Automatic Flight Flashcards
The Flight Guidance Control System (FGCS) functions are: (3)
Auto pilot
Flight director
Yaw damper/Turn coordination
The Thrust Management System (TMS) functions are: (3)
Automatic Throttle (AT)
Electronic Thrust Trim System (ETTS)
Thrust Rating Selection (TRS)
(T/F) Disengagement of the autopilot shall disengage the yaw damper.
False.
(T/F) If the YD fails but has no effect on the autopilot or the flight director, it will NOT disengage the autopilot
True
With no autopilot modes selected, pushing the autopilot master will engage what modes?
Autopilot, Roll, FPA
After pressing the autopilot disconnect the AP will flash on the FMA for at least __ seconds
5 sec.
Pressing the autopilot disconnect twice does what?
Cancels the aural “AUTOPILOT” and the visual indication on the FMA
The autopilot shall disengage when the following conditions occur? (9)
- The AP button is pressed on the guidance panel
- The manual pitch trim switches are activated
- Either quick disconnect switches are activated
- Column shackers are activated (yes, it’s spelled that way..)
- Reversion of fly-by-wire system to direct mode
- Either the aileron or elevator control system disconnects
- A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips
- Various internal monitors failure
- Windshear escape guidance is activated
The Touch Control System (TCS) does what?
Releases the clutches and synchronizes the flight director. When released, the autopilot is reengaged and re synchronizes to the flight director
Equivalent of Control Wheel Steering (CWS)
If the autopilot trim function becomes inop. What message can you expect on EICAS?
FLT CTL FAULT
Blue
(T/F) The auto throttle is fully integrated with the flight director subsystem, however, it is independent of the AP engagement status
True
How many vertical modes can be active at a time on the FMA?
How man can be armed?
1 can be active
2 can be armed
How many lateral modes can be active at a time on the FMA?
How many can be armed?
1 can be active
1 can be armed
(T/F) The FD can’t be removed from either PFD when the autopilot is engaged.
False. It can be removed from the side that is not coupled
Pressing the SRC button with the autopilot engaged does what?
Reverts to Roll/FPA mode
Pressing the SRC button with the autopilot disengaged does what?
Clears the FD and FMA
What are all of the FGCS Vertical modes? (9)
- Flight Path Angle (FPA)
- Takeoff (TO)
- Altitude Select (ASEL)
- Flight Level Change (FLCH)
- Altitude Hold (ALT)
- Vertical Speed (VS)
- Overspeed Protection (OVSP)
- Glide Slope (GS)
- Go-Around (GA)
The VNAV Submodes are: (5)
- VNAV ARM (VARM)
- VNAV Flight Level Change (VFLCH)
- VNAV Altitude Capture (VASEL)
- VNAV Altitude Hold (VALT)
- VNAV Path (VPATH)
(T/F) FPA is always the basic vertical mode
False. Except for takeoff, FPA is the basic vertical mode
The FPA modes becomes the active Flight Director vertical mode when: (4)
- The FPA button is pressed on the guidance panel
- Autopilot is engaged and no Flight Director vertical mode is active during takeoff
- When a lateral mode is active and there is no active vertical mode with autopilot engaged, except on departure
- The current vertical mode is deselected
When will the TOGA mode be activated?
When either of the TOGA buttons are pressed on the throttle.
When the airplane is on the ground for more than 5 seconds following a landing provided a valid V2 speed is received from the FMS
(T/F) The autopilot can be engaged while in TOGA mode
False.
(T/F) Lateral mode changes are allowed in TOGA
True
The FPA indication is inhibited for __ seconds after lift-off when taking off using raw-data information
30 seconds
The Takeoff mode is deactivated when: (3)
A different FPA/Vertical mode is activated
The TCS button is pressed
The autopilot is activated
When departing with all engines operating the guidance will target a speed of ____
V2 + 10 kts.
When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed below V2, the guidance will target a speed of ____
V2
When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed between V2 and V2+10kts, the guidance will target a speed of ____
Present speed
When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed above V2+10kts, the guidance will target a speed of ____
V2+10kts
During takeoff mode the pitch is limited to a minimum of __ deg. and a maximum of __ deg.
8 deg. Min
18 deg. Max
The selected speed of the speed tape switches from IAS to Mach readout close to _____ ft.
29,000 ft.
(T/F) The FLCH mode never guides to the opposite direction before going to the direction selected by the pilot in the ALT SEL knob
True
FLCH deactivates when:
Another vertical mode is selected
The TCS button is pressed
(T/F) When in a climb or descent, if you press the ALT button the aircraft will maintain whatever altitude you’re at when you push the button
True
Vertical speed command range:
-8,000 ft/min
+6,000 ft/min
Increments of vertical speed target value:
50 ft/min below 1,000 ft/min
100 ft/min above 1,000 ft/min
(T/F) The flight director provides overspeed protection vertical speed and FPA modes to maintain the airplane speed below VMO or MMO limits, whichever is applicable
True
When in GA mode and the IAS is greater than the target speed, the guidance will target the following:
All engines operating: ____
One engine Inoperative: ___
VREF +20 kts
VAC (Approach Climb)
(T/F) Windshear mode can be manually selected
False.
Windshear mode is disabled above ___ AGL
1,500 AGL
DESNOW mode will be available when within __ nm of the TOD
50 nm
When activating DESNOW after the TOD the descent angle will be __X the normal angle to ensure intercept
1.5X the normal angle
What does UNABLE PATH INTERCEPT mean?
The descent rate will not intercept the VNAV descent path
Where can CLIMB, CRUISE, and DESCENT speeds be set for FMS speed control
On page 1/3 under Performance INIT
The conditions for the FD to be turned off are:
Autopilot disengaged
FD button selected off on the guidance panel, on the source side
With the aircraft at __ deg. bank or left, when in roll mode the aircraft will level the wings
6 deg.
