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HAA GROUND > B4 FAA WRITTEN > Flashcards

B4 FAA WRITTEN Flashcards

1
Q

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A

true altitude at field elevation.

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2
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A

alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

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3
Q

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

A

the start of precipitation.

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4
Q

(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

A

Class E. The Nalf Fentress (NFE) airport is halfway between areas 1 and 2 in Figure 20. It is inside a magenta dashed line indicating Class E airspace starts at the surface.

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5
Q

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

A

406 MHz.

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6
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires ADS-B?

A

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

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7
Q

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

A

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

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8
Q

(Refer to Figure 67.) What effect does a 30-gallon fuel burn have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,784 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,222 at takeoff?

A

Moment will decrease to 2,087 lbs-in.

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9
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

A

200 kts

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10
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. EXPLANATION With respect to the certification of aircraft, class is a broad grouping of aircraft having similar means of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane.

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11
Q

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

A

The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. EXPLANATION Carburetors are normally calibrated at sea level pressure to meter the correct fuel/air mixture. As altitude increases, air density decreases and the amount of fuel is too great for the amount of air–the mixture is too rich. This same result may be brought about by the application of carburetor heat. The heated air entering the carburetor has less density than unheated air and the fuel/air mixture is enriched.

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12
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

A

1 mile. EXPLANATION Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR is Class E airspace, and requires cloud clearance of 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal during operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL.

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13
Q

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

A

detonation.

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14
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

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15
Q

VFR cruising altitude is true or magnetic heading?

A

magnetic

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16
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

V(Y). EXPLANATION V(Y) (best rate-of-climb speed) is the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff.

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17
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A

Dissipating. EXPLANATION Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly.

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18
Q

True altitude is

A

the vertical distance of an aircraft above mean sea level (MSL)

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19
Q

Indicated altitude

A

the altitude shown on an aircraft’s altimeter when it is set to the local barometric pressure at the airport

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20
Q

Density Altitude

A

It is calculated by taking pressure altitude and correcting for non-standard temperature and pressure conditions.

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21
Q

What values are used for winds aloft forecasts?

A

True direction and knots.

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22
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under Special VFR in Class D airspace?

A

1 mile flight visibility.

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23
Q

what are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A

The developing (cumulus) stage, the mature (precipitation) stage, and the dissipating (downdrafts) stage

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24
Q

what are the three requirements for a thunderstorm?

A

moisture, instability and a lifting force

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25
Q

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

A

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

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26
Q

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

A

the downwash on the elevator from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

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27
Q

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

A

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

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28
Q

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

A

certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

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29
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

A

Owner or operator.

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30
Q

right of way rules

A

ballons, gliders, aircraft towing, airships, airplanes, rotorcraft

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31
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is flying away from you.

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32
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A

Identifies direction to take-off runways.

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33
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A

magnetic.

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34
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A

water vapor condenses.

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35
Q

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

A

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

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36
Q

What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

A

Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

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37
Q

what regulations allows a private pilot to preform preventative maintenance?

A

14 CFR _SECT _43.7

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38
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

The airship.

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39
Q

The definition of nighttime is

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

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40
Q

When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?

A

Mode A.

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41
Q

Which device is a secondary flight control?
A. Spoilers
B. Ailerons
C. Stabilators

A

Spoilers

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42
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will…

A

Remain the same regardless of gross weight

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43
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift

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44
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

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45
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if…

A

An aircraft is accelerated while on an east—west heading

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46
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if…

A

A right turn is entered from a north heading

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47
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when…

A

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when…

The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

48
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if…

A

A left turn is entered from a north heading

49
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

50
Q

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

A

When at sea level under standard conditions

51
Q

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the center line is….

A

4 nm

52
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunrise to sunset

53
Q

In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?

A

Class E airspace below 1,500’ AGL

54
Q

No person my operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than…

A

(3) three-miles

55
Q

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

A

1,500’ AGL

56
Q

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

A

Flights over a densely populated area

57
Q

Which incident requires notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

Flight control system malfunction or failure

58
Q

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is…

A

Higher than pressure altitude

59
Q

What effect does hazy have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

60
Q

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in…

A

Loss of muscular power

61
Q

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to risk associated with each flight?

