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Envoy E175 > Automatic Flight > Flashcards

Automatic Flight Flashcards

1
Q

The Flight Guidance Control System (FGCS) functions are: (3)

A

Auto pilot
Flight director
Yaw damper/Turn coordination

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2
Q

The Thrust Management System (TMS) functions are: (3)

A

Automatic Throttle (AT)
Electronic Thrust Trim System (ETTS)
Thrust Rating Selection (TRS)

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3
Q

(T/F) Disengagement of the autopilot shall disengage the yaw damper.

A

False.

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4
Q

(T/F) If the YD fails but has no effect on the autopilot or the flight director, it will NOT disengage the autopilot

A

True

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5
Q

With no autopilot modes selected, pushing the autopilot master will engage what modes?

A

Autopilot, Roll, FPA

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6
Q

After pressing the autopilot disconnect the AP will flash on the FMA for at least __ seconds

A

5 sec.

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7
Q

Pressing the autopilot disconnect twice does what?

A

Cancels the aural “AUTOPILOT” and the visual indication on the FMA

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8
Q

The autopilot shall disengage when the following conditions occur? (9)

A
  • The AP button is pressed on the guidance panel
  • The manual pitch trim switches are activated
  • Either quick disconnect switches are activated
  • Column shackers are activated (yes, it’s spelled that way..)
  • Reversion of fly-by-wire system to direct mode
  • Either the aileron or elevator control system disconnects
  • A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips
  • Various internal monitors failure
  • Windshear escape guidance is activated
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9
Q

The Touch Control System (TCS) does what?

A

Releases the clutches and synchronizes the flight director. When released, the autopilot is reengaged and re synchronizes to the flight director

Equivalent of Control Wheel Steering (CWS)

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10
Q

If the autopilot trim function becomes inop. What message can you expect on EICAS?

A

FLT CTL FAULT

Blue

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11
Q

(T/F) The auto throttle is fully integrated with the flight director subsystem, however, it is independent of the AP engagement status

A

True

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12
Q

How many vertical modes can be active at a time on the FMA?

How man can be armed?

A

1 can be active

2 can be armed

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13
Q

How many lateral modes can be active at a time on the FMA?

How many can be armed?

A

1 can be active

1 can be armed

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14
Q

(T/F) The FD can’t be removed from either PFD when the autopilot is engaged.

A

False. It can be removed from the side that is not coupled

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15
Q

Pressing the SRC button with the autopilot engaged does what?

A

Reverts to Roll/FPA mode

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16
Q

Pressing the SRC button with the autopilot disengaged does what?

A

Clears the FD and FMA

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17
Q

What are all of the FGCS Vertical modes? (9)

A
  • Flight Path Angle (FPA)
  • Takeoff (TO)
  • Altitude Select (ASEL)
  • Flight Level Change (FLCH)
  • Altitude Hold (ALT)
  • Vertical Speed (VS)
  • Overspeed Protection (OVSP)
  • Glide Slope (GS)
  • Go-Around (GA)
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18
Q

The VNAV Submodes are: (5)

A
  • VNAV ARM (VARM)
  • VNAV Flight Level Change (VFLCH)
  • VNAV Altitude Capture (VASEL)
  • VNAV Altitude Hold (VALT)
  • VNAV Path (VPATH)
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19
Q

(T/F) FPA is always the basic vertical mode

A

False. Except for takeoff, FPA is the basic vertical mode

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20
Q

The FPA modes becomes the active Flight Director vertical mode when: (4)

A
  • The FPA button is pressed on the guidance panel
  • Autopilot is engaged and no Flight Director vertical mode is active during takeoff
  • When a lateral mode is active and there is no active vertical mode with autopilot engaged, except on departure
  • The current vertical mode is deselected
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21
Q

When will the TOGA mode be activated?

A

When either of the TOGA buttons are pressed on the throttle.
When the airplane is on the ground for more than 5 seconds following a landing provided a valid V2 speed is received from the FMS

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22
Q

(T/F) The autopilot can be engaged while in TOGA mode

A

False.

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23
Q

(T/F) Lateral mode changes are allowed in TOGA

A

True

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24
Q

The FPA indication is inhibited for __ seconds after lift-off when taking off using raw-data information

A

30 seconds

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25
Q

The Takeoff mode is deactivated when: (3)

A

A different FPA/Vertical mode is activated
The TCS button is pressed
The autopilot is activated

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26
Q

When departing with all engines operating the guidance will target a speed of ____

A

V2 + 10 kts.