Between __ deg. and __ deg. the autopilot holds the set bank angle when in roll mode
6 - 35 deg.
With the bank angle at __ or greater the autopilot maintains __ deg. bank when in roll mode.
35 deg.
35 deg.
(T/F) When making a turn >180 deg. you should turn the HDG bug in the direction of the turn and it will follow that direction, even if it may be the “longer route”
True
(T/F) The BC mode for an approach must be manually selected
False. The aircraft will calculate whether it should be a BC approach
Automatic transition from ROLL to TRACK happens when:
IAS >100 kts.
Bank angle is at 3 deg. or below for more than 10 seconds
APPR 2 NOT AVAIL message means what?
ILS CAT II mode is not available
The operational conditions to accomplish a CAT II approach are:
- Both RA/BARO selectors set to RA and CAT II mins
- Both NAV set to correct LOC frequency
- Both PFDs set to the correct LOC inbound course (V/L or preview)
- Flap 5 selected
- All described conditions established at or above 800 ft RA
ILS Approach checkpoints are:
1500 ft. RA - system starts trying to enage the highest capability available
800 ft. RA - system freezes he highest capability available, not allowing approach “upgrades” anymore
What is the difference between APPCH2 in white vs. green?
White means it is still trying to determine if you can do the CAT II approach. Green means the aircraft is performing the CAT II approach
At what altitude should APPCH1 (2) switch from white to green on the FMA?
Upon crossing 1500 ft. on the RA
(T/F) The YD remains engaged regardless of autopilot engagement or disengagement or he loss of turn coordination function
True
If the YD is selected off on the autopilot panel, what EICAS message will be displayed and what color will it be?
YD OFF
Blue
(T/F) Both channels for the Thrust Management System (TMS), Thrust Rating Selection (TRS), Electronic Thrust Trim System (ETTS), and Auto Throttle (AT), are operating at all times
False, only one channel from each is operating at any given time
How can a pilot change which channels the Thrust Management System (TMS)?
In the MCDU
When can the autothrottle be engaged on the ground? (3)
- All parameters required are valid and autothrottle is capable
- Autothrottle TO mode armed (autothrottle button in the guidance panel is pressed)
- Both thrust levers above 50 deg. TLA
When can the autothrottle be engaged in the air? (3)
- All parameters required are valid and autothrottle is capable
- Autothrottle button in the guidance panel is pressed
- The airplane is at or above 400 ft AGL
Disconnection of autothrottle occurs when:
- Either AT disconnect button on the thrust levers is pressed
- AT button on the GP is pressed
- Thrust lever angle difference greater than 8 deg.
- AT monitor tripped
- The req. system parameters become invalid
- Aircraft on the ground with weight on wheels. Throttles at idle and AT mode in RETARD mode
If the AT is disengaged for an abnormal reason, what will you hear/see?
If you press the AT disconnect button, what will happen?
AT FAIL in Amber on EICAS
Hear “THROTTLE”
AT on PFD will flash red for at least 5 sec.
Pressing the disconnect will cancel the aural alarm and the PFD flashing, however, the EICAS message will remain
(T/F) When the autothrottle i engaged, the thrust levers may have a misalignment of up to half of thrust lever handle diameter
True
What vertical modes would cause a SPD-T command in the FMA?
- FPA
- VS
- GS
- ALT
- ASEL
- FMS Function
What vertical modes would cause a SPD-E command in the FMA?
FLCH
OVSP
For large flight level changes (FLCH mode) the autothrottle commands a climb setting at _____ rating and descent in _____ rating
CLIMB
IDLE
What is the purpose of the TO HOLD mode of AT?
The hold mode prevents undesirable movements of the thrust levers causing thrust reductions during the takeoff phase
When does TO HOLD mode of AT activate?
When does it deactivate?
When the thrust levers are in TO mode and the speed is >60 kts
Not before 400 ft AGL
Retard mode activates when?
RA indicated less than 30 ft. and the aircraft is in a landing configuration
When will the autothrottle automatically disengage when landing?
When the aircraft is on the ground
Retard mode is armed based on the following conditions:
- Autothrottle engaged
- Flap at 5 or FULL position with landing gear down
- RA below 150 ft AGL
- RA with valid information
What does the limited thrust mean?
LIM will display if the SPD-T will not allow the aircraft to maintain the desired speed? i.e. VS set to high and engines can’t maintain set speed
What happens if you move the thrust levers in cruise just a little bit for a temporary speed reduction but don’t disengage the autothrottle?
The engines thrust will reduce as long as you hold the throttles back, but once you release them they will return to their preset AT mode
(T/F) Autothrottle will automatically disengage if you push the thrust levers to the TO/GA position?
True
(T/F) If the autothrottle detects a failure in an engine it will automatically disengage the autothrottle for the failed engine while still commanding the operative engine
True
TLA trim (thrust lever angle trim) does what?
- Performs small thrust adjustments, with limited authority
- Reduces excessive thrust lever movements
- Synchronizes N1 rotation speed, increasing comfort
(T/F) TLA trim is automatically engaged whenever the autothrottle is active and can only be disengaged in the MCDU
True
Thrust rating changes from TO to CLB when:
- Any change in vertical mode is detected
- Airplane altitude is above 400 ft AGL
- Both engines are running
- Landing gear is retracted
NOTE: If no change in vertical mode is detected, the aircraft will automatically switch at 3,000 feet pressure altitude above field elevation
During a single engine situation the AT mode changes from TO to ____ at ____ ft pressure altitude above field elevation
Continuous at 3,000 ft.
