Automatic Flight Flashcards

1
Q

Is VNAV available with one or two engines inop?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can AUTOLAND be accomplished is max landing weight exceeded?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The outer BANK LIMIT Selector applies to which mode?

A

HDG SEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When the LOC is captured, what is displayed in the HDG Window?

A

ILS Front Course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you de-select the approach mode AFTER LOC and GS capture?

A
  • Select TO/GA

- Disengaged AP and FD switches OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

With APP switch armed, what intercept track angle does the AFDS capture the LOC?

A

120 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what altitude are the AP systems powered by separate sources with 3 APs engaged?

A

Below 1500’ RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What speed is in MACH/IAS window when power is applied?

A

200 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can you select climb thrust after takeoff or go-around with all engines running?

A

Thrust (THR) Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can GS be captured prior to LOC intercept?

A

NO, GS capture inhibited until LOC capture and the intercept angle is within 80 degrees of the LOC course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does amber horizontal line through affected ACTIVE pitch or roll mode indicate?

A

A flight mode fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many pushes required to disconnect all APs?

A
  • Two
  • First disengages
  • Second resets lights, message, warning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When armed, what autothrottle mode would be displayed when TO/GA is pushed for go-around on approach?

A

THR Mode

  • Thrust adjusts to provide a 2000 FPM climb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What climb rate is achieved during go-around with TO/GA?

A

2,000’ FPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What A/T mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?

A

THR REF, at full go-around thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does VNAV activate?

A

400 feet above runway elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is VNAV deactivated?

A
  • When selecting TO/GA, FLCH, V/S, ALT, or GS

- Dual FMC Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What A/T flight mode annunciations would you have when using FLCH SPD in a descent, to include subsequent altitude capture?

A
  • THR, followed by HOLD

- A/T mode changes to SPD w/altitude captured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When power is first applied, what altitude is displayed?

A

10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Will the A/Ts operate if you don’t push TO/GA for takeoff by 50 knots?

A
  • NO
  • Inhibited until 400’
  • It’s 50 knots GROUNDSPEED, not IAS! Headwinds will affect inhibition.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can you disarm VNAV, LNAV, LOC, and APP modes when armed?

A

Push mode switch a second time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

LAND3, will a single fault prevent A/P system from making an automatic landing?

A
  • NO
  • With a LAND2, the level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide A/T speed protection?

A

V/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When does LNAV activate when armed?

A
  • Above 50’ and in position to capture active leg

- In flight, within 2.5 miles of active leg

25
When does the ROLLOUT mode activate?
Below 5'
26
What initial pitch is commanded by FD when turned on, on the ground?
8 degrees nose UP
27
In flight, when is TO/GA armed?
- Flaps out of UP | - GS captured
28
If VNAV descent is initiated prior to TOD, what pitch mode is used?
VNAV SPD
29
When does VNAV ALT display?
A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and MCP altitude
30
When does the FLARE mode activate?
Between 60 and 40'
31
When do APs start the flare maneuver?
Approx 50'
32
When do A/Ts retard to idle during AUTOLAND?
25' RA
33
When does FLARE deactivate?
- At touchdown | - Nosewheel will smoothly lower to runway
34
During AUTOLAND, what action disconnects the A/Ts?
Reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle
35
What conditions would cause the A/Ts to disconnect and subsequently cannot be re-connected?
- Dual FMC failure | - Two or more ENG out
36
Can the A/Ts be reconnected if the FMC Master switch is switched?
Yes
37
During takeoff, when TO/GA is selected, what A/T mode is active?
THR REF
38
When does the A/T annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?
65 knots
39
When is barometric altitude recorded by the FMC during takeoff?
100 knots
40
At liftoff, with TO/GA as the roll mode, what roll command is maintained?
Ground track
41
If an engine failure occurs on the ground, what is the pitch command target speed at liftoff?
V2, or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater
42
At accel height, what speed commands are established by pitch as the flaps are retracted?
5 knots below the placard speed of the commanded flap position
43
When is TO/GA mode terminated after takeoff?
Be selection of any other pitch and roll mode or activation of LNAV/VNAV
44
When does the A/P control the rudder during multi A/P approaches?
When LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated
45
At what two altitudes will runway alignment occur during multi A/P approaches during crosswinds, with all engines?
500' and 200', depending on crab angle
46
How does the A/P maintain runway alignment if an engine failure occurs prior to the approach, during multi A/P approaches? If during approach?
- AFDS introduces sideslip at 1300' AGL - Establishes a wings level configuration - If an engine fails during the approach, wings level is established when the engine failure is detected
47
What pitch is commanded by the AFDS when TO/GA is pushed in a windshear recovery on approach?
15 degrees pitch-up or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower
48
How does the automatic flight control system provide stall protection?
Prevents speed reduction below the minimum maneuvering speed
49
Describe flight envelope speed protection?
- Overspeed protection prevents exceeding the max operating GEAR EXTENDED or FLAP PLACARD SPEEDS
50
What speed protection margin is used by the AFDS in max operating, flap placard speed, and gear extended speeds?
5 knots
51
What two conditions prevent the AFDS and autothrottle from providing speed protection?
- V/S pitch mode | - Engine failure above max engine-out altitude
52
What conditions will result in total loss of A/Ts?
- Loss of 2 ENG | - Dual FMC Failure
53
With dual FMC failure, what basic capabilities are available with the CDUs?
- Lateral navigation computations | - Tuning of NAV radios
54
What is the purpose of the EIUs?
To provide A/C systems to the 6 display screens. | - PFDs, NDs, both EICAS
55
What FMS-CDU pages are available with a dual FMC failure?
- NAV LEGS - NAV PROG - NAV NAVRAD
56
When do the A/Ts disconnect during an RTO?
When any TR is brought to idle.
57
What modes are A/T avail in without pushing THR button on MCP?
VNAV and FLCH SPD
58
What modes will enable A/T when THR button is pressed?
Rule of 3: - V/S - G/S - ALT Any other mode will require cycling of the A/T switch on the MCP.