Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

What systems make up the Auto Flight Control System? (AFCS)

A

Flight director
Autopilot
Auto throttles

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2
Q

Which panel hosts the controls for FD, AP, & AT, plus lateral and vertical ref/mode selection and course selection?

A

AFCS panel

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3
Q

What does pushing the FD button do?

A

Engages/disengages FD on that PFD

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4
Q

What does the AT button do?

A

Engages/disengages the AT

Selects the source of the speed ref between MAN and FMS

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5
Q

What does the HDG button do?

A

Heading mode if pushed once, Roll mode if pressed again

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6
Q

Bank button does what?

A

Toggles between +/- 15* and +/- 30* bank angles

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7
Q

What is the up and down range of the FPA mode

A

9.9* up and down

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8
Q

How can the flight path angel/ref line be selected?

A

By rotating the FPA knob

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9
Q

What do the outer and inner rings on the ALT knob select?

A

Outer selects alt by 1000’s

Inner selects by 100’s

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10
Q

What does the SRC button do?

A

Alternates between PFD 1 & PFD 2 FMA modes as the source for the AP

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11
Q

When AP is engaged, what does pressing the TCS button on the stick do?

A

Activates TCS (AP override) as long as your not in TO/GA

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12
Q

Where are the TO/GA and AT/DISC buttons located?

A

Throttles

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13
Q

With AP engaged will it disengaged if any force is applied to a stick?

A

Yes

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14
Q

What are the 2 FD cues present?

A

FD cue (magenta circle) and the TO crossbar

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15
Q

What does the green Flight Path Vector cue indicate?

A

Current flight path in reference to the horizon line

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16
Q

Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator located and what will it show?

A

FMA located in upper part of both PFD’s, annunciation for AT, approach status, lateral and vertical modes

17
Q

FMA color codes for normal operation

A
Magenta - FMS active/engaged modes
Green - Non-FMS modes active/engaged modes
White - Armed modes
Amber - Alert condition 
Red - Abnormal condition
18
Q

What does an amber LIM on the FMA mean?

A

AT is in speed mode but speed is not achievable due to limited N1 rating

19
Q

What are the two precision approach capabilities of the plane?

A

APPR 1 or APPR 2

20
Q

How do you cancel the AP aural alert?

A

Press AP/PTY button on the stick

21
Q

When will the plane auto 1/2 bank mode

A

Aircraft altitude greater than 25,000ft in a climb

22
Q

Prior to selecting TOGA what must be set in order to see takeoff crossbar on PFD?

A

Flaps 1 or 2, W&B set, and takeoff speeds must be sent to the FMS

23
Q

What computed Takeoff speed reference is set in TO mode?

A

V2 + 15 kts (Both engines), in the case of an engine failure below v2 the speed ref will be v2

24
Q

What altitudes are associated with the ILS app. checkpoints to try and engage the highest system capability available?

A

1500ft RA & 800ft RA

25
Q

What is Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)

A

Function that can bring the plane down to a safe altitude in the ultimate scenario of cabin depress. & pilot incapacitation.

26
Q

When is EDM enabled?

A

When AP is engaged and plane is above 25,000ft

27
Q

When is EDM activated?

A

When EDM is enabled and a depress event occurs (red CABIN ALTITUDE message)

28
Q

If AP is engaged what happens to the AT when the airspeed is below top of LSA white bar?

A

Auto throttle will automatically be engaged

29
Q

What happens to AP when AOA limit function is activated?

A

AP disengages

30
Q

What phases of flight are the AT approved to operate in?

A

All phases: takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, landing, & single engine

31
Q

Purpose of HOLD mode on the AT

A

To ensure no undesirable thrust reductions are made during takeoff

32
Q

When will AT HOLD mode be activated

A

From the time the plane exceeds 60kts during takeoff roll until 400ft AGL

33
Q

Min AP engagement height

A

400ft

34
Q

Min AP use height with Vertical Path Reference

A

80ft

35
Q

Min AP use height without Vertical Path Reference

A

180ft

36
Q

When planning to land with AT engaged what is the Vref additive and how much is unfactored landing distance multiplied by?

A

5 kias, 1.1