B: 1-7 Flashcards

1
Q

M1-R location

A

Nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

M2-R location

A

Heart
some nerve endings

I love you! M2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

M3-R location

A

Effector cells
Smooth muscles
Glands
Endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a1-R action

A

Arterial and venous contraction
Mydriasis
Urinary spinchter contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a2-R action

A

Central and peripheral presynaptic inhibition
↓ insulin release
↓ lipolysis and FFA release
↓ Aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

B1-R action

A

↑ SA, AV rate and automaticity
↑ Cardiac contractility
↑ Renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

B2-R action

A
Peripheral vasodilation
Bronchodilation
↑ Insulin release
↑ Lipolysis and FFA release
↑ Heptaic gluconeogenesis+ Glycogenolysis
↑ Aqueous humor production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

B1 effect on the heart SA, AV rate and automaticity=

A

Positive chronotopic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nicotinic N-R location

A

ANS ganglia

Adrenal medula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nicotinic M-R location

A

Neuromascular end plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which factors contribute to the Cholinergic presynaptic inhibatory effect?

A
a2
M2
Hemicholinium
Vasamicol
Botulinum toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which factors contribute to the Cholinergic presynaptic stimulatory effect?

A
M1
B2
AT1
4-Aminopyridine
Latrotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hemicholinium blocks

A

Choline/Na+ cotransporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4-Aminopyridine MOA

A

Inhibitis K+ ch → Depol. → Neutransmittr release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which factors contribute to the Adrenergic presynaptic inhibatory effect?

A
a2
M2
H3
Metyrosine
Reserpine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which factors contribute to the Adrenergic presynaptic stimulatory effect?

A
B2
M1
AT1
4-Aminopyridine
Latrotoxin
Indirect acting sympathomimetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reserpine MOA

A

Inhibitis VMAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Metyrosine MOA

A

Inhibitis Tyrosine hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Iris radial muscle are controlled by

Dilated pupil is also called

A

a1
Mydriasis

Ayi see you 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Iris circular muscle are controlled by

Constricted pupil is also called

A

M3

Myosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ciliary muscles are innervated by

A

B- relaxation
M3- contraction

איריס היא אמא לשלושה ילדים

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bladder wall is innervated by

A

B2- Relax

M3- Contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Penis innervation

A

a- ejaculation

M- erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Far vision

A

↓ M3 tone will relax ciliary muscle

Flat lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Near vision

A

↑ M3 tone will contract ciliary muscle
Spherical lens

ciliary m contraction > decrease the diameter of the ring of ciliary muscle causing relaxation of the zonule fibers
the lens becomes more spherical, increasing its power to refract light for near visio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Miosis

A

M3 ↑

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How to lower aqueous humor production?

A

a2 agonist

B2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cholinomimetics

A
  • Choline esters: Acetylcholine, Bethanechol, Carbachol, metacholine
  • Alkaloids: Muscarine, Nicotine, pilocarpine
  • Synthetic: Vareniciline
  • Carbamates: Neo, Pyrido, Riva -stigmine
  • Organophosphates: Malathion, Sarin
  • Alcohol: Edrophonium, donepezil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Carbachol receptor preferance

A

M=N

קר בחול אז בוא נשחק יפה ביחד

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bethanechol receptor preferance

A

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pilocarpine receptor preferance

A

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Carbachol indications

A

Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which direct acting cholinomimetic is resistance to acetylcolinesterase?

A

Carbachol

כל כך קר אז אף אחד לא מתקרב אליו

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Carbachol

How to give

A

Topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pilocarpine drug properties

A

Oral, I.M , topical in eye
Lipd soluble
30min-2h duration of action

activates muscarinic receptor ( increa IP3 + DAG)
may also activate EPSP s via M-R in ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

dry mouth is also called

A

Xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pilocarpine indications

A

Glaucoma
Xerostomia
Incuced sweat test in CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the difference btw. tertiary and quaternary amine?

A

Tertiary freely cross the BBB

זה יותר קטן אז הוא מצליח לעבור

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which Carbamates are tertiary amine?

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Physostigmine indications

A

Antidote in case of Atropine overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Neostigmine duration of action and indication

A

2-4 h

MG (treatment)
Non obstructive ileus
Urinary retention
Reversal of N(M) block –> in surgery anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pyridostigmine duration of action and indication

A

4-8 h

MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which has a longer duration of action?

Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rivastigmine properties as a drug

A

Lipid soluble
Cross CNS
Given as transdermal patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Rivastigmine indications

A

Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Edrophonium indications

A
Diagnosis of MG
Tensilon test (MB Vs. Cholinergic crisis)

cholinergic crisis gets worse

MG= antibodies against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

AchE inhibitiors poisoning

A

DUMBBLES

Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bradycardia
Bronchoconstriction
Excitation
Lacrimation
Secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Excesp for AchE inhibitor, what else will you give to a MG patient?

A

Selective muscarinic antagonist to control muscarinic side effects like GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Non selective muscarinic antagonists

A
Atropine
Butyl-scopolamine
Scopolamine
Cyclopentolate
Procyclidine
50
Q

Modest selectivity to M3 muscarinic antagonist

A

Solifenacin

51
Q

What is the difference btw. Ipratropium to Tiotropium?

A

Ipratropium: Non selective. Shorter action
Tiotropium: M3 selective. Longer action

52
Q

Duration of action of Atropine?

A

2-4 h

Mydriasis effect for even 8 days ( >72hr)

53
Q

Atropine indications

A
  • Opthalmology (mydriasis, cycloplegia) >72 hr
  • Antidote for ChE inhibitors toxicity

Anti-diarrheal
Anti-spasmodic
Anti-secretery
Bradyarrhythmias

54
Q

Cyclopentolate indications

A

topical Opthalmology to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

Cyclo-round like the eyes

55
Q

Scopolamine molecule features

Indications

A

Lipid soluble, can enter the CNS

Motion sickness
Transdermal patch

Suck it up! its only water

56
Q

Butyl-scopolamine molecule features

Indications

A

No CNS entry

Pain from GI/GU spasmodic activity (Like menstrual cramps)

Buty female period

57
Q

Procyclidine
administration
molecule features
Indications

A

Lipid soluble, enter CNS
Oral, perenteral

Parkinson disease
Extrapyramidal disorders

58
Q

Whcih Muscarinic antagonists can treat Parkinson

A

Procyclidine

59
Q

Solifenacin
Oxybutynin

molecule features
Indications

A

Oral, ransdermal patch

Bladder spasms
Urinary incontinence

כי הם ספציפיים לאמ3

Solifenacin (m3 selective)
Oxybutynin (non selective antimuscarinic)

60
Q

Ipratropium
Tiotropium

Indications

A

Bronchodilator for asthma/COPD

61
Q

Which is M3 selective?

Ipratropium
Tiotropium

A

Tiotropium

62
Q

Adverse effects of Muscarinic antagonists?

A
↓ Secretion
Mydriasis, cyclpolegia
Glaucoma exxacerbation
Tachycardia
CNS effects
Urinary retention
Constipation
63
Q

Chemical antagonist for organophosphate

A

Pralidoxime

64
Q

Epinephrine is produced by

A

Exclusively by the medulla of the adrenal gland

65
Q

NE is produced by

A

Medulla of the adrenal gland

Sympathetic NS

66
Q

Epinephrine low dose

A

B1, B2 stimulation mainly:
HR, SV, CO, pulse pressure ↑
TPR, BP ↓
Bronchodilation

67
Q

Epinephrine high dose

A

a1 stimulation mainly:
TPR, BP ↑
Reflex bradycardia

68
Q

Epi indications

A
Cardiac arrest
Heart block
Anaphylactic shock
Hypotensive emergency
Adjucent to local anesthetics (↓ local blood flow)
69
Q

Epi side effects

A
HTN
Arrhythmias
Stroke
MI
Pulmonary edema
70
Q

NE receptor preferance

A

a1, a2, B1

71
Q

NE indications

A
Cardiac arrest
Heart block
Hypotensive emergency
Adjucent to local anesthetics (↓ local blood flow)
Shock
72
Q

NE- What type of shock is it used in?

A

Cardiogenic
Neurogenuc
Septic

73
Q

NE side effects

A
Vasospasms
Tissue necrosis
HTN
Arrhythmias
MI
74
Q

Dopamine dose dependent effect

A

Low dose: D1 → renal perfusion ↑
Medium: B1 stimulation → cardiac ↑
High: Acts like Epi (Loses selectivity)

75
Q

Dopamine indications

A

Shock (with renal failure)

76
Q

Dopamine side effects

A

Arrhythmias

77
Q

Isoprenaline receptor preferance

A

B1 = B2

78
Q

Isoprenaline indications

A

Cardiac arrest
Complete heart block
Acute asthma attack

79
Q

Dobutamine receptror preferance

A

B1 > B2&raquo_space;> a1

80
Q

Dobutamine indications

A

Cardiogenic shock
Acute heart failure
Cardiac stimulation in cardiac stress test

81
Q

a agonists
+
Which a?