A

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

62
Q

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

A

Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface

63
Q

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by…

A

Cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

64
Q

The development of thermals depends upon…

A

Solar heating

65
Q

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is…

A

A change in temperature

66
Q

A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000’ to 4,000’ above the surface is at least…

A

25-knots

67
Q

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62ºF, what type weather is most likely to develop?

A

Fog or low clouds

68
Q

What is meant by the term “dew point”?

A

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

69
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the…

A

Air temperature

70
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing

71
Q

Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

A

Steam fog

72
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

73
Q

What types of fog depends upon wind in order to exist?

A

Advection fog and upslope fog

74
Q

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and…

A

Unstable, moist air

75
Q

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82ºF and the dewpoint is 38ºF?

A

10,000’AGL (82-38=44; 44/4.4=10).

76
Q

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000’ MSL is 70ºF and the dewpoint is 48ºF?

A

6,000’ (add 5.4ºF per 1,000’)

77
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A

Stratiform clouds

78
Q

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to…

A

Produce stratus type clouds

79
Q

Stead precipitation preceding a front is an indication of…

A

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

80
Q

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

A

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

81
Q

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by…

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night

82
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

83
Q

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to…

A

Aviation Area Forecasts

84
Q

The sectional of the Area Forecast entitled “VFR CLDS/WX contains a general description of…

A

Clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.

85
Q

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?

A

Area Forecast

86
Q

What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a Radar Summary Chart refer to?

A

Severe weather watch area

87
Q

hat information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?

A

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms

88
Q

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

A

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

88
Q

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate…

A

Location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation

89
Q

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

A

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

90
Q

When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are…

A

Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot request published NOTAMs

91
Q

indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireciver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read…

A

0º FROM or 180º TO, regardless of the pilot’s position from the VOT

92
Q

What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?

A

±6º

93
Q

How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?

A

24

94
Q

What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?

A

5

95
Q

How many GPS satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?

A

4

96
Q

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?

A

Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation

97
Q

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should…

A

Subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angl

98
Q

How do you know if you’re in Moderate Turbulence?

A

You can feel the strain of the seatbelt during bumps

99
Q

How long is a METAR good for? When does it come out?

A

Good for 1 hour. Issued 50-minutes past the hour

100
Q

How long is a TAF good for? When does it come out?

A

Valid for 24-hours, issued 4x daily (0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z)

101
Q

What is standard pressure in PSI?

A

14.7 psi

102
Q

What is the pressure lapse rate?

A

-1 inHg per 1000’

103
Q

Describe a high pressure system

A

Moves clockwise, down and out, wants to go low

104
Q

Describe a low pressure system

A

Moves counterclockwise, upward and in

105
Q

Describe High Clouds

A

20000’AGL and above (usually 300-400 miles ahead of front)
Cirrus
Cirro-cumulus
Cirro-stratus

106
Q

Describe Middle Clouds

A

6500’ - 20000’AGL
Alto-stratus
Alto-cumulus

107
Q

Describe Low Clouds

A

0’ - 6500’AGL
Stratus
Strato-cumulus
Nimbo-Stratus (rain)
Vertical Developing Clouds

108
Q

Describe Steam Fog

A

Cold, dry air moves over relatively warmer water and evaporates. (Can produce low level turbulence)

109
Q

Describe Upslope Fog

A

Warm, moist, stable air with wind pushes upslope and cools to its dewpoint. (Puts clouds on top of a mountain)

110
Q

Describe Precipitation Induced Fog

A

warm rain/drizzle that falls through a cold layer of air and evaporates saturating the air. (Happens in the south more)

111
Q

Describe Radiation Fog

A

On a calm, cool, clear humid night the ground cools faster than the adjacent air, cooling the air to its dew point.

112
Q

Advection Fog

A

Warm, moist air moving over a cooler surface cooling it to its dewpoint. (Coastal fog generally)

113
Q

What is Virga?

A

Rain that evaporates before hitting the ground causing strong downdrafts.

114
Q

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

A

an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

HAA GROUND (16 decks)

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