AUBF PRELIMSSH Flashcards

1
Q

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary
excretion of
a. Phenylalanine
b. Homogentisic acid
c. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
d. Tyrosine

A

Homogentisic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A patient collecting a midstream clean-catch specimen voids immediately
into the container. How could this affect the clarity and microscopic
examination of the specimen?
. There is no effect in the clarity and microscopic results
b. The specimen becomes turbid because of bacteria and renal tubular
epithelial cells
c. The specimen becomes turbid because of bacteria and squamous epithelial cells.
d. The specimen becomes turbid because of RBCs and WBCs

A

The specimen becomes turbid because of bacteria and squamous epithelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent multiplier system depends on all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Reabsorption of water in the ascending loop of Henle
b. Water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop of Henle
c. Reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the ascending loop of
Henle
d. High salt concentration in the medulla

A

Reabsorption of water in the ascending loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Urine osmolality is related to:
a. odor
b. specific gravity
c. volume
d. pH

A

b. specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the required amount of Benedict’
s reagent in Benedict’s test?
a. 5 ml
b. 8 ml
c. 10 ml
d. 2 ml

A

a. 5 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Isosthenuria is a term applied to a series of urine specimens that exhibit a
a. Specific gravity greater than 1.020
b. Specific gravity of exactly 1.000
c. Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010
d. Specific gravity less than 1.007

A

Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The purpose of routinely screening DM patients for microalbuminuria is to
monitor the development of:
a. renal disease
b. diabetes insipidus
c. UTI
d. Yeast infection

A

a. renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The urine specimen submitted has 10-15 RBCs per high power field but the result for blood using a reagent strip is negative. The results can be because
of
a. diuretics
b. ascorbic acid
c. high blood pressure medicines 
d. dilute urine

A

b. ascorbic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For active transport to occur, a chemical must
a. be in higher concentration in the filtrate than in the blood
b. be filtered through the proximal convoluted tubule
c. be in higher concentration in the blood than in the filtrate
d. combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

A

combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Presence of leucine crystals in urine correlates with:
a. Phenylketonuria
b. Alkaptonuria
c. Cystinuria
d. MSUD

A

d. MSUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Confirmatory test for bilirubin
a. Ictotest
b. Schwartz-Watson test
c. Ammonium Blondheim test
d. Acetest

A

a. Ictotest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What may cause a false positive reading in protein testing using a reagent
strip?
a. Dilute urine
b. pH is greater than 8.0
c. Vitamin C concentration is greater than 0.5 g per day
d. Turbid urine

A

b. pH is greater than 8.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 2 year-old child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be
caused by:
a. Anemia
b. Biliary tract obstruction
c. Vomiting
d. Hypoglycemia

A

c. Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When employing the Exton method, false positive protein result may occur in
the presence of:
a. Highly alkaline urine
b. Large amounts of glucose
c. Ascorbic acid
d. X ray contrast media

A

: X ray contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is
a. osmolarity
b. sp gr
c. GFR
d. tubular reabsorption rate

A

a. osmolarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two pathologic causes of a clear red urine?
a. Hematuria and hemoglobinuria
b. Myoglobinuria and hemoglobinuria
c. Ketonuria and hematuria
d. Bilirubinuria and myoglobinuria

A

b. Myoglobinuria and hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The discrepancy between the large amount of blood in the reagent strip and
the absence of RBCs microscopically is caused by:
a. Presence of ascorbic acid
b. Presence of myoglobin in the urine
c. Failure to mix urine before centrifugation
d. Contaminating oxidizing detergents in the container

A

c. Failure to mix urine before centrifugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following specific gravity reading correlates with straw urine?
a. 1.005
b. 1.025
c. 1.015
d. 1.035

A

a. 1.005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient’s urinalysis revealed negative bilirubin and a 4+- urobilinogen level.
These results are associated with:
a. UTI
b. Hemolytic diseases
c. Biliary obstruction
d. Hepatic disease

A

b. Hemolytic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following amino acid disorders is an overflow-inherited type?
a. Cystinuria
b. Melanuria
c. Cystinosis
d. Hartnup

A

c. Cystinosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following conditions can result in false-positive bilirubin results?
a. Ingestion of certain medications
b. Exposure to direct light
c. Ingestion of ascorbic acid
d. Improper storage of the specimen

A

a. Ingestion of certain medications

22
Q

Reading time for glucose is
a. 40 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds

A

30 seconds

23
Q

Which of the following is a tryptophan disorder?
a. Cystinuria
b. Indicanuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Alkaptonuria

A

b. Indicanuria

24
Q

What is the primary goal of OSHA?
a. Provide all employees with health benefits.
b. Provide all employees with day off.
c. Provide all employees with enough salary.
d. Provide all employees with a safe work environment.

A

Provide all employees with a safe work environment.

25
What is the principle involved in nitrite test using a reagent strip? a. Griess reaction b. Pseudoperoxidase reaction c. Peroxidase reaction d. Ehrlich reactio
Griess reaction
26
A patient admitted following an accident involving massive crush injuries has the following urine chemistry results: Red brown Clear Sp gr: 1.015 pH: 6.0 protein 1 +- Glucose Negative, Blood Large, Ketones Negative, Nitrite Negative, Leukocytes negative, Bilirubin negative, urobilinogen negative. Which of the following conditions correlates with the result? a. renal tubular acidosis  b. liver disease c. urinary tract infection d. myoglobinuria
myoglobinuria
27
A urine specimen that exhibits white foam on being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of a. Bilirubin b. Protein c. Nitrite d. Hemoglobin
b. Protein
28
Osmolality is a measure of: a. Total salt concentration b. Undissociated molecules only c. Dissolved particles, including ions d. Molecule size
c. Dissolved particles, including ions 
29
Possible cause of glycosuria: a. renal tubular dysfunction b. increased GFR c. hypoglycemia d. increased renal threshold
a. renal tubular dysfunction
30
The test which differentiates urobilinogen and porphobilinogen a. Ammonium Blondheim test b. Ictotest c. Schwartz-Watson test d. Acetest
c. Schwartz-Watson test
31
31
The reagent in the Multistix reaction for blood is: a. A diazonium salt b. Hoesch reagent c. Tetramethylbenzidine d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
a. A diazonium salt
32
Which of the following pairs of metabolic condition and urine odor is correctly matched? a. Isovaleric acidemia- sweaty feet b. Trimethylaminuria- mousy c. Tyrosinemia- sulfur d. Phenylketonuria- rotting fish
a. Isovaleric acidemia- sweaty feet
33
33
What are the screening tests for UTI? a. Bilirubin and urobilinogen b. pH and ketone bodies c. Blood and leukocytes d. Nitrite and leukocytes
d. Nitrite and leukocytes
34
What are the two enzymes utilized in Double sequential reaction for glucose? a. Reductase and Peroxidase b. Reductase and Oxidase c. Lactase and Reductase d. Oxidase and Peroxidase
d. Oxidase and Peroxidase
35
The urine sample from a 24-year-old woman is milky, this correlates with: a. pyuria b. hematuria c. proteinuria d. bilirubinuria
a. pyuria
36
Which of the following reagent strip tests can be affected by ascorbic acid, resulting in falsely low or false-negative results? a. Blood, pH, Glucose, Nitrite, Specific gravity b. Blood, Bilirubin, Glucose, Nitrite, Leukocytes c. Protein, Bilirubin, Glucose, Nitrite, pH d. Bilirubin, Urobilinogen, Glucose, Ketone bodies, Leukocyte
Blood, Bilirubin, Glucose, Nitrite, Leukocytes
37
Which of the following results show characteristic urine findings from a patient with an obstruction of the bile duct? a. A negative test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen b. A positive test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen c. A negative test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen d. A positive test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen
A positive test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen
38
The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is: a. A diazonium salt b. Hoesch reagent c. Tetramethylbenzidine d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
39
Which of the following is NOT analyzed in urine specimen? a. Uroporphyrin b. Aminolevulinic acid c. Porphobilinogen d. Protoporphyrin
b. Aminolevulinic acid
40
Excess urine on the reagent strip can turn a normal pH result into a falsely acidic pH when which of the following reagents runs into the pH pad? a. Citrate buffer b. Tetrabromphenol blue c. Glucose oxidase d. Copper sulfate
a. Citrate buffer
41
Which of the following is NOT done by a collector during urine specimen collection for drug testing? a. Read the specimen temp b. Fill out a chain of custody form c. Inspect the specimen color d. Perform reagent strip testing
d. Perform reagent strip testing
42
Which of the following color and likely cause is correctly matched? a. orange-Pyridium b. Blue: homogentisic acid c. Brown-black: Bilirubin d. Straw: urobilin
a. orange-Pyridium
43
Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include: a. serum creatinine, age, sex, race b. Serum creatinine, urine creatinine, Weight, age c. serum creatinine, urine creatinine, age, sex d. Age, weight, sex, serum creatinine
a. serum creatinine, age, sex, race
44
A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose by reagent strip and Benedicts test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretations is correct? a. Lactose is NOT present b. Glucose is present c. Galactose is present d. Sucrose is NOT present
b. Glucose is present
45
Presence of pink in the reagent strip indicates presence of: a. Ketone bodies b. Nitrite c. Glucose d. Bilirubin
a. Ketone bodies
46
A urine specimen comes to the laboratory eight hours after it is collected. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored: a. At room temperature b. In the refrigerator at 4-7 degrees Celsius c. Frozen d. With formalin preservative
b. In the refrigerator at 4-7 degrees Celsius
47
The physician wants to determine if the fluid collected during an abdominal surgery could be urine. The specimen should be tested for a. odor and clarity b. protein and glucose c. urea and creatinine d. bacterial culture
c. urea and creatinine 
48
Which of the following is hyperosmolar? a. renal cortex b. glomerulus c. proximal convoluted tubules d. renal medulla
d. renal medulla
49
Which of the following is detected by Obermayer+IBk-s test? a. Muccopolysaccharides b. 5 HIAA c. Indican d. Porphyrin
b. 5 HIAA