A
Phenylephrine: a1
Oxymetazoline: Local a1, systemic a2
Clonidine: a2, I2
Rilmenidine: a2, I2
Methyldopa: a2

POC RM

82
Q

a2 agonists

A

Oxymetazoline (also a1)
Clonidine
Rilmenidine
Methydopa

83
Q

a1 agonists

A

Phenylephrine

Oxymetazoline- locally

84
Q

Special feature of Phenylephrine

A

Not inactivated by COMT → longer duration of action compared to catecholamines

85
Q

Phenylephrine duration of action

A

15-60 min

86
Q

Phenylephrine indications

A

Opthalmologic (mydriasis)
Decongestant
Hypotension (TPR, mean BP↑)

87
Q

Phenylephrine side effects

A
Reflex bradycardia
HTN
Stroke
MI
Ischemic necrosis of mucus memb.
88
Q

Oxymetazoline indications

A

Topical decongestant

89
Q

Oxymetazoline side effects

A

When given systemically due to a2 activation (Hypotension)

90
Q

Clonidine receptor preferance

A

a2

I2

91
Q

Clonidine drug features
Molecule?
How to give?

A

Imidazole derivative

Oral, Treansdermal patch

92
Q

Clonidine indications

A

Antyhypertensive
ADHD
Turettes syndrome
Alcohol withdrawal syndrome

93
Q

Clonidine side effects

A

Sedation
Dry mouth
Severe rebound HTN when sudddenly stopped
Drug induced lupus

94
Q

Which are the a2, I2 agonists?

A

Clonidine

Rilmenidine

95
Q

Rilmenidine indications

A

Antihypertensive

96
Q

Rilmenidine side effects

A

Milder compared to Clonidine

97
Q

Pure a1 agonist

A

Phenyephrine

98
Q

Pure a2 agonist

A

Methyldopa

(Brimonidine, : a2-selective agonists appear to
reduce synthesis of aqueous humor

Tizanidine: an imidazoline related to clonidine reinforces presynaptic inhibition in
the spinal cord

99
Q

Methyldopa drug features

A

Prodrug: Transported into the brian and converted to methyl-NE

100
Q

Methyldopa indications

A

Antihypertensive

101
Q

Methyldopa side effects

A

Sedation
Induces hemolytic antibodies

Drug induced lupus

102
Q

Which release inducing agent do you know?

A

Tyramine
Ephedrine
Amphetamine

TEA

103
Q

Ephedrine indications

A
  • narcolepsy,
  • idiopathic postural hypotension,
  • enuresis = involuntary urination
Stimulant
Appetite suppressant
Concentration aid
Decongestant
Hypotension associated woth anaesthesia
Less addictive than Amphetamines
104
Q

Non selective a-R antagonists

A

Phentolamine: Competitive
antagonist at a
receptors

Phenoxybenzamine: Irreversible (covalent}
binding to a receptors

105
Q

How to give Phentolamine?

What is the duration of action?

A

Oral: 20-40 min
Parenterally: 2-4 h

106
Q

What is the difference btw. Phentolamine and Phenoxybenzamine?

A

Phenoxybenzamine binds the a-R irreversibely

107
Q

Phentolamine indications

A

Pre-operative management of Pheochromocytoma

Antidote in case of acute HTN due to a agonist overdose

108
Q

Phentolamine side effects

A

Orthostatic hypotension with subsequent reflex tachycardia

109
Q

a1 selective antagonists

A

Prazosin

Doxazosin

Tamsulosin (approved for only BPH bcz partially selective)

110
Q

Prazosin
Tamsulosin
Doxazosin

How to give? Duration of action?

A

Oral

prazosin : 8hr

Doxazosin., tamsulosin : 12-24 hrs

111
Q

Prazosin
Tamsulosin
Doxazosin

Indications

A

HTN
BPH
Prazosin for PTSD

112
Q

Prazosin
Tamsulosin
Doxazosin

Side effects

A

Orthostatic hypotension

113
Q

Which drug is a1 antagonist and weak a2 agonist?

A

Urapidil

114
Q

Urapidil receptor preferance

A

a1 antagonist
a2 weak agonist
5-HT weak agonist
B antagonist

115
Q

Urapidil indications

A

HTN
Hypertensice crisis
BPH

116
Q

Carvedilol receptor preferance

A

B1, B2, a1 antagonist

117
Q

Which drugs are B1, B2, a1 antagonist

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

118
Q

Carvedilol
Labetalol

How to give?
Duration of action?

A

Oral, IV

5 h

119
Q

Carvedilol indications

A

Congestive HF

**Reduces mortality!

120
Q

Special feature of Carvedilol?

A

Reduces mortality in Congestive HF patients