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27
Q

When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed below V2, the guidance will target a speed of ____

A

V2

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28
Q

When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed between V2 and V2+10kts, the guidance will target a speed of ____

A

Present speed

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29
Q

When departing with one engine inoperative with an engine failure at a speed above V2+10kts, the guidance will target a speed of ____

A

V2+10kts

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30
Q

During takeoff mode the pitch is limited to a minimum of __ deg. and a maximum of __ deg.

A

8 deg. Min

18 deg. Max

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31
Q

The selected speed of the speed tape switches from IAS to Mach readout close to _____ ft.

A

29,000 ft.

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32
Q

(T/F) The FLCH mode never guides to the opposite direction before going to the direction selected by the pilot in the ALT SEL knob

A

True

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33
Q

FLCH deactivates when:

A

Another vertical mode is selected

The TCS button is pressed

34
Q

(T/F) When in a climb or descent, if you press the ALT button the aircraft will maintain whatever altitude you’re at when you push the button

A

True

35
Q

Vertical speed command range:

A

-8,000 ft/min

+6,000 ft/min

36
Q

Increments of vertical speed target value:

A

50 ft/min below 1,000 ft/min

100 ft/min above 1,000 ft/min

37
Q

(T/F) The flight director provides overspeed protection vertical speed and FPA modes to maintain the airplane speed below VMO or MMO limits, whichever is applicable

A

True

38
Q

When in GA mode and the IAS is greater than the target speed, the guidance will target the following:
All engines operating: ____
One engine Inoperative: ___

A

VREF +20 kts

VAC (Approach Climb)

39
Q

(T/F) Windshear mode can be manually selected

A

False.

40
Q

Windshear mode is disabled above ___ AGL

A

1,500 AGL

41
Q

DESNOW mode will be available when within __ nm of the TOD

A

50 nm

42
Q

When activating DESNOW after the TOD the descent angle will be __X the normal angle to ensure intercept

A

1.5X the normal angle

43
Q

What does UNABLE PATH INTERCEPT mean?

A

The descent rate will not intercept the VNAV descent path

44
Q

Where can CLIMB, CRUISE, and DESCENT speeds be set for FMS speed control

A

On page 1/3 under Performance INIT

45
Q

The conditions for the FD to be turned off are:

A

Autopilot disengaged

FD button selected off on the guidance panel, on the source side

46
Q

With the aircraft at __ deg. bank or left, when in roll mode the aircraft will level the wings

A

6 deg.

47
Q

Between __ deg. and __ deg. the autopilot holds the set bank angle when in roll mode

A

6 - 35 deg.

48
Q

With the bank angle at __ or greater the autopilot maintains __ deg. bank when in roll mode.

A

35 deg.

35 deg.

49
Q

(T/F) When making a turn >180 deg. you should turn the HDG bug in the direction of the turn and it will follow that direction, even if it may be the “longer route”

A

True

50
Q

(T/F) The BC mode for an approach must be manually selected

A

False. The aircraft will calculate whether it should be a BC approach

51
Q

Automatic transition from ROLL to TRACK happens when:

A

IAS >100 kts.

Bank angle is at 3 deg. or below for more than 10 seconds

52
Q

APPR 2 NOT AVAIL message means what?

A

ILS CAT II mode is not available

53
Q

The operational conditions to accomplish a CAT II approach are:

A
  • Both RA/BARO selectors set to RA and CAT II mins
  • Both NAV set to correct LOC frequency
  • Both PFDs set to the correct LOC inbound course (V/L or preview)
  • Flap 5 selected
  • All described conditions established at or above 800 ft RA
54
Q

ILS Approach checkpoints are:

A

1500 ft. RA - system starts trying to enage the highest capability available
800 ft. RA - system freezes he highest capability available, not allowing approach “upgrades” anymore

55
Q

What is the difference between APPCH2 in white vs. green?

A

White means it is still trying to determine if you can do the CAT II approach. Green means the aircraft is performing the CAT II approach

56
Q

At what altitude should APPCH1 (2) switch from white to green on the FMA?

A

Upon crossing 1500 ft. on the RA

57
Q

(T/F) The YD remains engaged regardless of autopilot engagement or disengagement or he loss of turn coordination function

A

True

58
Q

If the YD is selected off on the autopilot panel, what EICAS message will be displayed and what color will it be?

