? which rickettsial species cause scrub typhus? what are the animal hosts and vectors?
scrub typhus Orientia tsutsugamushi O. chuto O. chiloensis host - rodents vectors - trombiculid mites and chiggers
53
which diseases are included in Anaplasma group? which rickettsial species cause this? hosts and vectors?
human anaplasmosis Anaplasma bovis A. capra (goats, sheep) A. ovis (sheep) A. phagocytophilum (deer, small mammals, rodents) A. platys (dogs) vectors - ticks!
54
which diseases are included in Ehrlichia group?
human ehrlichiosis
55
what disease is included in Neorickettsia group? and which rickettsial species cause it?
Sennetsu fever Neorickettsia sennetsu animal hosts - fish vectors - trematodes
56
what disease is included in Neoehrlichia group and which rickettsial species cause it? Host and vectors?
Human neoehrlichiosis Neoehrlicia mikurensis (animal host - rodents) vectors - ticks
57
For ehrlichia group, which rickettsial species (6) cause human ehrlichiiosis? What is the vector?
Ehrlichia chaffeensis (deer, domestic and wild dogs, domestic ruminants, rodents) E. ewingii E. muris eauclairensis E. muris muris E. canis (dogs) E. ruminantium (domestic and wild ruminants) vector - ticks
58
how are rickettsial pathogens transmitted?
- directly by infected arthropod vectors (fleas, lice, mites, or ticks) during feeding - scratching skin contaminated with an arthropod's infectious fluids or feces, or by crushing the arthropod vector at the bite site - inhaling bacteria or inoculating conjunctiva with infectious materials - Anaplasma and Ehrlichia spp through trasnfusion of infected blood products or by organ transplantation
59
what is the most diagnosed rickettsial diseases in travlers?
tickbrne spotted fever (African Tick-bite fever caused by R. africae)
60
which travelers would be at risk for African tick-bite fever (caused by R. africae)?
Travelers who go on safari—especially those traveling to national parks, game hunters, and ecotourists to sub-Saharan Africa
61
which bacteria cause Cat Flea Rickettsiosis?
R. felis
62
which agent causes Mediterranean spotted fever (also known as Boutonneuse fever)?
R. conorii
63
which spotted fever occur over a larger geographic area? (including but not limited to Africa, much of Europe, India, the Middle East)
Mediterranean spotted fever (Boutonneuse fever) caused by R. conorii
64
what is the causative agent of rickettsialpox?
R. akari
65
rickettsialpox is transmitted by which vector?
house mouse mites
66
R. akari circulates mainly in ... ?
urban centers in the Balkan states, Korea, South Africa, Ukraine, and the US
67
what is the other name for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? and what is the causing agent?
Brazilian spotted fever R. rickettsii
68
where does the Rocky mountain spotted fever occur?
Western Hemisphere - Canada, Mexico, US, Central & South America including Argentina, Brazil, colombia, Costa Rica, Panama
69
what is the host of Rocky Mountain spotted fever ticks?
rodents
70
which is the causing agent for Louseborne or epidemic typhus?
R. prowazekii
71
who is at risk of Louseborne or epidemic typhus?
people living in crowded conditiosn where body lice are prevalent (refugees housed in camps, incarcerated populations) travelers who provide medical or humanitarian aid to people living in refugee camps and those who visit impoverished areas affected by war, famine, or natural disasters
72
which area is the active foci of epidemic typhus?
Andes regions of South America, some parts of Africa, including but not limited to Burundi, Ethiopia, and Rwanda
73
what causes Murine Typhus? and what is the host? and vector?
R. typhi rodents, cats, dogs, peridomestic animals flea
74
how are scrub typhus transmitted?
through species of trombiculid mites that live in high grass and brush
75
where is scrub typhus endemic to?
east asia (china, norther japan), SE Asia (India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka), the Pacific (eastern Australia), and several parts of south-central Russia. Cases of disease also have been described from several unexpected regions, including the United Arab Emirates and southern Chile, and appear to be caused by newly recognized species of Orientia.
76
which tickborne infections are commonly reported in the US?
anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis
77
Sennetsu fever, caused by N. sennetsu, occurs in Japan, Malaysia, and parts of SE Asia - this disease can be contracted from eating.. what?
raw fish infested with neorickettsiae-infected flukes
78
what is the incubation period of most rickettsial diseases?
5-10 days
79
which rickettsial diseases can be life-threatening when treatment is delayed?
Rocky mountain spotted fever, epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, and Mediterranean spotted fever
80
what are the common symptoms that typically develop within 1 week of rickettsial infection?
- fever, headache, malaise, nausea, vomiting - many rickettsioses aso are accompanied by a maculopapular, petechial, or vesicular rash, or sometimes an eschar (a dark necrotic scab) at the site of the tick or mite bite
81
person presenting with fever, headache, myalgia, and one or more eschars after recent travel to sub-Saharan Afrian or the Caribbean - which infection is likely?
African Tick-bite fever
82
patient with fever, rash, an eschar after recent travel to northern Africa or the Mediterranean Basin - what is likely?
Mediterranean spotted fever
83
patient with fever, headache, abdominal pain, nausea, progress rapidly into a serious systemic disease. a maculopapular or petechial rash, but no eschars - what rickettsial disease is likely?
rocky mountain spotted fever
84
patient with fever, leukopenia - which rickettsial diseases can you suspect?
anaplasmosis & ehrlichiosis
85
why is rickettsial diseases hard to diagnose?
results are highly dependent on the type and timing
86
what is the empiric treatment for rickettsioses?
-tetracycline (doxycycline) for all ages -if A. phagocytophilum or R. africae infection - rifampin can be an alternative (if pregnant or doxycycline-intolerant patient) -chloramphenicol can be an alternative for Orientia and Rickettsia species, but use is associated with more deaths, particularly with R. rickettsii infection.

cdc yellowbook (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions