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AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Inventors of microscope are credited to ___ and ___ and its use started with ___

A

Galileo Galilei, Zacharias Janssen, Anton Van Leuwenhoek

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2
Q

type of microscope that has single biconvex magnifying lens

A

simple microscope

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3
Q

type of microscope that has two or more lenses

A

compound microscope

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4
Q

lenses of microscopes are cleaned with __ or __

A

xylene or 95% alchocol

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5
Q

__ is when images remain in focus even after shifting from one objective to another

A

parfocal

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6
Q

Recommend capacity of urine container is __ mL

A

50 mL

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7
Q

volume of specimen needed for microscopic analysis is __ mL

A

12 mL

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8
Q

details for labeling urine specimen include?

A

name, identification number, date and time of collection.
others may include age, location, and healthcare providers name.

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9
Q

labels are attached to?

A

container, not to the lid

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10
Q

specimen rejection

A

unlabeled containers

nonmatching labels and requestion form

contaminated with feces or toilet paper

contaminated with exteriors

insufficient quantity

improperly transported

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11
Q

urine specimens should be transported within __ hours

A

2 hours

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12
Q

urine preservation through refigeration is held at __ to __C

A

2 - 8C

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13
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

color

causes -

A

darkened

oxidation or reduction of metabolites

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14
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

clarity

causes -

A

decreased

bacterial growth and precipitation of amorphous material

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15
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

odor

causes -

A

increased

bacterial multiplication causing breakdown of urea to ammonia

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16
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

pH

causes -

A

increased

breakdown of urea to ammonia by urease-producing bacteria / loss of CO2

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17
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

glucose

causes -

A

decreased

glycolysis and bacterial use

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18
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

ketones

causes -

A

decreased

volatilization and bacterial metabolism

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19
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

bilirubin

causes -

A

decreased

exposure to light / photo oxidation to biliverdin

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20
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

urobilinogen

causes -

A

decreased

oxidation to urobilin

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21
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

nitrite

causes -

A

increased

multiplication of nitrite-reducing bacteria

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22
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

RBC and WBC

causes -

A

decreased

disintegration in dilute alkaline urine

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23
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

bacteria

causes -

A

increased

multiplication

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24
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

trichomonas

causes -

A

decreased

loss of motility; death

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25
Q

refrigeration:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

does not interfere with chemical test

precipitates amorphous urates and phosphates

prevents bacterial growth for 24 hours

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26
Q

boric acid:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

prevents bacterial growth and metabolism

interferes with drug hormone and analysis

keeps pH at about 6.0. Can be used for urine culture transport

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27
Q

formalin:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

excellent sediment preservative

acts as reducing agent; interferes with chemical test for glucose, blood, LE, and copper reduction

rinse specimen container with formalin to preserve cells and casts

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28
Q

sodium fluoride

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

good preservative for drug analyses

inhibits reagent strip steps for glucose, blood, luekocytes

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29
Q

Commercial preservative tablets:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

convenient when refrigeration is not possible

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30
Q

most commonly received specimen

used for __

A

random specimen

routine screening

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31
Q

it is a concentrated specimen

used for __, __, __

A

routine screening, pregnancy tests, orthostatic protein

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32
Q

type of specimen where the patient should begin and end with an empty bladder

used for __

A

24-hour (timed)

quantitative chemical test

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33
Q

specimen is collected under sterile conditions by passing a hollow tube (catheter) through urethra into bladder

used for __

A

catheterized

bacterial culture

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34
Q

Alternative to catheterized specimen. it provides safer, less traumatic.

used for __ and __

A

midstream clean-catch specimen

routine screening and bacterial culture

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35
Q

external introduction of a needle through the abdomen into the bladder.

used for __ and __

A

suprapubic aspiration

bacterial culture and cytology

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36
Q

first urine is collected in sterile container and midstream portion is collected in another container. the prostate is then massaged. then, the remaining urine is collected into the 3rd container.

used for __

A

three-glass collection

prostatic infection

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37
Q

yellow color of urine is caused by the pigment called __

A

urochrome

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38
Q

___ is pink pigment, most evident in specimens that have been refrigerated. resulting in the precipitation of amorphous __

A

uroerythrin, amorphous urates

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39
Q

__ is an oxidation product of the normal urinary constituent urobilinogen that causes orange-brown color.

associated with amorphous __

A

urobilin, amorphous phosphate

40
Q

clarity:

no visible particulates, transparent

41
Q

clarity:

few particulates, print easily seen through urine

42
Q

clarity:

many particulates, print blurred through urine

43
Q

clarity:

print cannot be seen through urine

44
Q

clarity:

may precipitate or be clotted

45
Q

__ and __ produced a white precipitate in urine with alkaline pH

A

amorphous phosphate and carbonate

46
Q

__ is produced precipitate in acidic urine

A

amorphous urate

47
Q

urine with a specific gravity of 1.010

A

isosthenuric

48
Q

specimens below 1.010

A

hyposthenuric

49
Q

specimens above 1.010

A

hypersthenuric

50
Q

normal random specimens’ specific gravity ranges at __ to __

A

1.015 to 1.030

51
Q

defined as the density of a solution compared with the density of a similar volume of distilled water (SG 1.000) at a similar temperature.