A

YD OFF

Blue

59
Q

(T/F) Both channels for the Thrust Management System (TMS), Thrust Rating Selection (TRS), Electronic Thrust Trim System (ETTS), and Auto Throttle (AT), are operating at all times

A

False, only one channel from each is operating at any given time

60
Q

How can a pilot change which channels the Thrust Management System (TMS)?

A

In the MCDU

61
Q

When can the autothrottle be engaged on the ground? (3)

A
  • All parameters required are valid and autothrottle is capable
  • Autothrottle TO mode armed (autothrottle button in the guidance panel is pressed)
  • Both thrust levers above 50 deg. TLA
62
Q

When can the autothrottle be engaged in the air? (3)

A
  • All parameters required are valid and autothrottle is capable
  • Autothrottle button in the guidance panel is pressed
  • The airplane is at or above 400 ft AGL
63
Q

Disconnection of autothrottle occurs when:

A
  • Either AT disconnect button on the thrust levers is pressed
  • AT button on the GP is pressed
  • Thrust lever angle difference greater than 8 deg.
  • AT monitor tripped
  • The req. system parameters become invalid
  • Aircraft on the ground with weight on wheels. Throttles at idle and AT mode in RETARD mode
64
Q

If the AT is disengaged for an abnormal reason, what will you hear/see?

If you press the AT disconnect button, what will happen?

A

AT FAIL in Amber on EICAS
Hear “THROTTLE”
AT on PFD will flash red for at least 5 sec.

Pressing the disconnect will cancel the aural alarm and the PFD flashing, however, the EICAS message will remain

65
Q

(T/F) When the autothrottle i engaged, the thrust levers may have a misalignment of up to half of thrust lever handle diameter

A

True

66
Q

What vertical modes would cause a SPD-T command in the FMA?

A
  • FPA
  • VS
  • GS
  • ALT
  • ASEL
  • FMS Function
67
Q

What vertical modes would cause a SPD-E command in the FMA?

A

FLCH

OVSP

68
Q

For large flight level changes (FLCH mode) the autothrottle commands a climb setting at _____ rating and descent in _____ rating

A

CLIMB

IDLE

69
Q

What is the purpose of the TO HOLD mode of AT?

A

The hold mode prevents undesirable movements of the thrust levers causing thrust reductions during the takeoff phase

70
Q

When does TO HOLD mode of AT activate?

When does it deactivate?

A

When the thrust levers are in TO mode and the speed is >60 kts

Not before 400 ft AGL

71
Q

Retard mode activates when?

A

RA indicated less than 30 ft. and the aircraft is in a landing configuration

72
Q

When will the autothrottle automatically disengage when landing?

A

When the aircraft is on the ground

73
Q

Retard mode is armed based on the following conditions:

A
  • Autothrottle engaged
  • Flap at 5 or FULL position with landing gear down
  • RA below 150 ft AGL
  • RA with valid information
74
Q

What does the limited thrust mean?

A

LIM will display if the SPD-T will not allow the aircraft to maintain the desired speed? i.e. VS set to high and engines can’t maintain set speed

75
Q

What happens if you move the thrust levers in cruise just a little bit for a temporary speed reduction but don’t disengage the autothrottle?

A

The engines thrust will reduce as long as you hold the throttles back, but once you release them they will return to their preset AT mode

76
Q

(T/F) Autothrottle will automatically disengage if you push the thrust levers to the TO/GA position?

A

True

77
Q

(T/F) If the autothrottle detects a failure in an engine it will automatically disengage the autothrottle for the failed engine while still commanding the operative engine

A

True

78
Q

TLA trim (thrust lever angle trim) does what?

A
  • Performs small thrust adjustments, with limited authority
  • Reduces excessive thrust lever movements
  • Synchronizes N1 rotation speed, increasing comfort
79
Q

(T/F) TLA trim is automatically engaged whenever the autothrottle is active and can only be disengaged in the MCDU

A

True

80
Q

Thrust rating changes from TO to CLB when:

A
  • Any change in vertical mode is detected
  • Airplane altitude is above 400 ft AGL
  • Both engines are running
  • Landing gear is retracted

NOTE: If no change in vertical mode is detected, the aircraft will automatically switch at 3,000 feet pressure altitude above field elevation

81
Q

During a single engine situation the AT mode changes from TO to ____ at ____ ft pressure altitude above field elevation

A

Continuous at 3,000 ft.

Envoy E175 (22 decks)

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