Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pulmonology > Asthma > Flashcards

Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

anti-inflammatory cytokines;

may be deficient in asthma

A

IL-10 and IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

anti-inflammatory cytokines;

may be deficient in asthma

A

IL-10 and IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

upstream cytokine released from epithelial cells of asthmatics that orchestrates the release of chemokines that selectively attract TH2 cells

A

Thymic stromal lymphopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

selectively attractant to eosinophils via CCR3 and is expressed by epithelial cells of asthmatics

A

Eotaxin

CCL11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

expressed by epithelial cells of asthmatics attract TH2 cells via CCR4

A

CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

expressed by epithelial cells of asthmatics attract TH2 cells via CCR4

A

CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Proinflammatory transcription factors activated in asthmatic airways

A

nuclear factor-B (NF-B)

activator protein-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Proinflammatory transcription factors activated in asthmatic airways

A

nuclear factor-B (NF-B)

activator protein-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

transcription factors regulate the expression of TH2 cytokines in T cells

A

nuclear factor of activated T cells

GATA-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

transcription factors regulate the expression of TH2 cytokines in T cells

A

nuclear factor of activated T cells

GATA-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bronchoconstrictor mediators released in asthma

A

Chemokines
Histamines
Leukotrienes
Prostaglandin D2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

physiologic abnormality of asthma:

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bronchoconstrictor mediators released in asthma

A 
histamine, 
prostaglandin D2, 
Cysteinyl leukotrienes, 
cytokines, chemokines, 
growth factors, 
neutrotropins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

physiologic abnormality of asthma:

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mech for basement membrane thickening in asthmatic patients

A

subepithelial fibrosis

deposition of types III and V collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mech for basement membrane thickening in asthmatic patients

A

subepithelial fibrosis

deposition of types III and V collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How epithelial damage may contribute to AHR

A

1) loss of its barrier function to allow penetration of allergens;
2) loss of enzymes (such as neutral endopeptidase) that degrade certain peptide inflammatory mediators;
3) loss of a relaxant factor (so called epithelial-derived relaxant factor);
4) exposure of sensory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How epithelial damage may contribute to AHR

A

1) loss of its barrier function to allow penetration of allergens;
2) loss of enzymes (such as neutral endopeptidase) that degrade certain peptide inflammatory mediators;
3) loss of a relaxant factor (so called epithelial-derived relaxant factor);
4) exposure of sensory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Mechanism involved in exercise induced asthma
A

hyperventilation
results in increased osmolality in airway lining fluid –> triggers mast cell mediator release –>
bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Mechanism involved in exercise induced asthma
A

hyperventilation
results in increased osmolality in airway lining fluid –> triggers mast cell mediator release –>
bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

induce mucus hypersecretion in experimental models of asthma

A

IL-4

IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mechanism premenstrual worsening of asthma

A

fall in progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mechanism premenstrual worsening of asthma

A

fall in progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mechanism of Exercise-induced asthma (EIA)

A

prior administration of B2-agonists and antileukotrienes

regular treatment with ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mechanism of Exercise-induced asthma (EIA)

A

> prior administration of B2-agonists and antileukotrienes

> regular treatment with ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

may trigger asthma through the release of sulfur dioxide gas in the stomach

A

Metabisulfite (food preservative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Increased ambient levels of ____ are associated with increased asthma symptoms

A

sulfur dioxide, ozone, and nitrogen oxides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

reversible occupational asthma

A

If removed from exposure within the first 6 months of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

Limitation of airflow in asthma

A

bronchoconstriction, but airway edema, vascular congestion, and luminal occlusion with exudate

30
Q

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

lung hyperinflation, (air trapping) and increased residual volume in asthma

A

Early closure of peripheral airway

31
Q

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

lung hyperinflation, (air trapping) and increased residual volume in asthma

A

Early closure of peripheral airway

32
Q

direct broncho constrictors Increased bronchoconstrictor responsiveness

A

histamine

methacholine

33
Q

MOA of AHR with fog

A

mast cell activation

34
Q

MOA of AHR with sulfur dioxide

A

cholinergic reflex

35
Q

Diagnosis reversibility of airflow limitation in asthma

A

> 12% and 200-mL increase in FEV1 15 minutes after an inhaled short-acting 2-agonist or in some patients by a 2 to 4 week trial of oral corticosteroids (OCS) (prednisone or prednisolone 30-40 mg daily)

36
Q

spirometry findings in asthma

A

reduced
FEV1
FEV1/FVC ratio
PEF

37
Q

how to measure increased AHR

A

methacholine or histamine challenge with calculation of the provocative concentration that reduces FEV1 by 20% (PC20)

38
Q

noninvasive test to measure eosinophilic airway inflammation; may be a test of compliance with therapy

A

Exhaled NO;

elevated levels of NO in asthma are reduced by ICS,

39
Q

MOA ipratropium (anti-cholinergic)

