AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Inventors of microscope are credited to ___ and ___ and its use started with ___

A

Galileo Galilei, Zacharias Janssen, Anton Van Leuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

type of microscope that has single biconvex magnifying lens

A

simple microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

type of microscope that has two or more lenses

A

compound microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lenses of microscopes are cleaned with __ or __

A

xylene or 95% alchocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

__ is when images remain in focus even after shifting from one objective to another

A

parfocal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recommend capacity of urine container is __ mL

A

50 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

volume of specimen needed for microscopic analysis is __ mL

A

12 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

details for labeling urine specimen include?

A

name, identification number, date and time of collection.
others may include age, location, and healthcare providers name.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

labels are attached to?

A

container, not to the lid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

specimen rejection

A

unlabeled containers

nonmatching labels and requestion form

contaminated with feces or toilet paper

contaminated with exteriors

insufficient quantity

improperly transported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

urine specimens should be transported within __ hours

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

urine preservation through refigeration is held at __ to __C

A

2 - 8C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

color

causes -

A

darkened

oxidation or reduction of metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

clarity

causes -

A

decreased

bacterial growth and precipitation of amorphous material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

odor

causes -

A

increased

bacterial multiplication causing breakdown of urea to ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

pH

causes -

A

increased

breakdown of urea to ammonia by urease-producing bacteria / loss of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

glucose

causes -

A

decreased

glycolysis and bacterial use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

ketones

causes -

A

decreased

volatilization and bacterial metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

bilirubin

causes -

A

decreased

exposure to light / photo oxidation to biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

urobilinogen

causes -

A

decreased

oxidation to urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

nitrite

causes -

A

increased

multiplication of nitrite-reducing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

RBC and WBC

causes -

A

decreased

disintegration in dilute alkaline urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

bacteria

causes -

A

increased

multiplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

changes in unpreserved urine:

trichomonas

causes -

A

decreased

loss of motility; death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

refrigeration:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

does not interfere with chemical test

precipitates amorphous urates and phosphates

prevents bacterial growth for 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

boric acid:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

prevents bacterial growth and metabolism

interferes with drug hormone and analysis

keeps pH at about 6.0. Can be used for urine culture transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

formalin:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

excellent sediment preservative

acts as reducing agent; interferes with chemical test for glucose, blood, LE, and copper reduction

rinse specimen container with formalin to preserve cells and casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sodium fluoride

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

good preservative for drug analyses

inhibits reagent strip steps for glucose, blood, luekocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Commercial preservative tablets:

advantages

disadvantages

additional info

A

convenient when refrigeration is not possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most commonly received specimen

used for __

A

random specimen

routine screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

it is a concentrated specimen

used for __, __, __

A

routine screening, pregnancy tests, orthostatic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

type of specimen where the patient should begin and end with an empty bladder

used for __

A

24-hour (timed)

quantitative chemical test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

specimen is collected under sterile conditions by passing a hollow tube (catheter) through urethra into bladder

used for __

A

catheterized

bacterial culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Alternative to catheterized specimen. it provides safer, less traumatic.

used for __ and __

A

midstream clean-catch specimen

routine screening and bacterial culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

external introduction of a needle through the abdomen into the bladder.

used for __ and __

A

suprapubic aspiration

bacterial culture and cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

first urine is collected in sterile container and midstream portion is collected in another container. the prostate is then massaged. then, the remaining urine is collected into the 3rd container.

used for __

A

three-glass collection

prostatic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

yellow color of urine is caused by the pigment called __

A

urochrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

___ is pink pigment, most evident in specimens that have been refrigerated. resulting in the precipitation of amorphous __

A

uroerythrin, amorphous urates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

__ is an oxidation product of the normal urinary constituent urobilinogen that causes orange-brown color.

associated with amorphous __

A

urobilin, amorphous phosphate

40
Q

clarity:

no visible particulates, transparent

A

clear

41
Q

clarity:

few particulates, print easily seen through urine

A

hazy

42
Q

clarity:

many particulates, print blurred through urine

A

cloudy

43
Q

clarity:

print cannot be seen through urine

A

turbidity

44
Q

clarity:

may precipitate or be clotted

A

milky

45
Q

__ and __ produced a white precipitate in urine with alkaline pH

A

amorphous phosphate and carbonate

46
Q

__ is produced precipitate in acidic urine

A

amorphous urate

47
Q

urine with a specific gravity of 1.010

A

isosthenuric

48
Q

specimens below 1.010

A

hyposthenuric

49
Q

specimens above 1.010

A

hypersthenuric

50
Q

normal random specimens’ specific gravity ranges at __ to __

A

1.015 to 1.030

51
Q

defined as the density of a solution compared with the density of a similar volume of distilled water (SG 1.000) at a similar temperature.

A

specific gravity

52
Q

determines the concentration of dissolved particles in a specimen by measuring refractive index.

A

refractometry

53
Q

__ is a comparison of the velocity of light in air with the velocity of light in a solution

A

refractive index

54
Q

corrections:

glucose __
protein __

A

0.004

0.003

55
Q

white foam in urine after vigorous shaking indicates __

A

protein

56
Q

yellow foam or yellow green foam in urine after vigorous shaking of urine indicates

A

bilirubin

57
Q

green foam in urine after vigorous shaking indicates

A

biliverdin

58
Q

odor:

normal odor of urine

A

aromatic like

59
Q

odor:

bacterial decomposition, UTI

A

foul, ammonia like

60
Q

odor:

ketones (diabetes mellitus)

A

fruity, sweet

61
Q

odor:

MSUD

A

maple syrup

62
Q

odor:

phenylketonuria

A

mousy or musty

63
Q

odor:

isovaleric anemia

A

rancid bitter

64
Q

odor:

methionine absorption

A

cabbage

65
Q

excess urine on the strip after removal may affect other pads and cause misinterpretation of results

A

run-over effect

65
Q

odor:

contamination

A

bleach

66
Q

storage temperature should be below __C

A

30C

67
Q

___ ___should be labelled after opening the container

A

date opened

68
Q

__ is a double indicator system of methyl red and bromothymol blue

A

pH

69
Q

methyl red + H+ -> bromothymol blue - H+

(red orange -> yellow) –> (green -> blue)

A

pH

70
Q

reaction based on the phenomenon known as “protein error” of pH indicators

indicator + protein (yellow)
—>
protein + H+, protein - H+ (blue-green)

A

protein

71
Q

first morning specimens are slightly acidic at __ to __

A

5.0 to 6.0

72
Q

post-prandial samples are usually __

A

alkaline

73
Q

normal pH range for urine is __ to __

A

4.5 to 8.0

74
Q

pH of more than __ is interpreted as an improperly preserved sample

A

8.5

75
Q

___ type of urine

diabetes mellitus
starvation
dehydration
diarrhea
presence of E. coli
high-protein diet
cranberry diet

A

acidid

76
Q

___ type of urine

diabetes mellitus
starvation
dehydration
diarrhea
presence of E. coli
high-protein diet
cranberry diet

A

acidic

77
Q

___ type of urine

hyperventilation
vomiting
renal tubular acidosis
presence of urease producing bacteria
vegetarian diet
old specimens

A

alkaline

78
Q

primary protein concerned is ___

A

albumin

79
Q

uromodulin

A

Tamm-Horsfall

80
Q

clinical proteinuria is of __ mg/dL or __ mg/24h

A

30, 300

81
Q

normal amount excreted is less than __ mg/dL or __ mg/24h

A

10, 100

82
Q

conditions affecting the plasma, not the kidney

A

pre-renal proteinuria

83
Q

glomerular or tubular damage

A

renal proteinuria

84
Q

microbial infections
menstrual contamination
semen/prostatic fluid
vaginal secretions
traumatic injury

A

post-renal proteinuria

85
Q

renal threshold for glucose is __mg/dL to __ mg/dL

A

160 to 180

86
Q

intact RBC. Cloudy urine

A

hematuria

87
Q

clear red urine

A

hemoglobinuria

88
Q

renal calculi
glomerular disease
tumors
trauma
pyelonephritis
anticoagulants

A

hematuria

89
Q

transfusion reactions
hemolytic anemias
severe burns
infections/malaria
strenuous exercise
hemosiderin

A

hemoglobinuria

90
Q

rhabdomyolysis
muscle trauma/crush syndromes
prolonged coma
convulsions
muscle-wasting diseases
drug abuse
alcoholism
extensive exertion

A

myoglobinuria

91
Q

____ can be used as an early indicator of liver disease

A

bilirubin

92
Q

what gives the feces its color

A

stercobilin

93
Q

___ appears in the urine with bile duct destruction, love disease or damage which causes bilirubin to back up into circulation and is excreted into the urine. Thus, urobilinogen is absent in the urine.

A

post-hepatic bilirubin

94
Q

hepatitis and cirrhosis conjugated bilirubin leaks back into circulation from the damaged liver and some passes to the intestine

A

hepatic bilirubin

95
Q

in hemolytic disease, the increase of unconjugated bilirubin is due to the RBC lysis and indicated by the presence of urobilinogen in the urine

A

pre-hepatic bilirubin

96
Q

bilirubin in the intestine is converted to __ and __

A

urobilinogen, stercobilinogen