Assignments Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ

A

Stage 1

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2
Q

A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers

A

All of the above

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3
Q

______ can be generated by translocation in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosomes and recombines with another gene

A

Fusion proteins

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4
Q

Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis

A

30%

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5
Q

What is the first level of dysplasia ?

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue

A

Liposarcoma

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7
Q

Using TNM staging system what would be the grade If the cancer has no distant metastasis

A

M0

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8
Q

What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation

A

P53

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9
Q

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer

A

Lungs

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10
Q

What are the most common of all metastatic tumors

A

Lung

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11
Q

What is the primary indication of theophylline

A

Bronchodilation

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12
Q

What is the drug class for albuterol

A

Bronchodilators
(Andrenergic)

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13
Q

If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas what would it be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor ?

A

Shoulder,midthoracic,or low back

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14
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the _____ phase

A

G2

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15
Q

What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division

A

G2

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16
Q

Which chemotherapy agent bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication

A

Alkylating agents

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17
Q

Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in ______ to block estrogen receptors in the tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive

A

Breast cancer

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18
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs

A

Bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer

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19
Q

A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus imparting tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as

A

Angiogenesis inhibitors

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20
Q

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because

A

Most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissue and cancerous cell

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21
Q

Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they

A

Encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells

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22
Q

The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis

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23
Q

Which of the following healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient ?

A

Radiation oncologist

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24
Q

Which of the following therapy options is considered as nonpharmacological modality for cancer pain

A

Relaxation training

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25
Q

Which of the following concepts describe the theory that each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapuetic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor ?

A

Cell kill hypothesis

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26
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome is a serious complications of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the _________

A

Kidney

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27
Q

A 37 yr old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Flouracil, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide. What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?

A

Antimetabolites

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28
Q

What is the trade name of doxorubicin ?

A

Adriamycin

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29
Q

What is the drug class of cyclophosphamide ?

A

Alkylating agents

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30
Q

What are the common adverse affects of cyclophosphamide (cytoxan)?

A

All of the above

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31
Q

A 68 yr old pt presents with a history of chronic cough weight loss and hemostasis. Chest x ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non small cell lung cancers.
Given the patients diagnosis which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis

A

Positron emission tomography

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32
Q

The pt in the previous case received chemotherapy which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubin, bleomycin,vinblastine,and dacarbazine
To help the patient recover from chemotherapy induced Neutropenia, which of the following medications might the physician consider

A

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
(G-CSF)

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33
Q

Which of the following is the Secondary prevention of cancer

A

Pap smear for cervix

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34
Q

Which of the following test are useful for early detection and staging of tumors

A

CT scan and mri
Tissue biopsy
laboratory values

35
Q

In the mitotic phase when are cells Most susceptible to chemotherapy

A

Synthesis and mitosis

36
Q

Which of the following is used to preoperative true for irradiation therapy

A

It can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor making it operable while preventing further spread of the disease

37
Q

Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupt cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubules assembly or disassembly

A

Microtubules targeting agents

38
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs

A

Bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells

39
Q

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because

A

Most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissue and cancerous cells

40
Q

Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy

A

Patient may easily get infected due to fewer white blood cells

41
Q

What are the adverse affects of chemotherapy

A

Fatigue
Pulmonary toxicity
Renal toxicity

42
Q

What can be the cause of cancer related fatigue

A

Emotional distress

43
Q

When tumors produce signs and symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastatized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

44
Q

Which of the following are large granular lymphocytes cells that do not express antigen specific receptors ?

A

Natural killer cells

45
Q

Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigens peptides for recognition by t cells

A

Major histocompatibality complex molecules

46
Q

What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize eliminate and establish long term memory against a threat

A

Acquired immunity

47
Q

Which of the following is an example of active artificial acquired immunity

A

Vaccination

48
Q

Which of the following cells live the longest

A

Monocytes

49
Q

Which immuniglobulin is the predominant immuniglobulin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva breast milk urine and tears

A

IgA

50
Q

What type of major histocompatibility molecule combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized pinocytised or endocytosed from the extracellular environment

A

MHC Class II

51
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the humeral immune response ?

A

Urine

52
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for antibodies ?

A

The fragment antigen biding (Fab fragment ) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens

53
Q

Which of the following is called CD8+T cells

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

54
Q

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms

A

Effector phase

55
Q

After intense exercise of long duration the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values.Maximal reductions in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cells activity occur _____ hours after exercise

A

2-4 hrs

56
Q

When HIV enters the body what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells

A

CD4 and macrophages

57
Q

At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma

A

Advanced HIV disease

58
Q

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?

A

Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs

59
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen

A

Type IV( cell mediated immunity) hypersensitivity

60
Q

What type of immunology hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis

A

Type I (Ig E mediated or immediate type) hypersensitivity

61
Q

Which of the following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus(SLE)?

A

Mild symptoms can be mamanged with nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation

62
Q

Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission ?

A

All of the above

63
Q

CD4 + T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells ?

A

Produce antibodies

64
Q

What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?

A

Incubation period

65
Q

______ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector

A

Ricketssia

66
Q

Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease

A

Measles

67
Q

_ ____ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.

A

Mycoplasmas

68
Q

What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air

A

4 μm

69
Q

Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room

A

Standard precautions

70
Q

What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years

A

Tetanus and diphtheria

71
Q

What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles

A

Exclude from duty

72
Q

What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B

A

3 to 7 days

73
Q

Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of

A

bacterial intracellular calcium release

74
Q

Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.

A

penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans

75
Q

Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell

A

ribosome; messenger RNA translation

76
Q

Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells

A

folic acid

77
Q

Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by

A

developing enzymes that destroy the drug
modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell

78
Q

Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because

A

viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell

79
Q

Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they

A

inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA

80
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as

A

peripheral neuropathy
myopathy
joint pain

81
Q

Interferons are small proteins that

A

exert nonspecific antiviral activity
control cell differentiation
limit excessive cell proliferation
modify certain immune processes

82
Q

Which of the following medications is an antibiotic

A

Ampicillin

83
Q

What is the drug class of Doxycycline

A

Tetracycline antibiotics