A

prevent cholinergic nerve-induced bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

40
Q

MC adverse effect of ipratropium (anti-cholinergic)

A

dry mouth

41
Q

MOA ipratropium (anti-cholinergic)

A

prevent cholinergic nerve-induced bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

42
Q

MC adverse effect of ipratropium (anti-cholinergic)

A

dry mouth

43
Q

MOA theophylline

A

inhibition of phosphodiesterases in airway smooth-muscle (which increases cyclic AMP)

44
Q

Other effects of B agonists helpful against asthma

A

inhibition of mast cell mediator release
reduction in plasma exudation
inhibition of sensory nerve activation

45
Q

SABA duration of action

A

3-6 hours

46
Q

soluble salt of theophylline previously used for the treatment of severe asthma

A

aminophylline

now replaced by LABA– more effective and fewer side effects

47
Q

soluble salt of theophylline previously used for the treatment of severe asthma

A

aminophylline

now replaced by LABA– more effective and fewer side effects

48
Q

Factors Affecting Clearance of Theophylline

Increased Clearance

A

Enzyme induction (rifampicin, phenobarbitone, ethanol)
Smoking (tobacco, marijuana)
High-protein, low-carbohydrate diet
Barbecued meat
Childhood
(imagine a TB patient, alcoholic, with seizure) smoker drug addict barbecuing meat (for a high protein low carb lunch) for his child

49
Q

Factors Affecting Clearance of Theophylline

Increased Clearance

A

Enzyme induction (rifampicin, phenobarbitone, ethanol)
Smoking (tobacco, marijuana)
High-protein, low-carbohydrate diet
Barbecued meat
Childhood
(imagine a TB patient, alcoholic, with seizure) smoker drug addict barbecuing meat (for a high protein low carb lunch) for his child

50
Q

Factors Affecting Clearance of Theophylline

Decreased Clearance

A 
Congestive heart failure
 Liver disease
 Pneumonia
 Viral infection and vaccination
 High carbohydrate diet
 Old age
51
Q

MOA ICS

A

switch off the transcription of multiple activated genes that encode inflammatory proteins such as cytokines, chemokines, adhesion molecules, and inflammatory enzymes

52
Q

Local SE ICS

A

hoarseness (dysphonia) and oral candidiasis

53
Q

MOA montelukast and zafirlukast

Antileukotrienes

A

block cys-LT1-receptors
(activation of cys-LT1-receptors
cause microvascular leakage, and increase eosinophilic inflammation –> bronchoconstriction)

54
Q

MOA montelukast and zafirlukast

Antileukotrienes

A

block cys-LT1-receptors
(activation of cys-LT1-receptors
cause microvascular leakage, and increase eosinophilic inflammation –> bronchoconstriction)

55
Q

MOA Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil sodium (cromones)

A

inhibit mast cell and sensory nerve activation

56
Q

Steroid-Sparing Therapies used in asthma

A 
Methotrexate
cyclosporin A
azathioprine
gold 
IV gamma globulin
57
Q

blocking antibody that neutralizes circulating IgE without binding to cell-bound IgE and, thus, inhibits IgE-mediated reactions

A

Omalimumab

58
Q

duration trial of therapy to show objective benefit: Omalizumab

A

3 to 4-month

59
Q

chronic asthma

A

ICS given twice daily

60
Q

O2 asthma

A

face mask to achieve oxygen saturation of >90%

61
Q

(approximately 5% of asthmatics) are difficult to control despite maximal inhaled therapy

A

refractory asthma

62
Q

Rx refractory asthma

A

OCS

63
Q

most effective therapy Brittle asthma

A

subcutaneous epinephrine,

64
Q

Brittle asthma persistent pattern of variability and may require oral corticosteroids or, at times, continuous infusion of 2-agonists

A

type I brittle asthma

65
Q

Brittle asthma normal or near-normal lung function but precipitous, unpredictable falls in lung function that may result in death

A

type 2 brittle asthma

66
Q

Hx of OCS treatment impt before surgery

A

will have adrenal suppression and should be treated with an increased dose of OCS immediately prior to surgery

67
Q

allergic pulmonary reaction to inhaled spores of Aspergillus fumigatus and, occasionally, other Aspergillus species.

A

Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (BPA)

68
Q

Rx Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (BPA)

A

itraconazole

69
Q

Direct bronchoconstrictors increased in asthma

A

Histamine

Methacholine

70
Q

Define reversibility in asthma

A

> 12% and 200 ml increase in fev1 15 mins after an inhaled short acting B2 agonist
Or 2-4 wk trial of OCS

71
Q

Non invasive test used to measure airway inflammation

A

FENO exhaled nitric oxide

72
Q

Vasculities associated with wheezing

A

Churg strauss

Polyarteritis nodosa

Pulmonology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions