Autacoids Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug types inhibit Histamine release?

A
  • Cromolyn Na: mast cell stabilizer
  • Catecholamines
  • Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors
  • Glucocorticoids (reduce IgE mediated histamine release from mast cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some effects of H1 agonists?

A
  • contract smooth muscle in the GI, bronchioles, uterus, large blood vessels
  • positive inotrope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F. H1 is a dilation receptor.

A

FALSE. constriction receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some effects of H2 agonists?

A

gastric acid secretion, positive inotrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F. A histamine antagonist is the same as an antihistamine.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First generation H1 antagonists have a (sedating/non-sedating) effect and (do/do not) cross the BBB.

A
  • sedation effect

- DO cross the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Second generation H1 antagonists have a (sedating/non-sedating) effect and (do/do not) cross the BBB.

A
  • no sedation effect

- do NOT cross the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the route of administration of H1 antagonists?

A

per os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would you use an H1 antagonist for?

A

allergies, anaphylaxis, motion sickness, antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which H1 antagonist would you use for motion sickness? As an antiemetic?

A
  • motion sickness: Meclizine (Dramamine)

- antiemetic: Diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F. H2 Antagonists are prescription only.

A

False, they are OTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the method of action of H2 antagonists?

A

competitive antagonists at H2 receptors

they block HCl secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 4 H2 antagonists.

A

Cimetidine
Ranitidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which H2 antagonist is used to treat EQUINE MELANOMAS? Why?

A

Cimetidine d/t immunomodulatory efect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which 2 H2 antagonists are GI pro kinetics?

A

Ranitidine, Nizatidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are H2 antagonists used to treat, typically?

A

peptic and duodenal ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux, erosive gastric disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Cisapride?

A
a Serotonin (5HT) Agonist
-5HT4 receptor agonist, prokinetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many days does Fluoxetine take to work for aggression? for depression?

A

Aggression - 4 days

Depression - 3-4 weeks

19
Q

What is the mode of action of Fluoxetine? What is it typically used to treat?

A

SSRI (increases serotonin in brain)

it is an antidepressant used for separation anxiety

20
Q

Cyproheptadine, Ondansetron, Metoclopramide, Mirtazapine are examples of…

A

Serotonin(5HT) Antagonists

21
Q

Which drug is used to treat serotonin syndrome in dogs and cats?

A

Cyproheptadine

22
Q

Which serotonin antagonist would you use to stimulate appetite?

A

Cyproheptadine

23
Q

What is a common function of serotonin antagonists?

A

antiemetics

24
Q

Which drug is a SARI (serotonin antagonist repute inhibitor)?

A

Trazadone (antidepressant)

25
Q

What does Trazadone do? What is it used for?

A
  • increases serotonin levels in the brain

- extra-label in dogs and cats for anxiety-related problems (blocks alpha receptors and can cause hypotension)

26
Q

Which drug is a neurokinin antagonist?

A

Maropitant citrate (Cerenia)

27
Q

What is the MOA of Cerenia?

A

blocks NK1 receptors and inhibits release of substance P

28
Q

What is Cerenia used for? What species?

A
  • prevent acute vomiting d/t motion sickness, viral infection, or chemotherapy
  • DOGS ONLY (tablet or injection)
29
Q

What are 4 cause of renin secretion?

A

1) decrease BP
2) low RBF
3) decrease in Na and Cl
4) B1 receptor stimulation

30
Q

Renin is inhibited by… (5)

A

1) Angiotensin II
2) ADH
3) increased BP
4) increase in Na reabsorption
5) Beta blockers

31
Q

Losartan is a….

A

Angiotensin II Antagonist

32
Q

List 4 ACE inhibitors

A

Enalapril, Captopril, Lisinopril, Benazepril

33
Q

What is Misoprostol? What is it used for?

A
  • synthetic prostaglandin E1

- GI cytoprotection and decreases acid secretion –> anti-ulcer drug

34
Q

What is Latanoprost used for?

A

used topically on eye to treat open angle glaucoma or ocular hypertension

35
Q

What is Latanoprost?

A

Prostaglandin agonist

36
Q

Galliprant is…

A

prostaglandin antagonist

37
Q

Which drugs are PG inhibitors?

A
  • NSAIDs (cyclooxygenase inhibitors)

- corticosteroids (phospholipase A2 inhibitors)

38
Q

What do you use Galliprant to treat?

A

osteoarthritis, pain, and inflammation in DOGS

39
Q

What do leukotriene inhibitors do? What are 2 examples?

A

prevent bronchoconstriction in bronchial asthma

-Zafirlukast, Zileuton

40
Q

What are Zafirlukast and Zileuton?

A

leukotriene inhibitors

41
Q

Which leukotriene inhibitors is indicated for use in CATS?

A

Zafirlukast

42
Q

Which JAK inhibitor did we learn?

A

Oclacitinib/Apoquel

43
Q

What is Oclactinib/apoquel used for?

A

-control puritis associated with allergic dermatitis and atopic dermatitis in dogs over 1 year old

44
Q

T/F. Apoquel is the drug of choice to treat puritis due to allergic dermatitis.

A

False. LAST RESORT!