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MICRO > BACTE 1 > Flashcards

BACTE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

According to E. H. SPAULDING category of medical materials, materials that reach the tissue and blood are considered

a. Semi critical
b. Critical
c. Non critical
d. AOTA

A

Critical

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2
Q

Which of the ff. would be a reason to reject a specimen collected for blood culture?

a. Collected more than once in 24hr
b. Alcohol used as the only antiseptic for decontaminant
c. Iodine was applied next to alcohol
d. Right arm and left arm were collected within 24h

A

Alcohol used as the only antiseptic for decontaminant

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3
Q

Which biosafety is being described
- vertical laminal flow
- moderate potential hazard
-30% of air is recirculated thru HEPA

a. BSC 1
b. BSC IIB1
c. BSC IIA1
d. BSC IIA2

A

BSC IIB1

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4
Q

True about SOP

a. sop manual is the definitive lab reference for questions related to individual sets
b. any obsolete procedure should be dated when removed from the SOP manual
c. Must be reviewed and signed annually or biannually by the lab director
d. AOTA

A

AOTA

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5
Q

Competency of each employee in the lab is checked every

a. Week
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. Year

A

Year

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6
Q

This substance should be present when recovering Neisseria gonorrhoeae

a. Cotton
b. Charcoal
c. Citrate
d. SPS

A

Charcoal

A – Cotton is toxic to Neisseria
C – not use in bacteriology
D – inhibits Neisseria

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7
Q

method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess: Needle aspirate after surface decontamination and collect

a. In the center of the lesion
b. Between the center and edge
c. Along the edge of the lesion
d. Any part of the lesion

A

Along the edge of the lesion

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8
Q

What is the purpose of adding 0.025%–0.050% sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

a. Prevent clot lysis
b. Inhibits phagocytosis
c. Inhibits complement activation
d. B and C

A

B and C

SPS is the most common anticoagulant; inhibits Neisseria and anaerobe

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9
Q

As a technologist, which among the ff. specimens should you processed first?

a. CSF sample taken from a young man
b. Catheter tip from a senior citizen
c. Unpreserved fecal sample from the first patient who came
d. Urine with boric acid from the NICU

A

CSF sample taken from a young man

A – Level 1 – from invasive/critical source
B –Level 3 – Require quantitation
C – Level 2 – specimen that have overgrowth of contamination flora
D – Level 4 – Preserved sample may be delayed

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10
Q

Include preparation from solid or semisolid media, by rolling the swab onto the slide, or broth by dropping
onto glass slide, prior to staining?

a. Direct smear
b. Indirect smear
c. Smear preparation
d. Fixation

A

Indirect smear

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11
Q

Which among the ff. is true about gram staining
i. WBC, RBC, epithelial cells, and debris appear as violet
ii. Decolorization is a critical step because binds crystal violet to the cell wall
iii. Bacteria from grown culture cannot be stained
iv. True negative reading is the absence of phagocytes only

a. AOTA
b. NOTA
c. Ii,iv
d. I,iii

A

NOTA

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12
Q

Which among the staining techniques apply fluorescence microscopy which is also an acid fast stain?

a. Acridine orange
b. Auramine-rhodamine
c. Calcofluor white
d. AOTA

A

Auramine-rhodamine

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13
Q

To make objects stand out from the background, one should

a. Apply staining
b. Reduce the diameter of the microscope aperture diaphragm
c. Both a and b
d. Apply OIO

A

Both a and b

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14
Q

Concentration of bacteria that causes turbidity that can be visually observed macroscopically?

a. 1 x 10 4 CFU/spot
b. 5 x 10 5 CFU/mL
c. 10 6 /mL
d. 1.5 × 10 8 CFU/mL

A

10 6 /mL

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15
Q

Contain one or more agents that are inhibitory to all organisms except those “selected” by the specific
growth condition or chemical?