A

specific gravity

52
Q

determines the concentration of dissolved particles in a specimen by measuring refractive index.

A

refractometry

53
Q

__ is a comparison of the velocity of light in air with the velocity of light in a solution

A

refractive index

54
Q

corrections:

glucose __
protein __

A

0.004

0.003

55
Q

white foam in urine after vigorous shaking indicates __

56
Q

yellow foam or yellow green foam in urine after vigorous shaking of urine indicates

57
Q

green foam in urine after vigorous shaking indicates

A

biliverdin

58
Q

odor:

normal odor of urine

A

aromatic like

59
Q

odor:

bacterial decomposition, UTI

A

foul, ammonia like

60
Q

odor:

ketones (diabetes mellitus)

A

fruity, sweet

61
Q

odor:

MSUD

A

maple syrup

62
Q

odor:

phenylketonuria

A

mousy or musty

63
Q

odor:

isovaleric anemia

A

rancid bitter

64
Q

odor:

methionine absorption

65
Q

excess urine on the strip after removal may affect other pads and cause misinterpretation of results

A

run-over effect

65
Q

odor:

contamination

66
Q

storage temperature should be below __C

67
Q

___ ___should be labelled after opening the container

A

date opened

68
Q

__ is a double indicator system of methyl red and bromothymol blue

69
Q

methyl red + H+ -> bromothymol blue - H+

(red orange -> yellow) –> (green -> blue)

70
Q

reaction based on the phenomenon known as “protein error” of pH indicators

indicator + protein (yellow)
—>
protein + H+, protein - H+ (blue-green)

71
Q

first morning specimens are slightly acidic at __ to __

A

5.0 to 6.0

72
Q

post-prandial samples are usually __

73
Q

normal pH range for urine is __ to __

A

4.5 to 8.0

74
Q

pH of more than __ is interpreted as an improperly preserved sample

75
Q

___ type of urine

diabetes mellitus
starvation
dehydration
diarrhea
presence of E. coli
high-protein diet
cranberry diet

76
Q

___ type of urine

diabetes mellitus
starvation
dehydration
diarrhea
presence of E. coli
high-protein diet
cranberry diet

77
Q

___ type of urine

hyperventilation
vomiting
renal tubular acidosis
presence of urease producing bacteria
vegetarian diet
old specimens

78
Q

primary protein concerned is ___

79
Q

uromodulin

A

Tamm-Horsfall

80
Q

clinical proteinuria is of __ mg/dL or __ mg/24h

81
Q

normal amount excreted is less than __ mg/dL or __ mg/24h

82
Q

conditions affecting the plasma, not the kidney

A

pre-renal proteinuria

83
Q

glomerular or tubular damage

A

renal proteinuria

84
Q

microbial infections
menstrual contamination
semen/prostatic fluid
vaginal secretions
traumatic injury

A

post-renal proteinuria

85
Q

renal threshold for glucose is __mg/dL to __ mg/dL

A

160 to 180

86
Q

intact RBC. Cloudy urine

87
Q

clear red urine

A

hemoglobinuria

88
Q

renal calculi
glomerular disease
tumors
trauma
pyelonephritis
anticoagulants

89
Q

transfusion reactions
hemolytic anemias
severe burns
infections/malaria
strenuous exercise
hemosiderin

A

hemoglobinuria

90
Q

rhabdomyolysis
muscle trauma/crush syndromes
prolonged coma
convulsions
muscle-wasting diseases
drug abuse
alcoholism
extensive exertion

A

myoglobinuria

91
Q

____ can be used as an early indicator of liver disease

92
Q

what gives the feces its color

A

stercobilin

93
Q

___ appears in the urine with bile duct destruction, love disease or damage which causes bilirubin to back up into circulation and is excreted into the urine. Thus, urobilinogen is absent in the urine.

A

post-hepatic bilirubin

94
Q

hepatitis and cirrhosis conjugated bilirubin leaks back into circulation from the damaged liver and some passes to the intestine

A

hepatic bilirubin

95
Q

in hemolytic disease, the increase of unconjugated bilirubin is due to the RBC lysis and indicated by the presence of urobilinogen in the urine

A

pre-hepatic bilirubin

96
Q

bilirubin in the intestine is converted to __ and __

A

urobilinogen, stercobilinogen

3rd Year (7 decks)

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