AUD 6 - Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Threats to compliance. What is defined as the threat that a member will not act with objectivity b/c the member’s interest are opposed to the interests of the client?

A

Adverse interest threat

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2
Q

Adverse interest threat = lose _______

A

objectivity

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3
Q

Advocacy threat = compromise _______

A

standards

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4
Q

Familiarity threat = _______

A

sympathetic

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5
Q

Management participation threat = acting as _______

A

management

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6
Q

Self-interest threat = _______

A

benefits

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7
Q

What is defined as the threat that a member will promote the interests of the client or employing organization to the point that his or her objectivity or independence, as applicable, is compromised?

A

Advocacy threat

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8
Q

What is defined as the threat that, due to a long or close relationship w/ the client, a member will become too accepting of the product or service and too sympathetic to the client’s interests?

A

Familiarity threat

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9
Q

What is defined as the threat that a member will take on the role of client management or otherwise assume management responsibilities?

A

Management participation threat

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10
Q

What is defined as the threat that a member could benefit financially or otherwise from an interest in, or relationship with, a client, or persons associated with the client?

A

Self-interest threat

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11
Q

What is defined as the threat that a member will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment made, or service performed or supervised, by the member or an individual in the member’s firm, and that the member will rely on that service in forming a judgment as part of another service?

A

Self-review threat

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12
Q

Self-review threat = evaluate ___ _____

A

own work

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13
Q

What is defined as the threat that a member will subordinate his judgment to an individual associated w/ a client or any relevant third party due to that individual’s reputation or expertise, aggressive or dominant personality, or attempts to coerce or exercise excessive influence over the member?

A

Undue influence threat

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14
Q

Undue influence threat = subordinate _______

A

judgment

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15
Q

What is the first thing you do in the conceptual framework approach

A

Id threats to compliance w/ the fundamental principles

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16
Q

In the conceptual framework approach, what is the second step after identifying threats to compliance?

A

Evaluate significance of threat

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17
Q

In the conceptual framework approach, what is the final step?

A

Apply safeguards to eliminate threats or reduce threats to an acceptable level, whenever possible

18
Q

Under the IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants, the engagement partner and the individual responsible for the engagement quality control review should be rotated off the audit engagement team for a public company after no more than how many years?

A

7 years

19
Q

To exercise due professional care, a CPA must:

I. Posses the same degree of skill commonly possessed by others in the field
II. Critically review work done and judgment exercised by others assisting in the engagement

A

Both I and II

20
Q

In computerized environments, what five functions should be kept separate (COPAL)?

A
Control group
Operators
Programmer
Analyst
Librarian
21
Q

What does CAAT stand for?

A

Computer-assisted audit techniques

22
Q

Are manual or computer assisted audit techniques more appropriate for simple batch systems with good audit trails?

A

Manual audit procedures (e.g. “auditing around the computer”)

23
Q

What are two key risks with “auditing around the computer”?

A
  • Insufficient paper-based evidence

- Insufficient audit procedures

24
Q

What term describes the following:

Electronically marks a transaction and allows the auditor to follow it through the client’s system

A

Transaction tagging

25
Q

What term describes the following:

Application program collects transaction data for the auditor; the auditor must be involved with the program design

A

Embedded audit modules

26
Q

What term describes the following:

Uses application program to process test data, the results of which are already known (client system, offline)

A

Test deck (test data)

27
Q

What term describes the following:

Test data is commingled with live data (client system, auditor’s data, online)

A

Integrated test facility (ITF)

28
Q

What term describes the following:

The auditor reprocesses some or all of the client’s live data and compares the results with client files (auditor’s system, client data)

A

Parallel simulation (reperformance test)

29
Q

What term describes the following:

Allow the auditor to perform tests of controls and substantive tests directly on the client’s system

A

Generalized audit software package (GASP)

30
Q

What does GASP stand for?

A

Generalized audit software packages

31
Q

Effective security controls implementation enhances segregation of duties. Why is that?

A

ARC becomes COPAL

EXPLANATION: Authorization, record keeping, and custody become Control group, operations, programmer, analyst, and librarian.

32
Q

How do you assess control risk in a computerized environment?

A
  • Inquiry
  • Inspection
  • Observation
  • Reperformance
33
Q

How do you calculate net profit margin?

A

= net income / net sales

34
Q

How do you calculate net operating margin percentage?

A

= net operating income / net sales

35
Q

How do you calculate gross profit margin percentage?

A

= gross profit margin / net sales

36
Q

How do you calculate return on total assets?

A

= net income/ avg. total assets

37
Q

How do you calculate the debt-to-equity ratio?

A

= total liabilities / common SE

38
Q

How do you calculate the debt ratio?

A

= total liabilities / total assets

39
Q

What is GAGAS also referred to as?

A

Yellow Book

40
Q

GAGAS includes designing the audit to provide reasonable assurance of detecting MM resulting from _____.

A

Noncompliance