a. Enrichment
b. Selective
c. Supportive
d. Differential

A

Selective

A - contain specific nutrients required to enhance the growth of particular bacterial pathogens from a mixture of organisms
C - contain nutrients that support growth of most nonfastidious organisms
D - allows colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristics that can be used to distinguish it from other bacteria growing on the same plate

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16
Q

Why is SBA always used as nutritive medium?

a. Many sheeps are available
b. Cheap
c. Does not support the growth of Haemophilus
d. Less inhibitory

A

Less inhibitory

17
Q

Mannitol salt agar is a selective medium because

a. 7.5% NaCl inhibits most flora
b. Peptone inhibits other staphylococci
c. Phenol red serves as an indicator
d. Mannitol provides energy to staphylococci

A

7.5% NaCl inhibits most flora

C and D are True but they are not inhibitors

18
Q

Thayer-Martin agar (modified Thayer Martin) is an enrichment medium due to ________ and selective medium due to the presence of _________

a. Hemoglobin, Isovitalex
b. Antibiotics, blood
c. Hemoglobin, Antibiotics
d. Horse blood, antifungal

A

Hemoglobin, Antibiotics

19
Q

This method is confirmatory in bacteriology because it is highly sensitive and specific

a. Culture
b. Biochem reactions
c. Nucleic acid amplification test
d. Gram staining

A

Nucleic acid amplification test

genotypic characteristics - presence of a specific gene or a particular nucleic acid sequence unique to the organism is interpreted as a definitive identification of the org. Highly specific and very sensitive

20
Q

Substances obtained and purified from other microbial organisms

a. Antibiotic
b. Antimicrobial
c. Both a and b
d. NOTA

A

Antibiotic

21
Q

B-lactams is the largest group of antibacterial agents due to the ff. reason/s, except

a. Less toxic to human
b. Molecular structure can be manipulated
c. Bacteriostatic action
d. NOTA

A

Bacteriostatic action

22
Q

Presence of Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ render P. aeruginosa resistant to Aminoglycosides to the this mechanism

a. Loss of uptake due to loss of O2
b. Cations compete with Aminoglycosides for negative charge of Pseudomonas
c. A and B
d. Cations diminish the pH level leading to loss of antibiotic effectivity

A

Cations compete with Aminoglycosides for negative charge of Pseudomonas

23
Q

True about 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard

a. Made up of 1% sulfuric acid + 1.175% barium chloride
b. density comparable to the density of a bacterial suspension of 1.5 × 10 8 CFU/mL
c. both a and b
d. final standard bacterial concentration in each microtiter well: 5 ×10 5 CFU/mL

A

both a and b

24
Q

What would be the expected result if antibiotics were applied after 30min of bacterial lawn streaking; and if placement in incubator took 30min after disks application?

a. False resistant, false susceptible
b. Both false resistant
c. Both false susceptible
d. Smaller ZOI, Larger ZOI

A

False resistant, false susceptible

Dapat yung antibiotics ay mailagay within 15minutes, pag hindi mo kagad nailagay, edi dadami ang bacteria. Pagkatapos mag lagay ng antibiotic, within 15minutes ay mailagay mo sya sa incubator, pag dinelay mo, edi maraming bacteria ang mapapatay ng antibiotic

25
Q

Which among the ff. situation will cause a smaller ZOI?

a. Thin medium
b. Insufficient inoculum
c. Delayed disk application
d. Delayed placement of plates inside the incubator

A

Delayed disk application

26
Q
  1. As the MIC lowers, the Zone of inhibition _________, its potency is ________

a. Both increase
b. Both decrease
c. Decreases, Increases
d. Increases, decreases

A

Both increase

27
Q

As the diameter of the zone of inhibition increases, the concentration of the antibiotic _________ at the edge of the zone of inhibition

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Nothing change
d. Is less potent

A

Decreases

28
Q

In the interpretation of antibiotic susceptibility, this/these events should be ignored, except

a. Swarming of Proteus
b. Isolated colonies within the ZOI
c. Hazy within the ZOI of Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim
d. Haziness outside of the ZOI

A

Isolated colonies within the ZOI

MICRO (7 decks)

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